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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman complains of discharging itchy eyes.
    Select from the list the single...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman complains of discharging itchy eyes.
      Select from the list the single feature that would most suggest a bacterial cause.

      Your Answer: A follicular reaction on the palpebral conjunctiva

      Correct Answer: Eyes glued together in the morning by discharge

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conjunctivitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin layer that covers the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. While viral conjunctivitis is more common in children, bacterial conjunctivitis is less common but more prevalent in adults. The most common causes of bacterial conjunctivitis are Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and Moraxella catarrhalis, while adenovirus is the most common cause of viral conjunctivitis.

      Symptoms of bacterial conjunctivitis include itchy eyes, mucopurulent discharge, and a positive history of infectious conjunctivitis. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a watery discharge and the presence of follicles. Bacterial conjunctivitis is usually bilateral, but if symptoms persist on one side, a review of the diagnosis is necessary.

      There is an ongoing debate about the use of antibiotics in treating bacterial conjunctivitis, as the condition is self-limiting, and the benefits of antibiotics are marginal. Current guidelines do not recommend staying away from school or work.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for conjunctivitis is crucial in managing the condition effectively. If you experience any of the symptoms mentioned above, seek medical attention promptly to receive the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A father brings his 4-year-old son to see you in the surgery. He...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old son to see you in the surgery. He has had a fever for 24 hours, vomited once and complains of abdominal discomfort and pain when passing urine. He is drinking plenty of fluids. He has been potty trained for one year, but had several urinary accidents in the past couple of days. There is nothing of note in his past medical history.

      On examination there are no recessions, his chest is clear, abdomen is soft with mild lower abdominal tenderness and no loin tenderness. He has a normal ENT examination. He is well hydrated and has no rash. His urine dipstick is positive for leukocytes and protein, but negative for nitrate and blood. His temperature is 38°C, HR 120, RR 28, and CR <2 sec.

      According to the NICE 'traffic light' system what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Give amoxicillin and send home with worsening advice

      Correct Answer: Admit to paediatrics as child is at high risk of serious illness

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of UTIs in Children

      This child doesn’t exhibit any immediately life-threatening symptoms, but a UTI is the most likely diagnosis based on their clinical history. Early detection and treatment of UTIs can prevent the development of renal scarring and end-stage renal failure. Dipstick tests for leukocyte esterase and nitrite can be used to diagnose UTIs in children aged 2 years and older. However, a urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture to confirm the diagnosis.

      The following table outlines urine-testing strategies for children aged 3 years and older:

      Leukocyte+ Nitrite+ – Antibiotic treatment should be started, and a urine sample should be sent for culture if the child has a high or intermediate risk of serious illness or a history of previous UTIs.

      Leukocyte- Nitrite+ – Antibiotic treatment should be started if the urine test was carried out on a fresh sample of urine. A urine sample should be sent for culture, and management will depend on the results.

      Leukocyte+ Nitrite- – A urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture. Antibiotic treatment should not be started unless there is clear clinical evidence of a UTI.

      Leukocyte- Nitrite- – Antibiotics should not be started, and a urine sample should not be sent for culture. Other potential causes of illness should be explored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      11.5
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  • Question 3 - While working at an urgent care centre, a 3-year-old girl comes in with...

    Correct

    • While working at an urgent care centre, a 3-year-old girl comes in with a typical barking cough of croup. As per the Wesley Croup Score, she has mild croup. After administering a dose of dexamethasone and observing her for a while, you discharge her. Her parents inquire if there are any remedies they can use at home to alleviate her symptoms. What suggestions should you offer to the parents?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol or ibuprofen to control fever and pain

      Explanation:

      When dealing with a child suffering from mild, moderate, or severe croup, it is recommended to administer a one-off dose of 0.15mg/kg of dexamethasone or 1-2 mg/kg of prednisolone as an alternative. It is important to note that steam inhalation and decongestants should not be recommended, as they are not effective in treating the barking cough associated with croup. Antibiotics are also not necessary, as croup is caused by a virus, typically parainfluenza. Inhaled salbutamol is not mentioned in the guidance.

