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  • Question 1 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother, reporting pain...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother, reporting pain in his left hip. The mother mentions that he had a recent bout of the flu. Upon examination, the boy appears alert with a heart rate of 80 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, temperature of 38.5ºC, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 98% on room air. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer for same-day assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child is experiencing hip pain or a limp and also has a fever, it is crucial to refer them for immediate assessment, even if the suspected diagnosis is transient synovitis.

      Transient synovitis is often the cause of hip pain in children following a previous illness, such as the flu. However, discharging the patient with oral antibiotics is not recommended as this condition is typically managed conservatively. Antibiotics may only be necessary if there are signs of a septic joint.

      Similarly, discharging the patient with pain relief alone is not appropriate. Although a septic joint is unlikely, it cannot be ruled out without a formal assessment by orthopaedics.

      Reassuring the patient and discharging them without assessment is also not an option. Given the child’s current fever and recent illness history, it is essential to conduct a thorough evaluation before considering discharge.

      It is critical to refer a child with hip pain and a fever for same-day assessment to rule out the possibility of a septic joint. However, routine referral to orthopaedics is not necessary as this may cause unnecessary delays in urgent assessment.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      29.1
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  • Question 2 - You are evaluating a 70-year-old man with a history of two previous TIAs...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 70-year-old man with a history of two previous TIAs and an inferior myocardial infarction. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 40 cigarettes per day. You suspect the presence of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and are curious about the typical characteristics of a large AAA that has not yet ruptured.

      Your Answer: Distal lower limb emboli and chronic ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a dilation or widening of the arterial wall, usually resulting from a weakness. Most AAAs are infrarenal and fusiform, with saccular aneurysms involving a localized out-pocketing. They are often asymptomatic but can cause severe pain and have a high mortality rate if ruptured. Ischemia-related erectile dysfunction is not typically associated with expanding AAA, and progressive renal failure is more likely due to renovascular disease or hypertensive nephropathy. Back pain and weight loss are not features of AAA, and a stable AAA should not cause mesenteric ischemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health check-up. She reports feeling well, having...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health check-up. She reports feeling well, having recently quit smoking, and having no complaints. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found. However, microscopic haematuria is detected in her urine, and the following results are obtained. The patient did not experience any pain, dysuria, or engage in physical activity before the sample collection.

      Hb 150 g/L
      Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Urgent (2-week) referral to a urologist

      Explanation:

      If a patient is over 60 years old and has unexplained non-visible haematuria along with dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, they should be referred to a urologist using the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out bladder cancer. It is important to exclude bladder cancer as a potential cause, especially if the patient has a history of smoking. The urologist may request investigations such as a urine red cell morphology, CT intravenous pyelogram, and urine cytology. However, a CT scan of the kidneys, ureter, and bladder is not appropriate at this stage as it is used to detect radio-opaque stones in the renal tract. If resources are limited, the GP should initiate relevant investigations for bladder cancer while waiting for the urology appointment. In lower risk cases, reassurance and re-checking in 2-6 weeks may be considered.

      Bladder cancer is the second most common urological cancer, with males aged between 50 and 80 years being the most commonly affected. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons such as 2-Naphthylamine increase the risk of the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, including inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are uncommon.

      Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma is the most common type of bladder malignancy, accounting for over 90% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are less common. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with up to 70% having a papillary growth pattern. Superficial tumors have a better prognosis, while solid growths are more prone to local invasion and may be of higher grade, resulting in a worse prognosis. TNM staging is used to determine the extent of the tumor and the presence of nodal or distant metastasis.

      Most patients with bladder cancer present with painless, macroscopic hematuria. Incidental microscopic hematuria may also indicate malignancy in up to 10% of females over 50 years old. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy and biopsies or transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), with pelvic MRI and CT scanning used to determine locoregional spread and distant disease. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, or radical radiotherapy, depending on the extent and grade of the tumor. Prognosis varies depending on the stage of the tumor, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T with N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      28.1
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  • Question 4 - A middle-aged woman has presented to her GP with bowel symptoms, specifically wind...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged woman has presented to her GP with bowel symptoms, specifically wind and bloating. After conducting several tests, the GP has diagnosed her with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
      What is an appropriate dietary recommendation to provide to this middle-aged woman?

