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  • Question 1 - Sophie is a 4-year-old girl who has been brought in by her father...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 4-year-old girl who has been brought in by her father with a 2 day history of cough and fever. Her father describes the cough sounds like a bark and today Sophie has appeared more breathless.

      On examination, Sophie appears alert with moist mucous membranes. You observe nasal flaring and moderate intercostal recession. You check Sophie's temperature which is 38.2°C and oxygen saturation is 97% in air. Her respiratory rate is 52 breaths per minute and heart rate is 138 beats per minute.

      What red flag symptoms have you observed in Sophie?

      Your Answer: Moderate intercostal recession

      Explanation:

      When a child has a fever, moderate or severe intercostal recession is a concerning symptom. This is considered a red flag according to NICE guidelines, which indicate a high risk of serious illness. Other red flag symptoms include those in the amber risk category, such as nasal flaring and a respiratory rate over 40 breaths per minute for children over 12 months old. A heart rate of 138 beats per minute is not a red flag symptom, but a heart rate over 140 beats per minute for children aged 2-5 years is considered an amber symptom. A temperature of 38°C or higher is only a red flag symptom for infants aged 0-3 months.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      120.5
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough and fever. He has smoked...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough and fever. He has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 40 years.

      On examination he has dullness to percussion and reduced air entry at the right lung base. He doesn't have any pain and is not breathless. You arrange a chest x ray, prescribe antibiotics and review him in one week.

      He now feels better with less cough and no fever. His chest x ray reports an area of consolidation with a small pleural effusion at the right lung base. The radiologist recommends a follow up x ray in four weeks.

      When the patient returns for the result of the follow up x ray the radiologist reports that there is little change in the appearances.

      What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to a respiratory physician urgently

      Explanation:

      Importance of Thorough Respiratory Examination in Lung Cancer Diagnosis

      Pleural effusion and slowly resolving consolidation may indicate lung cancer, requiring urgent referral to a respiratory physician under the two week wait criteria. However, a comprehensive examination is necessary to avoid missing an effusion. Simply auscultating the chest is insufficient. A thorough respiratory examination, including noting any deviation of the trachea, percussion note, and tactile vocal fremitus, can provide important clues and need not significantly prolong the examination time. Failure to perform a thorough examination or investigation of malignancy is a contributing factor to delay in cancer diagnosis, according to the NPSA. In this case, the patient’s smoking history and slow-to-resolve consolidation further support the need for urgent referral and detailed imaging to reveal any underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      90.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health check. He is a smoker with a strong family history of premature death from ischaemic heart disease. His fasting cholesterol concentration is 7.2 mmol/l and his estimated 10-year risk of a coronary heart disease event is >30%.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option in this patient.

      Your Answer: Statin

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends primary prevention for individuals under 84 years old who have a risk of over 10% of developing cardiovascular disease, which can be estimated using the QRISK2 assessment tool. To address modifiable risk factors, interventions such as dietary advice, smoking cessation support, alcohol moderation, and weight reduction should be offered. For lipid management, both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions should be utilized, with atorvastatin 20 mg being the recommended prescription for primary prevention. Lipids should be checked after 3 months, with the aim of reducing non-HDL cholesterol by over 40%. However, excessive drug usage in the elderly should be considered carefully by doctors, as cardiovascular risks exceeding 5-10% may be found in elderly men based on age and gender alone. NICE advises against routinely prescribing fibrates, bile acid sequestrants, nicotinic acid, omega-3 fatty acid compounds, or a combination of a statin and another lipid-modifying drug. First-line treatment for primary hyperlipidaemia is a statin, with other options such as bile acid sequestrants being considered if statins are contraindicated or not tolerated. For primary prevention of CVD, high-intensity statin treatment should be offered to individuals under 84 years old with an estimated 10-year risk of 10% or more using the QRISK assessment tool. Diet modification alone is not recommended for individuals with a risk score over 30%. Ezetimibe can be considered for individuals with primary hypercholesterolaemia if a statin is contraindicated or not tolerated, but it is not the first choice of drug in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The Delphi method is utilized to assess what? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Delphi method is utilized to assess what?

