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Question 1
Incorrect
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As you explore non-pharmacological treatments for different mental health conditions during your psychiatry rotation, you come across electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Which of the following mental health conditions can be treated and managed using ECT?
Your Answer: Moderate depression
Correct Answer: Catatonia
Explanation:The Use of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) in Mental Health: Conditions and Recommendations
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a treatment option for certain mental health conditions. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends ECT for severe depression, catatonia, and prolonged or severe mania, but only if the condition is potentially life-threatening and other treatments have proved ineffective. ECT involves attaching electrodes to the scalp and passing an electrical current through to induce a seizure, which is performed under general anaesthesia. The mechanism of action involved in ECT is still not fully understood, but it is thought to cause a neurotransmitter release that improves symptoms. However, ECT can have side-effects such as memory impairment, headache, confusion, and muscle pains. It is not recommended for moderate depression, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), anxiety, or severe dementia.
The Use of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) in Mental Health: Conditions and Recommendations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A young woman in her early twenties visits your GP clinic. She plans to start trying for a baby in a year's time but wants to avoid pregnancy until then as she has important exams to take. She hopes to conceive soon after completing her exams. Which contraceptive method is known to cause a longer delay in the return to fertility?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Depo-Provera
Explanation:Condoms act as a barrier contraceptive and do not have any impact on ovulation, therefore they do not cause any delay in fertility. The intrauterine system (IUS) functions by thickening cervical mucous and may prevent ovulation in some women, but most women still ovulate. Once the IUS is removed, most women regain their fertility immediately.
The combined oral contraceptive pill may postpone the return to a normal menstrual cycle in some women, but the majority of them can conceive within a month of discontinuing it. The progesterone-only pill is less likely to delay the return to a normal cycle as it does not contain oestrogen.
Depo-Provera can last up to 12 weeks, and it may take several months for the body to return to a normal menstrual cycle, which can delay fertility. As a result, it is not the most suitable method for a woman who wants to resume ovulatory cycles immediately.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old African-Caribbean woman with sickle-cell anaemia presents with acute kidney injury. Her only medication is hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea).
What is the most probable reason for her condition?Your Answer: Hypoperfusion of renal tubules from hypotension
Correct Answer: Renal papillary necrosis
Explanation:Causes of Acute Kidney Injury
Acute kidney injury (AKI) can be caused by various factors. One of the causes is renal papillary necrosis, which is commonly associated with sickle-cell anaemia. This occurs when sickled red blood cells cause infarction and necrosis of renal papillae. Other causes of renal papillary necrosis include diabetes mellitus, acute pyelonephritis, and chronic paracetamol use.
Another cause of AKI is hypoperfusion of renal tubules from hypotension. This happens when there is a decrease in blood pressure due to shock or dehydration, leading to the hypoperfusion of renal tubules and acute tubular necrosis.
Drug-induced interstitial nephritis is also a cause of AKI. This occurs when there is an allergic reaction to certain drugs such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antibiotics, and loop diuretics. Eosinophils in the urine are associated with this type of AKI.
Pyelonephritis from Salmonella species is not a cause of AKI in patients with sickle-cell disease. However, diffuse cortical necrosis is a rare cause of AKI associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation, especially in obstetric emergencies such as abruptio placentae.
In conclusion, AKI can be caused by various factors, and it is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with his spouse, reporting a chronic cough and swelling in his neck. He has been experiencing these symptoms for several years but only sought medical attention today because his wife urged him to address his bad breath. The man's wife also notes that he makes noise while eating and drinking and occasionally has difficulty swallowing, leading to regurgitation of food. The patient has a history of hospitalization for pneumonia following one of these choking episodes. What is the most suitable course of action for managing his likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Surgical repair and resection
Explanation:Pharyngeal pouch may lead to dysphagia, aspiration pneumonia, and halitosis.
Understanding Pharyngeal Pouch or Zenker’s Diverticulum
A pharyngeal pouch, also known as Zenker’s diverticulum, is a condition where there is a posteromedial diverticulum through Killian’s dehiscence. This triangular area is found in the wall of the pharynx between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles. It is more common in older patients and is five times more common in men.
