-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 54-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant and epigastric pain and associated vomiting. This is his third attack in the past 9 months. He has a past history of obesity, hypertension and hypertriglyceridaemia. Medications include ramipril, amlodipine, fenofibrate, aspirin and indapamide. On examination, he is obese with a body mass index (BMI) of 31; his blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg, and he has jaundiced sclerae. There is right upper quadrant tenderness.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 140 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 10.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 239 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Alanine aminotransferase 75 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Bilirubin 99 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase 285 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Ultrasound of abdomen: gallstones clearly visualised within a thick-walled gallbladder, dilated duct consistent with further stones.
Which of his medications is most likely to be responsible for his condition?Your Answer: Fenofibrate
Explanation:Drugs and their association with gallstone formation
Explanation:
Gallstones are a common medical condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. Certain drugs have been found to increase the risk of gallstone formation, while others do not have any association.
Fenofibrate, a drug used to increase cholesterol excretion by the liver, is known to increase the risk of cholesterol gallstone formation. Oestrogens are also known to increase the risk of gallstones. Somatostatin analogues, which decrease gallbladder emptying, can contribute to stone formation. Pigment gallstones are associated with high haem turnover, such as in sickle-cell anaemia.
On the other hand, drugs like indapamide, ramipril, amlodipine, and aspirin are not associated with increased gallstone formation. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old baker visits his GP with concerns about yellowing sclera that have developed over the past week. He has no significant medical history except for a recent viral infection that he has since recovered from. He drinks socially, consuming approximately 20 units per week, and has been in a four-year relationship with his girlfriend. His aunt's death from complications of Wilson's disease is a cause for concern, as her eyes also turned yellow before she became seriously ill. What is the most frequently linked outcome with Wilson's disease?
Your Answer: Low urinary copper
Correct Answer: Low ceruloplasmin
Explanation:Understanding Wilson’s Disease and Haemochromatosis: Key Diagnostic Markers
Wilson’s disease and haemochromatosis are two genetic conditions that can lead to serious health consequences if left untreated. Understanding the key diagnostic markers for each condition is crucial for early diagnosis and management.
Wilson’s disease is characterized by a build-up of copper in the body, resulting in liver disease and neuropsychiatric disease. Low ceruloplasmin and high urinary copper are typical markers of Wilson’s disease, along with the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings. Definitive diagnosis is obtained via liver biopsy, and treatment aims at lifelong reduction of copper levels.
On the other hand, haemochromatosis results in iron overload and accumulation in different organs, leading to liver cirrhosis, cardiomyopathy, and other complications. High transferrin saturation and elevated serum ferritin are key diagnostic markers for haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that positive antinuclear antibody and positive antimitochondrial antibody are not diagnostic for Wilson’s disease or haemochromatosis, as they are associated with other autoimmune conditions. Early diagnosis and management of these conditions is crucial for reducing the risk of serious and potentially life-threatening consequences.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old student presents to the University Health Service with jaundice. He had been to a party three nights earlier and since then has been laid up in bed with flu-like symptoms. On examination, he has mild jaundice, but otherwise the examination is normal.
Bloods:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 62 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 21 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Gilbert’s Syndrome and Its Differential Diagnosis
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the conjugation of bilirubin due to a defect in the bilirubin-uridine diphosphate (UDP) glucuronyl transferase enzyme. This results in an isolated rise in bilirubin levels during times of stress, fatigue, or viral illness. A 48-hour fast can confirm the diagnosis if it is unclear. The condition is benign and does not require specific treatment.
Crigler-Najjar syndrome is another condition that affects UDP glucuronyl transferase, but it presents with jaundice and typically results in death during the neonatal period.
Cholecystitis causes right upper quadrant abdominal pain and fever but does not typically result in jaundice. Acute ethanol poisoning can lead to alcoholic hepatitis, but the mild jaundice and overall well-being of the patient are more consistent with Gilbert’s syndrome.
Viral hepatitis can also cause jaundice, but the clinical picture is more in line with Gilbert’s syndrome. Understanding the differential diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of restlessness and drowsiness. He has a history of consuming more than fifty units of alcohol per week. During the examination, he displays a broad-based gait and bilateral lateral rectus muscle palsy, as well as nystagmus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Serious Condition Linked to Alcoholism and Malnutrition
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological condition characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. It is commonly seen in individuals with a history of alcohol excess and malnutrition, and can even occur during pregnancy. The condition is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, a vital nutrient for the brain.