      Your Answer: Restrict caffeinated and fizzy drinks

      Explanation:

      Managing IBS through dietary changes

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be managed through dietary changes. It is important to restrict caffeinated and fizzy drinks as they can aggravate IBS symptoms. Increasing bran intake should be avoided, while reducing oat intake can help alleviate symptoms. Fresh fruit intake should be limited to no more than three portions a day. Eating small, frequent meals and taking time over eating is recommended. It may also be helpful to increase sorbitol content, found in sugar-free drinks, but only if diarrhoea is not a symptom. By making these dietary changes, individuals with IBS can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      136.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A junior resident performing his first appendectomy was unable to locate the base...

    Correct

    • A junior resident performing his first appendectomy was unable to locate the base of the appendix due to extensive adhesions in the peritoneal cavity. The senior physician recommended identifying the caecum first and then locating the base of the appendix.
      What anatomical feature(s) on the caecum would have been utilized to locate the base of the appendix?

      Your Answer: Teniae coli

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Large Intestine: Differentiating Taeniae Coli, Ileal Orifice, Omental Appendages, Haustra Coli, and Semilunar Folds

      The large intestine is a vital part of the digestive system, responsible for absorbing water and electrolytes from undigested food. It is composed of several distinct structures, each with its own unique function. Here, we will differentiate five of these structures: taeniae coli, ileal orifice, omental appendages, haustra coli, and semilunar folds.

      Taeniae Coli
      The taeniae coli are three bands of longitudinal muscle on the surface of the large intestine. They are responsible for the characteristic haustral folds of the large intestine and meet at the appendix.

      Ileal Orifice
      The ileal orifice is the opening where the ileum connects to the caecum. It is surrounded by the ileocaecal valve and is not useful in locating the appendix.

      Omental Appendages
      The omental appendages, also known as appendices epiploicae, are fatty appendages unique to the large intestine. They are found all over the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.

      Haustra Coli
      The haustra are multiple pouches in the wall of the large intestine, formed where the longitudinal muscle layer of the wall is deficient. They are not useful in locating the appendix.

      Semilunar Folds
      The semilunar folds are the folds found along the lining of the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.

      Understanding the anatomy of the large intestine and its various structures is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By differentiating these structures, healthcare professionals can better identify and address issues related to the large intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      15.6
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man with a history of scoliosis, pectus excavatum, recurrent pneumothorax, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of scoliosis, pectus excavatum, recurrent pneumothorax, and mitral valve prolapse is contemplating starting a family. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: X-linked recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      18
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a 15-month history of dysphagia. She has had...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a 15-month history of dysphagia. She has had difficulty with both liquids and solids from the onset. She reports no weight loss and there no past medical history of note. Investigation with a barium swallow demonstrates a dilated oesophagus with a ‘bird’s beak’ tapering of the distal oesophagus.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Achalasia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Achalasia is a motility disorder that affects the lower esophageal sphincter, causing difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids. This condition is characterized by the failure of the sphincter to relax in response to peristalsis during swallowing, which can lead to chest pain after eating and regurgitation of food. The cause of achalasia is unknown, but it is thought to be due to degeneration of the myenteric plexus.

      To diagnose achalasia, a barium swallow may reveal a dilated esophagus with a bird’s beak tapering of the distal esophagus. Manometry can confirm the high-pressure, non-relaxing lower esophageal sphincter. Endoscopy should also be carried out to exclude malignancy.

      Differential diagnosis for achalasia includes oesophageal carcinoma, pharyngeal pouch, benign oesophageal stricture, and caustic stricture. Oesophageal carcinoma is less likely in a relatively young patient without history of weight loss, and the barium swallow findings are more suggestive of achalasia than malignancy. A pharyngeal pouch would be visualized on a barium swallow, while a benign oesophageal stricture is more common in older people with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Caustic stricture would also be visualized on a barium swallow, but there is no history of caustic damage in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the...