      Your Answer: Confounding

      Correct Answer: Expert consensus

      Explanation:

      The Delphi Method: Achieving Convergence of Expert Opinions

      The Delphi method is a widely used technique for gathering and converging expert opinions on real-world knowledge within specific topic areas. The process typically involves three rounds of data collection, starting with an open-ended questionnaire in the first round. The collected information is then structured into a questionnaire for the second round, where participants review and rate the items. In the third round, participants revise their judgments and provide further clarifications.

      Choosing the appropriate subjects is crucial for generating high-quality results, but there is no exact criterion for selecting Delphi participants. They should be highly trained and competent in the specialized area of knowledge related to the target issue.

      However, the Delphi method also has potential issues, such as being time-consuming and potentially enabling investigators to mold opinions. Maintaining robust feedback can also be a challenge, and the expertise of Delphi panelists may be unevenly distributed. Despite these challenges, the Delphi method remains a valuable tool for achieving convergence of expert opinions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 61-year-old man with hypertension attends the General Practice Surgery for his annual...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man with hypertension attends the General Practice Surgery for his annual review. He currently takes a combination of 5 mg ramipril and 5 mg amlodipine once a day.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 136/82 mmHg.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Creatinine (Cr) 142 ”mol/l 59–104 ”mol/l
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 63 ml/min < 90 ml/min
      Urine albumin : creatine (ACR) ratio 80 mg/mmol < 3.0 mg/mmol
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management advice for this patient?

      Your Answer: A BP treatment goal of < 130/80 mmHg is indicated for patients with proteinuria (ACR > 70 mg/mmol)

      Explanation:

      For patients with proteinuria (ACR > 70 mg/mmol), the goal for blood pressure treatment is to keep it below 130/80 mmHg. In cases of chronic kidney disease (CKD), where the patient has a high Cr level and ACR, the aim is to keep systolic BP below 140 mmHg and diastolic BP below 90 mmHg. However, for patients with CKD and diabetes, or an ACR of > 70 mg/mmol, the target is slightly lower, with systolic BP below 130 mmHg and diastolic BP below 80 mmHg.

      Contrary to popular belief, ACE inhibitors are not contraindicated for patients with only one kidney. In fact, patients with a single kidney are more prone to renal impairment and should be considered for ACE-inhibitor treatment.

      While it was previously recommended that patients with proteinuria consume a high-protein diet to replace urinary losses, recent studies have shown that a low-protein diet can reduce the death rate in those with CKD. However, a prescribed/modified protein intake of 0.75 g/kg ideal-bodyweight/day for patients with stage 4–5 CKD not on dialysis, and 1.2 g/kg ideal-bodyweight/day for patients treated with dialysis, is now suggested.

      It is important to note that the result measured by laboratories is an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which assumes standard body surface area and race. Patients who have had amputations or other physical differences could receive inaccurate results. Additionally, an eGFR level of between 60 and 89 ml/min can signify kidney disease if proteinuria is also present, as is the case with this patient who has an ACR level of > 70 mg/mol. Therefore, it would be inappropriate to suggest that an eGFR level above 60 ml/minute per 1.73 m2 indicates the absence of renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      106
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment with fluoxetine for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior experience with antidepressant medication and has no other medical conditions.

      During the assessment, she reports no suicidal thoughts and has a supportive partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She has not experienced any adverse effects with fluoxetine but has heard positive things about St John's wort from a friend.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue the current dose of fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Stop the fluoxetine and refer for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs

      When a patient has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.

      After three to four weeks of minimal or absent response, there are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, caution is needed when switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics because it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, after appropriate discontinuation of fluoxetine, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.

      It is not recommended to prescribe or advocate for St John’s wort due to lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and anti-epileptics.

      According to NICE CG90, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication for moderate depression. If response is absent or minimal after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment with a therapeutic dose of an antidepressant, increase the level of support (for example, by weekly face-to-face or telephone contact) and consider increasing the dose in line with the SPC if there are no significant side effects or switching to another antidepressant as described in section 1.8 if there are side effects or if the person prefers.

      In summary, it is important to closely monitor patients who are not responding to SSRIs and consider alternative treatment options in consultation with a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      62.4
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  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. His parents brought him...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. His parents brought him to the doctor after noticing he was restricting his food intake and losing weight. What type of treatment is typically recommended for this condition?

      Your Answer: Family based therapy

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for anorexia nervosa in children and adolescents is family therapy that specifically targets anorexia.