If left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to irreversible Korsakoff’s syndrome. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize and treat the condition as an emergency with thiamine replacement. The therapeutic window for treatment is short-lived, making early diagnosis and intervention essential.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that can have devastating consequences if left untreated. It is important to consider this diagnosis in confused patients, particularly those with a history of alcoholism or malnutrition. Early recognition and treatment with thiamine replacement can prevent the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome and improve outcomes for affected individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A General Practice is conducting an audit on the number of elderly patients with gastrointestinal symptoms who were referred for endoscopy without a clear clinical indication.
Which of the following intestinal diseases necessitates blood tests and small intestinal biopsy for precise diagnosis?Your Answer: Whipple’s disease
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Diagnostic Biopsy Findings for Various Intestinal Conditions
When conducting a biopsy of the small intestine, various changes may be observed that can indicate the presence of certain conditions. However, it is important to note that these changes are not always specific to a particular disease and may be found in other conditions as well. Therefore, additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to confirm a diagnosis.
Coeliac disease is one condition that can be suggested by biopsy findings, which may include infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma cells, villous atrophy, and crypt hyperplasia. However, positive serology for anti-endomysial or anti-gliadin antibodies is also needed to confirm gluten sensitivity.
Abetalipoproteinemia, Mycobacterium avium infection, Whipple’s disease, and intestinal lymphangiectasia are other conditions that can be diagnosed based on biopsy findings alone. Abetalipoproteinemia is characterized by clear enterocytes due to lipid accumulation, while Mycobacterium avium infection is identified by the presence of foamy macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli. In Whipple’s disease, macrophages are swollen and contain PAS-positive granules due to the glycogen content of bacterial cell walls. Finally, primary intestinal lymphangiectasia is diagnosed by the dilation of lymphatics in the intestinal mucosa without any evidence of inflammation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man experiences vomiting of bright red blood following an episode of heavy drinking. The medical team suspects a duodenal ulcer that is bleeding. Which blood vessel is the most probable source of the bleeding?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Stomach and Duodenum: Potential Sites of Haemorrhage
The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by a network of arteries that can be vulnerable to erosion and haemorrhage in cases of ulceration. Here are some of the key arteries of the stomach and duodenum to be aware of:
Gastroduodenal artery: This branch of the common hepatic artery travels to the first part of the duodenum, where duodenal ulcers often occur. If the ulceration erodes through the gastroduodenal artery, it can cause a catastrophic haemorrhage and present as haematemesis.
Left gastric artery: Arising from the coeliac artery, the left gastric artery supplies the distal oesophagus and the lesser curvature of the stomach. Gastric ulceration can cause erosion of this artery and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery arises from the splenic artery and runs along the greater curvature of the stomach. If there is gastric ulceration, it can be eroded and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Right gastroepiploic artery: Arising from the gastroduodenal artery, the right gastroepiploic artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach and anastomoses with the left gastroepiploic artery.
Short gastric arteries: These branches arise from the splenic artery and supply the fundus of the stomach, passing through the gastrosplenic ligament.
Knowing the potential sites of haemorrhage in the gastrointestinal tract can help clinicians to identify and manage cases of bleeding effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 47-year-old man is admitted with acute epigastric pain and a serum amylase of 1500 u/l. His IMRIE score confirms acute pancreatitis. On examination, a large ecchymosis is observed around the umbilicus.
What clinical sign does this examination finding demonstrate?Your Answer: Cullen’s sign
Explanation:Common Medical Signs and Their Meanings
Medical signs are physical indications of a disease or condition that can aid in diagnosis. Here are some common medical signs and their meanings:
1. Cullen’s sign: This is bruising around the umbilicus that can indicate acute pancreatitis or an ectopic pregnancy.
2. McBurney’s sign: Pain over McBurney’s point, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, can indicate acute appendicitis.
3. Grey–Turner’s sign: Discoloration of the flanks can indicate retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
4. Troisier’s sign: The presence of Virchow’s node in the left supraclavicular fossa can indicate gastric cancer.
5. Tinel’s sign: Tingling in the median nerve distribution when tapping over the median nerve can indicate carpal tunnel syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 21-year-old anatomy student presents with diarrhoea and weight loss. The patient complains of increased frequency of loose motions associated with cramping abdominal pain for six weeks, with an accompanying 5 kg weight loss. He opens his bowels anywhere from three to six times daily, the stool frequently has mucous in it, but no blood. The patient has no recent history of foreign travel and has had no ill contacts. He is a non-smoker and does not drink alcohol. The patient is referred to Gastroenterology for further investigation. A colonoscopy and biopsy of an affected area of bowel reveals ulcerative colitis.