    Correct

    • Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the past 2 years without relief. Her symptoms occur when she laughs or coughs, but she has not had any episodes of nocturia. She has tried pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, but these have not improved her symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no signs of infection, and a pelvic examination does not reveal any uterine prolapse. Linda has declined surgical intervention. What is the next best course of action for managing her incontinence?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If pelvic floor muscle exercises and surgical intervention are not effective, duloxetine can be used to treat stress incontinence in patients. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes such as infection before starting treatment. Non-pharmacological management should be attempted first, including pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake. Duloxetine is a medication that works as a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor and may cause side effects such as nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. For urge incontinence, antimuscarinic agents like oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are typically used as first-line treatment. If these are not effective, a β3 agonist called mirabegron can be used as a second-line therapy.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A baby born to a 28-year-old woman has ambiguous genitalia on examination; the...

    Correct

    • A baby born to a 28-year-old woman has ambiguous genitalia on examination; the rest of the physical examination is normal. Genotype is determined to be XY. The testes are retained within the abdominal cavity, and the internal reproductive tracts exhibit the normal male phenotype.
      What could be the possible cause of this abnormal development?

      Your Answer: 5α-reductase deficiency

      Explanation:

      There are several conditions that can affect the development of male reproductive organs. 5α-reductase deficiency is a congenital absence of 5α-reductase, which is necessary for the production of dihydrotestosterone. Without dihydrotestosterone, the external genitalia may not develop properly, resulting in feminization. Testicular dysgenesis can also lead to poor development of the testes and decreased secretion of testosterone, which can cause feminization of the external genitalia and female-type internal tracts. 17α-hydroxylase deficiency prevents the synthesis of testosterone, leading to feminization of the external genitalia and degeneration of the Wolffian ducts. Complete androgen resistance results in feminization of the external genitalia, but neither male nor female internal tracts develop. Sertoli-only syndrome occurs when only Sertoli cells are present, leading to absent spermatogenesis and increased FSH levels. This can result in both male and female internal tracts due to the absence of the Müllerian regression factor, but normal testosterone secretion allows for the development of male-type external genitalia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      54.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also notes he has been bruising more easily of late. He is noted to be in sinus tachycardia but otherwise is haemodynamically stable. Examination reveals conjunctival pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. No definite lymphadenopathy is palpable. A full blood count is performed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 69 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 0.7 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets 14 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Blood film is reported as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped erythrocytes. A bone marrow aspirate is attempted, but this is unsuccessful.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myelofibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myelofibrosis: A Comparison with Other Bone Marrow Disorders

      Myelofibrosis is a rare disorder that primarily affects older patients. It is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can also be found in other diseases such as advanced prostate cancer, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, acute myelocytic leukemia, and chronic myeloid leukemia. However, myelofibrosis can be distinguished from these other disorders by specific diagnostic clues.

      One of the key diagnostic features of myelofibrosis is the presence of a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells, which is also seen in advanced prostate cancer. However, in myelofibrosis, a failed bone marrow aspirate, or dry tap, is frequent and a bone marrow trephine biopsy is needed for diagnosis. This is not the case in other bone marrow disorders.

      Myelofibrosis is caused by the proliferation of megakaryocytes, which leads to intense bone marrow fibrosis, marrow failure, and secondary hepatosplenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis. Patients may present with systemic upset, symptoms of marrow failure, or abdominal discomfort from hepatosplenomegaly. Treatment is supportive, with bone marrow transplant reserved for younger patients. The median survival is 4-5 years, and transformation to acute myeloid leukemia is relatively common.

      In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukemia is a disease of childhood that presents with elevated white cell count and blasts on peripheral blood film. Acute myelocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia both present with raised white cell counts and blasts on blood film, but are more common in younger patients. Advanced prostate cancer may cause bone marrow failure if there is replacement of enough bone marrow by metastases, but patients would also complain of bone pain.