The symptoms of pharyngeal pouch include dysphagia, regurgitation, aspiration, neck swelling that gurgles on palpation, and halitosis. To diagnose this condition, a barium swallow combined with dynamic video fluoroscopy is usually done.
Surgery is the most common management for pharyngeal pouch. It is important to address this condition promptly to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Understanding the symptoms and seeking medical attention early can help in the proper management of pharyngeal pouch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner, complaining of a lump in her neck. She is a non-smoker and has no significant past medical history. On examination, there is a 2-cm firm, non-tender nodule on the left side of the anterior triangle of the neck, in the area of the thyroid.
Investigations:
Thyroid stimulating hormone: 2.5 mu/l (0.4–4.0 mu/l)
Fine-needle aspiration biopsy: partial papillary architecture with some thyroid follicles present. Thyrocytes are abnormally large with an abnormal nucleus and cytoplasm and frequent mitoses. Psammoma bodies are also demonstrated in the sample.
Which of the following fits best with the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Correct Answer: Papillary thyroid carcinoma
Explanation:Thyroid Cancer Types and Diagnosis
Thyroid cancer can be classified into different types based on the cells involved. Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common type, where the papillary architecture of the thyroid is partially preserved. Surgery followed by radioiodine therapy is the standard treatment for this condition. Medullary thyroid carcinoma is less common and results in elevated calcitonin levels. Non-toxic multinodular goitre can be diagnosed through fine-needle aspiration biopsy, which shows colloid nodules. Follicular thyroid carcinoma exhibits variable morphology and is not consistent with fine-needle aspiration biopsy findings. Solitary toxic nodule can be ruled out if thyroid function is within normal limits. Proper diagnosis and treatment can lead to a high survival rate for patients under 40 years of age with papillary thyroid carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of a swollen left eye. She noticed it while playing outside in the park. Her mother is concerned because she is having difficulty reading her books. The girl has no medical history, and this has never happened before.
During the examination, the left eyelid is warm and red, and the eye seems to be bulging. The girl's eye movements are limited in all directions. The right eye appears normal. Her heart rate is 120 beats/minute, and her temperature is 37.9ºC.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Orbital cellulitis can be distinguished from preseptal cellulitis based on the presence of reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and pain with eye movements. This classic presentation is accompanied by fever and tachycardia, indicating an infection. While preseptal cellulitis can also cause a swollen eye, it does not result in the same symptoms as orbital cellulitis. Other conditions, such as minimal change disease, mastoiditis, and bilateral periorbital edema, may cause swelling and fever, but they do not typically result in unilateral swelling with restricted eye movements and raised temperature.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of difficulty concentrating and irregular jerky movements in his extremities and fingers. He reports consuming around 20 units of alcohol per week and has a family history of dementia, with his father being diagnosed at the age of 40. On examination, he displays generalised choreiform movements, but his neurological and systemic examination is otherwise unremarkable. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Huntington's disease
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that is inherited through autosomal means. It is caused by an expanded CAG trinucleotide repeat on chromosome 4’s short arm. The disease is characterized by a gradual decline in cognitive function and increasingly erratic movements known as choreiform movements. Symptoms usually manifest between the ages of 30 and 50. Genetic testing is now available to accurately diagnose the disease. The average life expectancy after the onset of symptoms is approximately 15 years.
In summary, Huntington’s disease is a debilitating genetic disorder that affects cognitive function and movement. It is caused by an expanded CAG trinucleotide repeat on chromosome 4’s short arm. Symptoms typically appear in middle age, and genetic testing is now available to diagnose the disease accurately. Unfortunately, the average life expectancy after the onset of symptoms is relatively short.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation (gravida 3, parity 2). The patient reports no abdominal pain but is worried about the possibility of a miscarriage. She has a history of two uncomplicated caesarean sections. What is the recommended first step in diagnosing her condition?
Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Understanding Placenta Praevia
Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.
There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.
Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.