Which of the following is an extra-intestinal clinical feature associated with inflammatory bowel disease?Your Answer: Sacroiliitis
Explanation:Extraintestinal Clinical Features Associated with IBD
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is often accompanied by joint pain and inflammation, with migratory polyarthritis and sacroiliitis being common arthritic conditions. Other extraintestinal clinical features associated with IBD include aphthous ulcers, anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, episcleritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum, erythema multiforme, finger clubbing, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and fissures. However, aortic aneurysm is not known to be associated with IBD, as it is commonly linked to Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and collagen-vascular diseases. While peripheral arthropathy of the hands is associated with IBD, it is typically asymmetrical and non-deforming. Deforming arthropathy of the hands is more commonly associated with psoriatic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard’s nodes, bony distal and proximal interphalangeal joint nodes, are found in osteoarthritis and are not associated with IBD. Prostatitis, a bacterial infection of the prostate gland, is not associated with IBD and is typically caused by Chlamydia or gonorrhoeae in young, sexually active men, and Escherichia coli in older men.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old male taxi driver presented with altered consciousness. He was discovered on the roadside in this state and brought to the Emergency Department. He had a strong smell of alcohol and was also found to be icteric. Ascites and gynaecomastia were clinically present. The following morning during examination, he was lying still in bed without interest in his surroundings. He was able to report his name and occupation promptly but continued to insist that it was midnight. He was cooperative during physical examination, but once the attending doctor pressed his abdomen, he swore loudly, despite being known as a generally gentle person. What is the grading of hepatic encephalopathy for this patient?
Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:Understanding the West Haven Criteria for Hepatic Encephalopathy
The West Haven Criteria is a scoring system used to assess the severity of hepatic encephalopathy, a condition where the liver is unable to remove toxins from the blood, leading to brain dysfunction. The criteria range from 0 to 4, with higher scores indicating more severe symptoms.
A score of 0 indicates normal mental status with minimal changes in memory, concentration, intellectual function, and coordination. This is also known as minimal hepatic encephalopathy.
A score of 1 indicates mild confusion, euphoria or depression, decreased attention, slowing of mental tasks, irritability, and sleep pattern disorders such as an inverted sleep cycle.
A score of 2 indicates drowsiness, lethargy, gross deficits in mental tasks, personality changes, inappropriate behavior, and intermittent disorientation.
A score of 3 presents with somnolence but rousability, inability to perform mental tasks, disorientation to time and place, marked confusion, amnesia, occasional fits of rage, and speech that is present but incomprehensible.
A score of 4 indicates coma with or without response to painful stimuli.
Understanding the West Haven Criteria is important in diagnosing and managing hepatic encephalopathy, as it helps healthcare professionals determine the severity of the condition and develop appropriate treatment plans.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman complains of worsening intermittent dysphagia over the past year. She experiences severe retrosternal chest pain during these episodes and has more difficulty swallowing liquids than solids.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Benign oesophageal stricture
Correct Answer: Oesophageal dysmotility
Explanation:Causes of Dysphagia: Understanding the Underlying Disorders
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various underlying disorders. Mechanical obstruction typically causes dysphagia for solids more than liquids, while neuromuscular conditions result in abnormal peristalsis of the oesophagus and cause dysphagia for liquids more than solids. However, oesophageal dysmotility is the only condition that can cause more dysphagia for liquids than solids due to uncoordinated peristalsis.
Achalasia is a likely underlying disorder for oesophageal dysmotility, which causes progressive dysphagia for liquids more than solids with severe episodes of chest pain. It is an idiopathic condition that can be diagnosed through a barium swallow and manometry, which reveal an abnormally high lower oesophageal sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing.
Oesophageal cancer and strictures typically cause dysphagia for solids before liquids, accompanied by weight loss, loss of appetite, rapidly progressive symptoms, or a hoarse voice. Pharyngeal pouch causes dysphagia, regurgitation, cough, and halitosis, and patients may need to manually reduce it through pressure on their neck to remove food contents from it.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) may cause retrosternal chest pain, acid brash, coughing/choking episodes, and dysphagia, typically where there is a sensation of food getting stuck (but not for liquids). Benign oesophageal stricture is often associated with long-standing GORD, previous surgery to the oesophagus, or radiotherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)