      Parents should be informed that croup is self-limiting and symptoms usually resolve within 48 hours, although they may last up to a week. Paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used to control fever and pain, but over- or under-dressing a child with a fever should be avoided. Tepid sponging is not recommended, and antipyretic drugs should not be given solely to reduce body temperature. Adequate fluid intake should be ensured.

      It is important to arrange a follow-up consultation within a few hours, either face-to-face or by telephone. Urgent medical advice should be sought if there is a progression from mild to moderate airways obstruction, if the child becomes toxic, or if the child becomes cyanosed, unusually sleepy, or struggles to breathe.

      Parents should be informed that cough medicines, decongestants, and short-acting beta-agonists are not effective in treating croup, as it is usually caused by a viral illness and antibiotics are not necessary.

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of headaches. These are...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of headaches. These are worse in the morning and have been associated with some nausea. Until recently, this was her only problem; however, now she has had episodes of transient blurred vision, particularly on stooping. Her body mass index (BMI) is 32.5 kg/m2. Examination of her fundi reveals papilloedema.
      What is the most appropriate management in this situation?

      Your Answer: Routine neurology referral

      Correct Answer: Urgent medical admission

      Explanation:

      Urgent Management of Papilloedema: Importance of Diagnosis and Treatment

      Papilloedema, characterized by raised swollen optic discs, is often associated with raised intracranial pressure and can have multiple causes, including space-occupying lesions, meningitis, intracerebral haemorrhage, venous sinus thrombosis, and benign intracranial hypertension. While a young and obese patient may present with typical symptoms of benign intracranial hypertension, it is crucial to rule out other potential causes through immediate imaging.

      Weight management may be a part of the treatment plan for benign intracranial hypertension, but it is essential to confirm the diagnosis and exclude life-threatening conditions before initiating treatment. Steroids like prednisolone may be used to treat benign intracranial pressure or cerebral oedema associated with a space-occupying lesion, but the cause of raised intracranial pressure must be identified before starting treatment.

      While a neurologist may be appropriate to manage the condition once imaging has been performed and the cause of raised intracranial pressure is known, routine referral to neurology or ophthalmology is not recommended as it may delay diagnosis and treatment, potentially impacting the patient’s prognosis. Urgent management and diagnosis are crucial in cases of papilloedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman has type II diabetes. Her HbA1c is 69 mmol/mol. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has type II diabetes. Her HbA1c is 69 mmol/mol. Her body mass index is 25 kg/m². You want to start treatment with a sulfonylurea drug but the patient is hesitant because she has heard about the risk of hypoglycaemia.
      Which of the following statements regarding hypoglycaemia and sulfonylureas is accurate? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Short-acting sulfonylureas carry the greatest risk

      Correct Answer: The risk is greatest if there is co-existing hepatic impairment

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk of Hypoglycaemia with Sulfonylureas

      Sulfonylureas are commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, but they come with a risk of hypoglycaemia, which can be dangerous. This risk is greatest in patients with co-existing hepatic impairment, as the drugs are metabolised in the liver and excreted in urine or faeces. Short-acting sulfonylureas are not necessarily riskier than longer-acting ones, but they should be used with caution in patients with renal disease. Hypoglycaemia may persist for many hours and should be treated in the hospital. Excessive dosage is a common cause of hypoglycaemia, so careful monitoring is essential. Combining sulfonylureas with bedtime isophane insulin may be an option when other treatments fail, but it doesn’t reduce the risk of hypoglycaemia. Patients and healthcare providers should be aware of the risks associated with sulfonylureas and take steps to minimise them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      49.7
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman is breastfeeding her 3-month-old baby and has developed a fever...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is breastfeeding her 3-month-old baby and has developed a fever with a red, tender area near her right nipple.
      Select the single correct statement.