In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has a medical history of angina, hypertension, high cholesterol, and is a current smoker. Upon arrival, a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Left circumflex
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:ECG Changes and Localisation of Infarct in Coronary Artery Disease
Patients with chest pain and multiple risk factors for cardiac disease require prompt evaluation to determine the underlying cause. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help localise the infarct to a particular territory, which can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
Inferior infarcts are often due to lesions in the right coronary artery, as evidenced by ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. However, in 20% of cases, this can also be caused by an occlusion of a dominant left circumflex artery.
Lateral infarcts involve branches of the left anterior descending (LAD) and left circumflex arteries, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads I, aVL, and V5-6. It is unusual for a lateral STEMI to occur in isolation, and it usually occurs as part of a larger territory infarction.
Anterior infarcts are caused by blockage of the LAD artery, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads V1-V6.
Blockage of the right marginal artery does not have a specific pattern of ECG changes associated with it, and it is not one of the major coronary vessels.
In summary, understanding the ECG changes associated with different coronary arteries can aid in localising the infarct and guiding appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which blood test is the most sensitive for diagnosing acute pancreatitis?
Your Answer: Lipase
Explanation:If the clinical presentation does not match the amylase level, it is important to consider that the serum amylase can fluctuate rapidly and produce an inaccurate negative result. In such cases, it is recommended to conduct a serum lipase test or a CT scan.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman without previous pregnancies visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating and diarrhea. She has a family history of irritable bowel syndrome. During the examination, the doctor notes a soft and non-tender abdomen with a detectable pelvic mass. What is the most appropriate next course of action?
Your Answer: Refer her for an urgent abdominal/pelvic ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Measure CA125 and refer her urgently to gynaecology
Explanation:If there is suspicion of ovarian cancer and an abdominal or pelvic mass is present, it is not necessary to perform a CA125 and US test. Instead, the patient should be immediately referred to gynaecology. Prescribing loperamide and buscopan for symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in women over 50 years old is not appropriate as these symptoms could indicate ovarian cancer and require investigation. While waiting for the results of CA125 and ultrasound tests is usually recommended for suspected ovarian cancer patients, urgent referral to gynaecology is necessary in this case due to the presence of an abdominal mass. Although CA125 measurement should still be performed, waiting for test results to determine the need for urgent referral is not appropriate as guidelines already recommend it.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review for his hypertension. During the examination, the GP observes that the patient has prominent supraorbital ridges, large hands and feet, and acanthosis nigricans of the axillae. The GP also discovers enlargement of the thyroid gland and hepatomegaly. Besides hypertension, what other condition is frequently linked to acromegaly?
Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Associations of Acromegaly with Various Medical Conditions
Acromegaly is a medical condition caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone. It is associated with various medical conditions, including insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus, which can lead to acromegaly. Left ventricular hypertrophy is also associated with acromegaly, which can cause right ventricular hypertrophy. Ulnar nerve entrapment is another association, along with carpal tunnel syndrome affecting the median nerve. Acanthosis nigricans involves hyperpigmentation of the skin, but there is no general pigmentation associated with acromegaly. Acromegaly is also associated with cardiovascular disease, which can increase the risk of atrial fibrillation, although it is not a direct cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An investigator intended to test the antiglycaemic action of a new drug, which acts by increasing the peripheral uptake of glucose and reduces postprandial glucose level. He noted that in the elderly control group, subjects receiving an oral glucose load have higher postprandial insulin concentrations and more rapid glucose clearance, compared to subjects receiving isoglycaemic intravenous glucose infusion.
Which of the following is the most likely mediator of this effect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
Explanation:Gastrointestinal Hormones and their Functions
The gastrointestinal tract secretes various hormones that play important roles in digestion and metabolism. One such hormone is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is an incretin hormone that enhances insulin secretion in response to oral glucose intake. On the other hand, cholecystokinin induces gallbladder contraction and bile release, while secretin increases pancreatic and biliary bicarbonate secretion and reduces gastric acid secretion. Gastrin, on the other hand, stimulates gastric acid secretion. Lastly, somatostatin inhibits the secretion of gastric acid and other gastrointestinal hormones. Understanding the functions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining a healthy digestive system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He reports one day of pain in his right loin spreading round into the groin. The pain comes in waves and he says it is the worst pain he has ever experienced. The ED doctor suspects a diagnosis of renal colic.