      In summary, while bone marrow failure may be found in various diseases, specific diagnostic clues such as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells and a failed bone marrow aspirate can help distinguish myelofibrosis from other bone marrow disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      27.3
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old male presents to the acute medical unit with severe jaundice and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the acute medical unit with severe jaundice and gross ascites. He has a history of alcohol abuse and was diagnosed with liver cirrhosis two years ago. He has been admitted to the hospital multiple times due to confusion and altered consciousness caused by his cirrhosis. What medications should be evaluated for preventing the recurrence of the aforementioned complication?

      Your Answer: Lactulose and rifaximin

      Explanation:

      Lactulose and rifaximin are the recommended medications for secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy. This condition is characterized by confusion, altered consciousness, asterixis, and triphasic slow waves on EEG, and is caused by excess absorption of ammonia and glutamine from bacterial breakdown of proteins in the gut. Lactulose promotes the excretion of ammonia and increases its metabolism by gut bacteria, while rifaximin modulates the gut flora to decrease ammonia production. Spironolactone and furosemide are not used for hepatic encephalopathy, but rather for managing ascites and edema in patients with hypoalbuminemia due to cirrhosis. Propranolol is also not used for prophylaxis against hepatic encephalopathy, but rather to lower portal pressure and prevent variceal bleeding.

      Understanding Hepatic Encephalopathy

      Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition that can occur in individuals with liver disease, regardless of the cause. The exact cause of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the absorption of excess ammonia and glutamine from the breakdown of proteins by bacteria in the gut. While hepatic encephalopathy is commonly associated with acute liver failure, it can also be seen in chronic liver disease. In fact, many patients with liver cirrhosis may experience mild cognitive impairment before the more recognizable symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy appear. It is also worth noting that transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting (TIPSS) can trigger encephalopathy.

      The symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy can range from irritability and confusion to incoherence and coma. The condition can be graded based on the severity of the symptoms, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade IV being the most severe. There are several factors that can precipitate hepatic encephalopathy, including infection, gastrointestinal bleeding, constipation, and certain medications.

      The management of hepatic encephalopathy involves treating any underlying causes and using medications to alleviate symptoms. Lactulose is often the first-line treatment, as it promotes the excretion of ammonia and increases its metabolism by gut bacteria. Antibiotics such as rifaximin can also be used to modulate the gut flora and reduce ammonia production. In some cases, embolization of portosystemic shunts or liver transplantation may be necessary.

      Overall, hepatic encephalopathy is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options, healthcare providers can provide the best possible care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      53.7
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  • Question 12 - A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from a regeneration project working with a fishing community in South America. His main complaint is of an itchy, erythematosus rash predominantly affecting both feet. He has no past medical history of note. On examination he has erythematosus, edematous papules and vesicles affecting both feet. There are serpiginous erythematosus trails which track 2-3 cm from each lesion. Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 138 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l
      (slight peripheral blood eosinophilia) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 245 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 79 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray Normal lung fields
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Cutaneous larva migrans

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Larva Migrans and Other Skin Conditions: A Differential Diagnosis

      Cutaneous larva migrans is a common skin condition caused by the migration of nematode larvae through the skin. It is typically found in warm sandy soils and can be diagnosed based on the history and appearance of serpiginous lesions. Treatment involves the use of thiobendazole. Other skin conditions, such as impetigo, tinea pedis, and photoallergic dermatitis, have different causes and presentations and are less likely to be the correct diagnosis. Larva currens, caused by Strongyloides stercoralis, is another condition that can cause itching and skin eruptions, but it is typically associated with an intestinal infection and recurrent episodes. A differential diagnosis is important to ensure proper treatment and management of these skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.1
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  • Question 13 - A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with vague, crampy central abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with vague, crampy central abdominal ‘discomfort’ for the last three days. He was recently prescribed codeine phosphate for knee pain, which is secondary to osteoarthritis. He has never had this type of abdominal discomfort before. He last moved his bowels three days ago but denies nausea and vomiting. His past medical history is significant for hypertension. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history and denies any history of alcohol use. He has had no previous surgery.
      His physical examination is normal. His observations and blood test results are shown below.
      Temperature 36.3°C
      Blood pressure 145/88 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 15 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 99% (room air)
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 5.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 1.5 mg/dl 0–10 mg/l
      Total bilirubin 5.0 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      The Emergency doctor performs an abdominal ultrasound to examine for an abdominal aortic aneurysm. During this process, he also performs an ultrasound scan of the right upper quadrant, which shows several gallstones in a thin-walled gallbladder. The abdominal aorta is visualised and has a diameter of 2.3 cm. The patient’s abdominal pain is thought to be due to constipation.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s gallstones?