      Your Answer: An abscess may develop and would need draining

      Explanation:

      Managing Mastitis: Tips for Breastfeeding Mothers

      Mastitis is a common condition among breastfeeding mothers, which can lead to an abscess if left untreated. To prevent this complication, it is important to continue feeding from the affected breast to avoid engorgement. Contrary to popular belief, feeding from an infected breast doesn’t cause infection in the baby. However, the milk may taste slightly different, and the baby may refuse to feed. In such cases, expressing milk from the infected side is recommended. White patches inside a baby’s mouth are a sign of thrush and are not caused by mastitis. To manage the pain and discomfort associated with mastitis, a breastfeeding mother can take both paracetamol and ibuprofen. By following these tips, mothers can effectively manage mastitis and continue to breastfeed their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      1595.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old boy is brought in by his parents. He has had 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought in by his parents. He has had 3 episodes of acute otitis media in the past year and his teachers have noticed that he seems to be having difficulty hearing. His medical history includes a diagnosis of ADHD. During the examination, you observe a dull left-sided tympanic membrane and diagnose otitis media with effusion. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Active observation for 6-12 weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently for specialist ear, nose and throat assessment

      Explanation:

      The patient’s Down’s syndrome is the key factor in determining the answer to this question. According to the NICE guidelines on otitis media, most children can be actively observed for 6-12 weeks as the condition often resolves on its own. However, if the patient has a history of cleft palate or Trisomy 21, urgent specialist assessment is recommended. Antibiotics and decongestants are not necessary in this case. Referral for audiology may also cause a delay in treatment.

      Vision and Hearing Issues in Down’s Syndrome

      Individuals with Down’s syndrome are at a higher risk of experiencing vision and hearing problems. When it comes to vision, they are more likely to have refractive errors, which can cause blurred vision. Strabismus, a condition where the eyes do not align properly, is also common in 20-40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Cataracts, which can cause cloudiness in the eye lens, are more prevalent in those with Down’s syndrome, both congenital and acquired. Recurrent blepharitis, an inflammation of the eyelids, and glaucoma, a condition that damages the optic nerve, are also potential issues.

      In terms of hearing, otitis media and glue ear are very common in individuals with Down’s syndrome. These conditions can lead to hearing problems, which can affect speech and language development. It is important for individuals with Down’s syndrome to receive regular vision and hearing screenings to detect and address any issues early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is not a recognized approach used in qualitative research?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognized approach used in qualitative research?

      Your Answer: Phenomenology

      Correct Answer: Census survey

      Explanation:

      Quantitative research involves the use of surveys as a method.

      Analytical Approaches in Qualitative Research

      Analytical approaches are an essential part of qualitative research, which aims to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. Content analysis is a common method used in healthcare research, where interviews are transcribed to produce texts that can be used to generate coding categories and test theories. This involves counting word frequencies, sometimes aided by computer software. Another approach is constant comparison, which is based on grounded theory. It allows researchers to identify important themes in a systematic way, providing an audit trail as they proceed. The method involves developing concepts from the data by coding and analyzing at the same time.

      Assessing validity is also crucial in qualitative research. Triangulation compares the results from different methods of data collection or data sources. Respondent validation, or member checking, involves comparing the investigator’s account with those of the research subjects to establish the level of correspondence between the two sets. Bracketing is a methodological device of phenomenological inquiry that requires putting aside one’s own beliefs about the phenomenon under investigation or what one already knows about the subject prior to and throughout the phenomenological investigation. Reflexivity means sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence even the most avowedly inductive inquiries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of small...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of small cell lung cancer and ischemic heart disease. His cancer was detected five months ago and he recently finished a round of chemotherapy. In terms of his heart health, he experienced a heart attack two years ago and underwent primary angioplasty with stent placement. He has not had any angina since then.

      Over the past week, he has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, particularly at night, and has an occasional non-productive cough. He has also noticed that his wedding ring feels tight. Upon examination, his chest appears normal, but he does have distended neck veins and periorbital edema. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Superior Vena Cava Obstruction

      Superior vena cava obstruction is a medical emergency that occurs when the superior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, is compressed. This condition is commonly associated with lung cancer, but it can also be caused by other malignancies, aortic aneurysm, mediastinal fibrosis, goitre, and SVC thrombosis. The most common symptom of SVC obstruction is dyspnoea, but patients may also experience swelling of the face, neck, and arms, headache, visual disturbance, and pulseless jugular venous distension.