What investigation finding would be the most consistent with this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microscopic haematuria
Explanation:Interpreting Urine and Blood Tests for Renal Colic
Renal colic is a common condition that can cause severe pain in the back and abdomen. When evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, several tests may be ordered to help diagnose the condition and determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting urine and blood tests for renal colic:
– Microscopic haematuria with normal nitrites and leukocytes is a common finding in patients with renal colic and/or stones. This suggests that there is blood in the urine, but no signs of infection.
– Positive leukocytes or nitrites on a urine dipstick would be suggestive of a urinary tract infection and would not be consistent with a diagnosis of renal stones.
– A raised serum creatinine can occur with severe renal stones where there is urethral obstruction and subsequent hydronephrosis. This would be a urological emergency and the patient would likely require urgent stenting to allow passage of urine.
– A raised serum white cell count would be more consistent with an infection as the cause of the patient’s pain, making this a less appropriate answer.In summary, when evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, it is important to consider the results of urine and blood tests in conjunction with other clinical findings to make an accurate diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of demeclocycline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasopressin antagonism
Explanation:Treatment Options for SIADH
SIADH is a condition characterized by excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and hyponatremia. When fluid restriction alone fails to manage the condition, other treatment options are available. Demeclocycline induces free water excretion, which can help manage SIADH by causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Spironolactone is an aldosterone receptor antagonist, while mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. Amiloride acts via epithelial sodium channels, and thiazides act on the sodium chloride symporter, leading to sodium and water excretion. Among these options, demeclocycline is an important treatment option for patients with SIADH who do not respond to fluid restriction alone. It is essential to understand the mechanism of action of each treatment option to choose the most appropriate one for each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female (P0 G1) is 28 weeks pregnant and has just been informed that her baby is in the breech position. She is considering the external cephalic version (ECV) and wants to know when she can be offered this procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 36 weeks
Explanation:It is recommended to wait until the lady reaches 36 weeks of pregnancy to check if the baby has changed position, as she is currently only 30 weeks pregnant. For nulliparous women, such as the lady in this case, ECV should be provided at 36 weeks if the baby remains in the breech position. However, if the lady had previous pregnancies, ECV would be offered at 37 weeks.
Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which agent from the list does not lead to the development of osteoporosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oestrogen
Explanation:Factors Affecting Bone Mass
Long-term use of heparin has been found to decrease bone mass, but low molecular weight heparin may have less of an impact than unfractionated heparin. Methotrexate is not a common cause of osteoporosis, but it can worsen the effects of corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis. On the other hand, estrogen has a protective effect against osteoporosis. Steroids, however, have been shown to reduce osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity, decrease calcium absorption, and increase bone resorption, all of which contribute to the development of osteoporosis. It is important to consider these factors when evaluating the risk of osteoporosis in patients undergoing long-term treatment with these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She has a medical history of endometriosis and reports that her last period was one week ago. An ultrasound scan reveals the presence of free fluid in her pelvic region. What could be the underlying cause of her acute abdomen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ruptured endometrioma
Explanation:A rupture endometrioma can result in a sudden and severe pain, given the patient’s medical history of endometriosis, acute abdomen, and fluid accumulation in the pelvis. Diverticular disease is an improbable diagnosis in this age group and does not match the symptoms described. Additionally, the patient’s current menstrual cycle rules out endometriosis pain as a possible cause.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A patient is brought to see you by his daughter. She is very concerned about him, saying that over the last few weeks, he has been hiding himself in their bedroom, heard to be talking to himself and accusing her of stealing his secret work and selling it to the government.
You conduct a mental state examination and elicit the following symptoms.
Which of these symptoms is a negative symptom?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blunted affect
Explanation:Understanding Symptoms of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. It is characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive and negative symptoms. Positive symptoms are those that reflect an increase or excess of the sufferer’s normal function, while negative symptoms are those that reflect a decrease or loss of normal function.
Blunted affect, social withdrawal, apathy, and anhedonia are examples of negative symptoms. These symptoms can be very prominent and are often associated with a less favorable prognosis. On the other hand, auditory hallucinations, delusions of grandeur, and thought echo are examples of positive symptoms.