      Your Answer: No intervention required

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Management Options for Gallstone Disease

      Gallstone disease is a common condition that can present with a variety of symptoms. The management of this condition depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the severity of their disease. Here are some differentiating management options for gallstone disease:

      No Intervention Required:
      If a patient presents with vague abdominal pain after taking codeine phosphate, it is important to exclude the possibility of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. However, if the patient has asymptomatic gallstone disease, no intervention is required, and they can be managed expectantly.

      Elective Cholecystectomy:
      For patients with asymptomatic gallstone disease, prophylactic cholecystectomy is not indicated unless there is a high risk of life-threatening complications. However, if the patient has symptomatic gallstone disease, such as colicky right upper quadrant pain, elective cholecystectomy may be necessary.

      Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP):
      ERCP is indicated for patients with common duct bile stones or if stenting of benign or malignant strictures is required. However, if the patient has asymptomatic gallstone disease, ERCP is not necessary.

      Immediate Cholecystectomy:
      If a patient has acute cholecystitis (AC), immediate cholecystectomy is indicated. AC typically presents with right upper quadrant pain and elevated inflammatory markers.

      Percutaneous Cholecystectomy:
      For critically unwell patients who are poor surgical candidates, percutaneous cholecystectomy may be necessary. This procedure involves the image-guided placement of a drainage catheter into the gallbladder lumen to stabilize the patient before a more controlled surgical approach can be taken in the future.

      In summary, the management of gallstone disease depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the severity of their disease. It is important to differentiate between the different management options to provide the best possible care for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      57.9
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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old Caucasian man presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, fatigue, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old Caucasian man presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, fatigue, and weight loss. He denies any history of alcohol or drug abuse. He frequently travels to southern India for work. Laboratory tests show mixed macrocytic anaemia with low levels of serum folate and vitamin B12. Stool examination is negative for ova and parasites. A small bowel biopsy reveals predominant mononuclear infiltration and villous destruction throughout the small intestine. What intervention is most likely to improve his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Gluten-free diet

      Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics like tetracycline and folate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tropical Sprue: Broad Spectrum Antibiotics and Folate Supplementation

      Tropical sprue is a condition commonly seen in individuals visiting or residing in tropical countries, particularly in southern India. It is characterized by chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folate. Stool examination typically shows no evidence of ova and parasites, while small intestinal biopsy reveals mononuclear cell infiltration and less villous atrophy throughout the intestine.

      The recommended treatment for tropical sprue involves the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tetracyclines, along with folate supplementation. This approach has been shown to effectively reverse the changes in the small intestine associated with the condition.

      Other treatment options, such as antihelminthic drugs, are not effective in treating tropical sprue. Similarly, pancreatic enzyme replacement is not indicated in this condition.

      It is important to note that tropical sprue should not be confused with coeliac disease, which is treated with a gluten-free diet. In coeliac disease, small intestinal biopsy typically shows severe villous atrophy and mononuclear cell infiltration in the proximal portion of the small bowel.

      Finally, double-strength trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is used in the treatment of Whipple’s disease, which is characterized by PAS-positive macrophages in the lamina propria of the small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      16.7
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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall of the sinus has impacted all nerves passing through it.
      What is the most prominent clinical indication of cranial nerve impairment caused by this pathological condition?