      Anorexia nervosa is a prevalent mental health condition that primarily affects teenage and young-adult females. It is the most common reason for admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards. The disorder is characterized by a restriction of energy intake, leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health. Patients with anorexia nervosa also experience an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though they are underweight. They may also have a distorted perception of their body weight or shape, which can affect their self-evaluation.

      The diagnosis of anorexia nervosa is based on the DSM 5 criteria, which no longer specifically mention BMI and amenorrhoea. Instead, the criteria focus on the restriction of energy intake, fear of gaining weight, and disturbance in the way one’s body weight or shape is experienced.

      The management of anorexia nervosa varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, NICE recommends individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), or specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). In children and young people, NICE recommends ‘anorexia focused family therapy’ as the first-line treatment, followed by cognitive behavioural therapy as the second-line treatment.

      Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with anorexia nervosa remains poor, with up to 10% of patients eventually dying because of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man falls and sprains his thumb while skiing. His thumb was...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man falls and sprains his thumb while skiing. His thumb was outstretched at the time of the fall. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress.
      What is the most probable injury observed in this case?

      Your Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear

      Explanation:

      The ulnar collateral ligament tear, also known as Gamekeeper’s thumb or skier’s thumb, is a common injury among skiers who fall against the ski-pole, strap, or ground while the thumb is abducted. This ligament connects the middle of the metacarpal head to the palmar aspect of the proximal phalanx and supports the thumb when pinching or gripping. The tear can be partial or complete, and there may be an associated avulsion fracture of the volar base of the proximal phalanx. Symptoms include hyperextension and lateral deviation of the thumb, swelling, bruising over the joint, and pain felt over the ulnar side of the metacarpo-phalangeal joint. Treatment involves immobilization in a thumb spica splint for 4-6 weeks if the joint is stable, otherwise referral for possible surgical repair is indicated. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, osteoarthritis of the metacarpo-phalyngeal joint, radial collateral ligament tear, and scaphoid fracture are different conditions and not related to ulnar collateral ligament tear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise and jaundice. Liver function tests reveal a hepatocellular pattern of liver damage, leading to suspicion of viral hepatitis.
      Which of the following choices would NOT aid in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgM anti-hepatitis B core (HBc)

      Correct Answer: Anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis Tests

      Hepatitis is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different types of hepatitis, including A, B, and C. To diagnose hepatitis, doctors use various tests. One of these tests is the Anti-HBs test, which indicates immunity to hepatitis B.

      Another test is the Hepatitis B surface antigen test, which can indicate an acute infection or a chronic carrier state. If a patient has acute hepatitis B virus infection, the presence of this antigen strongly suggests it. However, it doesn’t rule out chronic HBV with acute superinfection by another hepatitis virus.

      The most specific test for diagnosing acute HCV infection before antibodies have developed is the qualitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay for viral particles. If all these tests are negative, doctors should consider other causes of hepatitis, such as another virus or alcohol.

      In conclusion, understanding hepatitis tests is crucial for diagnosing and treating this viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      66.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who is currently undergoing treatment for metastatic breast...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who is currently undergoing treatment for metastatic breast cancer. She is receiving neo-adjuvant chemotherapy before a surgical resection. Her most recent chemotherapy was 5 days ago. Samantha visits your GP clinic complaining of fatigue and muscle pain. She reports no cough, dysuria, or skin rashes. During her visit, her vital signs are as follows: temperature of 38.3 degrees Celsius, blood pressure of 110/80 mmHg, and a heart rate of 110 bpm. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      An urgent admission is necessary for Lucy due to her high risk of developing neutropenic sepsis, particularly after undergoing chemotherapy within the described time frame. Her observational parameters, including a temperature above 38 degrees celsius and a pulse of 110 bpm, are concerning and suggest the onset of sepsis. According to the NICE guidelines (2012), patients taking anticancer therapy who are suspected of having sepsis should be promptly assessed in a hospital. As the main concern in Lucy’s case is neutropenic sepsis, the other options for her management would not be appropriate.

      Understanding Neutropenic Sepsis in Cancer Patients

      Neutropenic sepsis is a common complication that arises from cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ÂșC or other signs of clinically significant sepsis. To prevent this condition, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 should be offered a fluoroquinolone.

      Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial in managing neutropenic sepsis. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) without waiting for the WBC. While some units add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE doesn’t support this approach. After the initial treatment, patients are assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they can receive outpatient treatment. If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) instead of blindly starting antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      93.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
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