Delusions of passivity, which imply that a person feels their actions, feelings, or impulses are being controlled by an external force, are not negative symptoms. It is important to understand the different symptoms of schizophrenia to properly diagnose and treat the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with a past of alcohol addiction comes in with ataxia, confusion, and nystagmus. During the examination, a weakness in the sixth cranial nerve is observed.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wernicke encephalopathy
Explanation:Neurological Disorders Associated with Alcoholism
Wernicke encephalopathy is a neurological disorder that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B-1, which is essential for carbohydrate metabolism. Alcohol consumption interferes with the absorption of thiamine, leading to a deficiency. Chronic liver disease also reduces the activation of thiamine pyrophosphate and the liver’s capacity to store thiamine. The symptoms of Wernicke encephalopathy include ataxia, confusion, and ocular abnormalities.
de Clerambault’s syndrome is a delusional disorder where the sufferer believes that someone of higher social or professional standing is in love with them. Delirium tremens is a condition that occurs due to alcohol withdrawal and is characterized by confusion, hallucinations, and autonomic disturbance. The symptoms of delirium tremens usually peak 48-72 hours after stopping alcohol.
Korsakoff’s psychosis is a type of dementia that occurs as a result of untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The main symptom of Korsakoff’s psychosis is confabulation, where the sufferer creates false memories to fill gaps in their memory. These neurological disorders are commonly associated with alcoholism and can have severe consequences if left untreated.
Neurological Disorders Associated with Alcoholism
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with fever, rigors, breathlessness and a cough. He is producing a frothy pink/green sputum spotted with blood. On examination, you find that he is very confused, with a respiratory rate (RR) of 33 breaths per minute and blood pressure (BP) of 100/70 mmHg. Bloods reveal his urea is 3.2 mmol/l. On auscultation of the chest, you hear a pleural rub. Chest X-ray reveals multilobar consolidation.
Which one of the following statements regarding his management is most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He needs an ABC approach with fluid resuscitation
Explanation:Managing Severe Pneumonia: Key Considerations and Treatment Approaches
Severe pneumonia requires prompt and effective management to prevent complications and improve outcomes. The following points highlight important considerations and treatment approaches for managing patients with severe pneumonia:
– ABC approach with fluid resuscitation: The initial step in managing severe pneumonia involves assessing and addressing the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation. This may include providing oxygen therapy, administering fluids to correct hypovolemia or dehydration, and monitoring vital signs.
– CURB 65 score: This scoring system helps to assess the severity of pneumonia and guide treatment decisions. Patients with a score of 3 or higher may require ICU referral.
– Oxygen saturation: Low oxygen saturation levels (<95%) at presentation increase the risk of death and should be promptly addressed with oxygen therapy.
– Analgesia for pleuritic chest pain: While analgesia may be offered to manage pleuritic chest pain, it may not be effective in all cases. Paracetamol or NSAIDs are recommended as first-line options.
– Antibiotic therapy: Empirical antibiotics should be started promptly after appropriate resuscitation. Culture results should be obtained to confirm the causative organism and guide further treatment.In summary, managing severe pneumonia requires a comprehensive approach that addresses the patient’s clinical status, severity of illness, and potential complications. By following these key considerations and treatment approaches, healthcare providers can improve outcomes and reduce the risk of adverse events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of left flank pain. He has a history of smoking a pack of cigarettes a day for 25 years. On physical examination, there is tenderness in the left flank but no palpable mass. Urine dipstick testing reveals the presence of blood. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a complex cystic mass with solid and liquid components, arising from the parenchyma of the left kidney and with septations. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Clear cell carcinoma is the most frequent histological type of malignant renal cancer. The classic triad of renal cancer includes flank pain, mass, and haematuria, but it is unusual for all three symptoms to be present at the initial diagnosis. Clear cell carcinoma can be distinguished from a simple cyst by its variegated, septated interior. Transitional cell carcinomas are less common and typically originate from the ureter. Angiomyolipomas are also infrequent and are linked to tuberous sclerosis.
Understanding Renal Cell Cancer
Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.