      Your Answer: Ipsilateral corneal reflex absent

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal Nerve Dysfunction and its Effects on Facial and Oral Function

      The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying sensory and motor information from the face and oral cavity to the brain. Dysfunction of this nerve can lead to various symptoms affecting facial and oral function.

      One common symptom is the absence of the ipsilateral corneal reflex, which is carried by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. Damage to this nerve interrupts the reflex arc of the corneal reflex.

      Another symptom is the inability to resist forced lateral mandibular excursion with the mouth partially open. This is due to damage to the pterygoid muscles, which are innervated by the motor fibers in the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

      Loss of sensation over the lower lip is also a result of trigeminal nerve dysfunction. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve carries general somatic afferent nerves from the lower lip.

      Similarly, loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is also carried by the trigeminal nerve.

      Lastly, the facial nerve innervates the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for the ability to blow out the cheeks. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to perform this action.

      Overall, dysfunction of the trigeminal nerve can have significant effects on facial and oral function, highlighting the importance of this nerve in everyday activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 29-year-old woman in her first pregnancy presents at 30 weeks’ gestation with...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman in her first pregnancy presents at 30 weeks’ gestation with an episode of antepartum haemorrhage. She noticed fresh red blood on wiping this morning and followed by spotting since. She denies any pain, and the abdomen is soft and non-tender on examination. The baby is moving well. This is the first episode of bleeding in this pregnancy. She is under midwifery-led care but tells you she has a scan booked for 32 weeks. Urinalysis is unremarkable, and her observations are stable.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s antepartum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Placenta praevia

      Explanation:

      Antepartum Haemorrhage: Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Antepartum haemorrhage can be caused by various conditions, including placenta praevia, placental abruption, genitourinary infection, and premature labour. Placenta praevia occurs when the placenta covers the internal cervical os, leading to painless vaginal bleeding. Risk factors include maternal age, multiparity, and smoking. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound scanning, and close monitoring is necessary to prevent rebleeding. Placental abruption can be revealed or concealed, with the former causing significant abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, while the latter is confined within the uterus. Genitourinary infection should also be considered, although this patient’s urinalysis is unremarkable. Premature labour, which is associated with cyclical abdominal pain, is another possible cause of antepartum bleeding. However, this patient presents without pain. A thorough differential diagnosis is crucial in managing antepartum haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      106.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l and a white cell count of 23 × 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Understanding CLL and Other Types

      Leukaemia and lymphoma are two types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms. However, each type has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them. Among the different types of leukaemia and lymphoma, B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (B-CLL) is the most common leukaemia in adults. It is characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients with CLL are often asymptomatic, and the condition is often picked up incidentally.

      In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults. Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and presents with bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia. Chronic myeloid leukaemia tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group, and a classic symptom is massive hepatosplenomegaly.

      While lymphoma is a possibility in this age group, CLL is the most likely diagnosis as it is more common in this age group and in the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the characteristics of each type of leukaemia and lymphoma can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient...

    Correct

    • An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient who is likely to be experiencing what condition?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Electrocardiogram Changes and Symptoms Associated with Electrolyte Imbalances

      Electrolyte imbalances can cause various changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) and present with specific symptoms. Here are some of the common electrolyte imbalances and their associated ECG changes and symptoms:

      Hypokalaemia:
      – ECG changes: small T-waves, ST depression, prolonged QT interval, prominent U-waves
      – Symptoms: generalised weakness, lack of energy, muscle pain, constipation
      – Treatment: potassium replacement with iv infusion of potassium chloride (rate of infusion should not exceed 10 mmol of potassium an hour)

      Hyponatraemia:
      – ECG changes: ST elevation
      – Symptoms: headaches, nausea, vomiting, lethargy
      – Treatment: depends on the underlying cause

      Hypocalcaemia:
      – ECG changes: prolongation of the QT interval
      – Symptoms: paraesthesia, muscle cramps, tetany
      – Treatment: calcium replacement