The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is admitted with a 30-min history of severe central ‘crushing’ chest pain radiating down the left arm. He is profusely sweating and looks ‘grey’. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and 3-mm ST elevation in V3–V6.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give the patient aspirin, ticagrelor and low-molecular-weight heparin, followed by a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
Explanation:Treatment Options for ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)
When a patient presents with a ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial. The gold standard treatment for a STEMI is a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), which should be performed as soon as possible. In the absence of contraindications, all patients should receive aspirin, ticagrelor, and low-molecular-weight heparin before undergoing PCI.
Delaying PCI by treating the pain with sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), aspirin, and oxygen, and reviewing the patient in 15 minutes is not recommended. Similarly, giving the patient aspirin, ticagrelor, and low molecular weight heparin without performing PCI is incomplete management.
Thrombolysis therapy can be performed on patients without access to primary PCI. However, if primary PCI is available, it is the preferred treatment option.
It is important to note that waiting for cardiac enzymes is not recommended as it would only result in a delay in definitive management. Early and appropriate treatment is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with STEMI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with oral and genital ulcers and a red rash, parts of which have started to blister. On examination, he is noted to have red eyes. He had been treated with antibiotics ten days ago for a chest infection.
What is the most probable reason behind these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Stevens-Johnson Syndrome and Other Skin Conditions
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe medical condition that requires immediate recognition and treatment. It is characterized by blistering of the skin and mucosal surfaces, leading to the loss of the skin barrier. This condition is rare and is part of a spectrum of diseases that includes toxic epidermal necrolysis. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is the milder end of this spectrum.
The use of certain drugs can trigger the activation of cytotoxic CD8+ T-cells, which attack the skin’s keratinocytes, leading to blister formation and skin sloughing. It is important to note that mucosal involvement may precede cutaneous manifestations. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is associated with the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, allopurinol, antibiotics, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenytoin, and others.
Prompt treatment is essential, as the condition can progress to multi-organ failure and death if left untreated. Expert clinicians and nursing staff should manage the treatment to minimize skin shearing, fluid loss, and disease progression.
Other skin conditions that may present similarly to Stevens-Johnson syndrome include herpes simplex, bullous pemphigoid, pemphigus vulgaris, and graft-versus-host disease. Herpes simplex virus infection causes oral and genital ulceration but does not involve mucosal surfaces. Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune blistering condition that affects the skin but not the mucosa. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that affects both the skin and mucosal surfaces. Graft-versus-host disease is unlikely in the absence of a history of transplantation.
In conclusion, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe medical condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment. It is essential to differentiate it from other skin conditions that may present similarly to ensure appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old stockbroker has been experiencing difficulty swallowing solids for the past few months, while having no trouble swallowing liquids. He does not smoke and denies any alcohol consumption. His medical history is unremarkable except for the fact that he has been using antacids and H2-receptor blockers for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease for the past 5 years, with little relief from symptoms. Upon examination, there are no notable findings.
What is the probable reason for this man's dysphagia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benign oesophageal stricture
Explanation:Causes of dysphagia: differential diagnosis based on patient history
Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can have various causes, including structural abnormalities, functional disorders, and neoplastic conditions. Based on the patient’s history, several possibilities can be considered. For example, a benign oesophageal stricture may develop in patients with acid gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and can be treated with endoscopic dilation and reflux management. Diffuse oesophageal spasm, on the other hand, may cause dysphagia for both solids and liquids and be accompanied by chest pain. A lower oesophageal web can produce episodic dysphagia when food gets stuck in the distal oesophagus. Oesophageal squamous carcinoma is less likely in a young non-smoking patient, but should not be ruled out entirely. Scleroderma, a connective tissue disorder, may also cause dysphagia along with Raynaud’s phenomenon and skin changes. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to determine the underlying cause of dysphagia and guide the treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with an indwelling catheter due to urinary incontinence after a stroke is brought to the emergency department by his wife. He has been experiencing fevers, left loin and suprapubic pain for the past two nights, and his wife is worried that he may have a urinary tract infection. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 38.9°C, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, a pulse rate of 95 bpm, and regular rhythm. You confirm the tenderness in his left loin and suprapubic area. What is the most appropriate management for his suspected UTI?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You should change his indwelling catheter then begin antibiotic therapy
Explanation:Management of Suspected Bacterial Urinary Tract Infection in Patients with Long Term Catheters
Chronic colonisation of catheters can make it difficult to completely eliminate infections in patients with long term catheters. Therefore, it is recommended to change the catheter before starting antibiotic therapy. Dipstick testing and microscopy are not reliable in such cases, so the management of suspected bacterial urinary tract infection in adults should be based on symptoms of acute bacterial sepsis, according to SIGN guidelines. Local policies determine the choice of antibiotics, but co-amoxiclav is often the first line empirical option in this situation.