      Hyperkalaemia:
      – ECG changes: tall tented T-waves, widened QRS, absent P-waves, sine wave appearance
      – Symptoms: weakness, fatigue
      – Treatment: depends on the severity of hyperkalaemia

      Hypercalcaemia:
      – ECG changes: shortening of the QT interval
      – Symptoms: moans (nausea, constipation), stones (kidney stones, flank pain), groans (confusion, depression), bones (bone pain)
      – Treatment: depends on the underlying cause

      It is important to recognise and treat electrolyte imbalances promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      177.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 85-year-old man has been admitted to the Elderly Care Ward following a...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man has been admitted to the Elderly Care Ward following a fall. He is clinically euvolaemic and does not take diuretics. He is hyponatraemic with the following paired investigation results:
      Serum Electrolytes
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Creatinine 97 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Sodium 124 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Osmolality 200 mmol/l 275-295 mmol/l
      Urine Biochemistry
      Sodium 32 mmol/l < 20 mmol/l
      Osmolality 420 mOsm/l < 100 mOsm/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this 85-year-old man?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic secretion (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Hyponatraemia: Understanding SIADH, Addison’s Disease, Viral Gastroenteritis, Psychogenic Polydipsia, and Diabetes Insipidus

      Hyponatraemia can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. One of the conditions that can cause hyponatraemia is the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic secretion (SIADH). However, the diagnostic criteria for SIADH can vary, and it is a diagnosis of exclusion. Other causes of hyponatraemia, such as diuretic therapy, adrenal failure, and hypothyroidism, should be ruled out before considering SIADH. In a patient with SIADH, euvolaemia with hyponatraemia and low serum osmolality, combined with an inappropriately concentrated urine (high urinary sodium and urine osmolality >100 mOsm/l), suggest the condition.

      Another condition that can cause hyponatraemia is Addison’s disease. However, in this case, the patient would usually be dehydrated with a high serum osmolality and possibly a raised potassium.

      Viral gastroenteritis can also cause hyponatraemia, but the patient would likely have presented with nausea, vomiting, or diarrhoea, and they would likely be hypovolaemic as a result.

      Psychogenic polydipsia is another condition that can cause hyponatraemia. However, in this case, the urine would be appropriately dilute (low urinary sodium and urine osmolality <100 mOsm/l), and the patient might be hypervolaemic. In contrast, in viral gastroenteritis, the patient would be hypovolaemic. Finally, diabetes insipidus can cause hypernatraemia due to excess loss of water resulting from a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone or renal insensitivity to this hormone. It is important to differentiate between these conditions to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications. In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis for hyponatraemia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption. His serum amylase level is 1020 u/l, and acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. Which of the following factors is NOT included in the modified Glasgow severity scoring?

      Your Answer: Serum albumin

      Correct Answer: Serum amylase

      Explanation:

      Markers for Severity and Mortality in Pancreatitis

      Pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Several markers can help assess the severity of the disease and predict mortality. The modified Glasgow severity score is a useful tool for stratifying patients based on their clinical presentation. A score of 3 or above indicates severe pancreatitis and the need for transfer to the Intensive Therapy Unit.

      Serum amylase is a diagnostic marker for pancreatitis, but its levels may be normal even in severe cases. Elevated amylase levels can also occur in other acute conditions, such as acute cholecystitis or intestinal obstruction. Therefore, it should not be used as a serial marker for assessing disease progression. Instead, serial C-reactive protein levels are more useful for this purpose.

      Serum albumin is an important marker of mortality in pancreatitis. A fall in albumin level can contribute to peripheral edema and difficulty in maintaining blood pressure. Age is another predictor of mortality, as it is associated with co-morbidities. Corrected calcium is a useful marker for severe pancreatitis, as it indicates the precipitation of calcium in the abdomen, causing hypocalcemia. Finally, white cell count is a marker of inflammation and can indicate the spread of the disease.

      In conclusion, a combination of these markers can help clinicians assess the severity of pancreatitis and predict mortality. Early recognition and management of severe cases can improve outcomes and reduce morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      22
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (3/5) 60%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
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