It is important to note that patients with long term catheters require special attention and care to prevent infections. The management of suspected bacterial urinary tract infection in such patients should be based on careful observation of symptoms and adherence to local policies for antibiotic therapy. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old with a long standing history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency department in status epilepticus. After receiving treatment, he informs the physician that he has been experiencing frequent seizures lately.
Which medication is the most probable cause of his seizures?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Seizures are more likely to occur with the use of clozapine due to its ability to lower the seizure threshold. This is a known side-effect of the atypical antipsychotic, which is commonly prescribed for treatment resistant schizophrenia.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to the Intensive Care Unit following a severe head injury. The medical team suspects that he has fulfilled all the requirements for brainstem death testing and wishes to verify this. What reflex is expected to persist even in the event of brainstem death?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal reflexes
Explanation:Assessing Brainstem Death: Reflex Tests
When determining brainstem death, several reflex tests are performed to confirm the absence of brainstem function. Spinal reflexes, such as limb movements, may still be present even after brainstem death, so they are not used as criteria. However, the absence of corneal reflexes (blinking in response to a cotton wisp), gag reflexes (response to a tongue depressor), and pain reflexes (response to pressure on the supraorbital ridges) are all part of the criteria used to confirm brainstem death. Pupillary reflexes (response to a pen torch) are also tested, but their absence alone is not enough to confirm brainstem death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits the Menopause Clinic with complaints of severe vasomotor symptoms such as hot flashes and night sweats. Despite experiencing light periods, she is worried about undergoing hormone replacement therapy (HRT) due to a past deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during pregnancy 18 years ago. Although she has not required any long-term treatment since then, she is anxious about the increased risk of clotting associated with HRT. without other risk factors, what is the most suitable form of HRT for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transdermal combined HRT patches
Explanation:Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) Options for Women with a History of DVT
Women with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) need to be cautious when considering Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) options. Here are some options:
1. Transdermal Combined HRT Patches: This option is the best as it bypasses the enterohepatic circulation, reducing the effect on the hepatic clotting system.
2. Oral Continuous Combined HRT: This option is only suitable for postmenopausal women who have not had a period for over a year.
3. Oral Sequential Combined HRT: This option is suitable for perimenopausal women who are still having periods. However, oral preparations increase the risk of clots, compared to transdermal preparations.
4. Raloxifene: This is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that reduces osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It has effects on lipids and bone but does not stimulate the endometrium or breast.
5. Tibolone: This synthetic steroid has oestrogenic, progestational, and androgenic properties. It is only suitable for postmenopausal women who had their last period more than a year ago.
In conclusion, women with a history of DVT should consult their healthcare provider before starting any HRT option. Transdermal combined HRT patches may be the safest option for these women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are a second-year medical student in the Ophthalmology clinic and have been asked to review a patient’s optic discs and retina. Which one of the following agents should be used to dilate the patient’s pupils?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tropicamide
Explanation:Ophthalmic Drugs: Uses and Functions
Tropicamide, a mydriatic, is commonly used to dilate pupils for examination by blocking muscarinic receptors on the iris sphincter. Cyclopentolate, another mydriatic, has a longer duration of action and may not be preferred for patients who will experience reduced vision for a longer period. Pilocarpine, a muscarinic receptor agonist, is a miotic that constricts the pupil and is used to treat glaucoma. Adrenaline eye drops are used to investigate Horner’s syndrome and have no dilating effect on normal eyes. Tetracaine, a local anesthetic, is used to numb the cornea for procedures such as foreign body removal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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