      The management of SVC obstruction depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s individual circumstances. Endovascular stenting is often the preferred treatment to relieve symptoms, but certain malignancies may require radical chemotherapy or chemo-radiotherapy instead. Glucocorticoids may also be given, although the evidence supporting their use is weak. It is important to seek advice from an oncology team to determine the best course of action for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old man had cataract surgery seven months ago. Initially, this seemed very...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man had cataract surgery seven months ago. Initially, this seemed very successful but he has recently become aware of blurring of his vision and glare when driving at night. He wonders if his cataracts have grown back. Examination of his eye reveals no abnormality of the pupils or fundus.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior capsular opacification

      Explanation:

      Visual Disturbances: Possible Causes and Treatments

      Visual disturbances can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment. One possible cause is posterior capsular opacification, which can occur after cataract surgery. This condition is characterized by visual disturbance and is caused by the thickening of the lens capsule where the artificial lens is placed. It can be treated with outpatient laser treatment using a YAG laser to create a clear area for light to enter the eye.

      Migraine can also cause visual disturbances, which are characterized by an area that is not well seen, surrounded by shimmering zig-zag lines that gradually enlarge and then break up over a period of 15-30 minutes.

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma causes rapid onset loss of vision and eye pain, which is not present in this patient. Chronic glaucoma, on the other hand, causes gradual loss of vision usually spreading from the periphery, which is also unlikely in this patient.

      Lastly, recurrence of cataract is not possible after cataract surgery since the natural lens, which causes the opacification, is removed and replaced with an artificial lens that doesn’t form cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are asked to evaluate a 20-year-old man who has been experiencing recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to evaluate a 20-year-old man who has been experiencing recurrent pneumothoraces. He is tall, has pes planus, and exhibits increased arm-span-to-height and upper-to-lower-segment body ratios. What additional feature would be most useful in diagnosing Marfan syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      Clinical Features of Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the body’s connective tissue. There are two major diagnostic criteria for Marfan syndrome: aortic-root dilatation and ectopia lentis. However, there are also several clinical features that may indicate the presence of the syndrome.

      One such feature is an early diastolic murmur, which can be caused by aortic-valve incompetence and may indicate aortic-root dilatation. Another feature is a mid-systolic click, which is most likely the result of a mitral valve prolapse. Arachnodactyly and joint hypermobility are also features of Marfan syndrome, but they are considered minor criteria. A high-arched palate is another clinical feature of the syndrome.

      It is important to note that while these features may suggest the presence of Marfan syndrome, a proper diagnosis can only be made through genetic testing and evaluation by a medical professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 12 - You visit a 28-year-old lady at home following the delivery of a healthy...

    Incorrect

    • You visit a 28-year-old lady at home following the delivery of a healthy baby a few days earlier. At the end of the consultation, she asks you about immunisations.
      At what age would her child receive an orally administered vaccine as part of the UK immunisation schedule if they were 6 months old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 weeks and 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Route and Timing of Immunisations in the UK

      The UK routine immunisation schedule includes various vaccines that are administered through different routes. One of these is the rotavirus vaccine, which is the only vaccine given orally. It is given to infants at 8 and 12 weeks of age. On the other hand, the polio vaccine used to be administered orally in the past, but it is no longer part of the routine UK immunisation schedule. It is important to follow the recommended route and timing of immunisations to ensure their effectiveness in protecting against diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
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  • Question 13 - Which statement is indicative of depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is indicative of depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Symptoms present five days of each week

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Depression: ICD-10 and DSM-IV Classifications

      In diagnosing depression, both ICD-10 and DSM-IV classifications can be used alongside questionnaires. The ICD-10 classification requires four out of 10 depressive symptoms for a diagnosis, while the DSM-IV classification requires five out of nine symptoms. Common symptoms include loss of interest and pleasure, loss of energy, and low mood, which must be present most of every day to be counted.

      However, the NICE guidelines on depression acknowledge that many people may fall just below these criteria. This is known as sub-threshold depressive symptoms, which allows for only one of the key features to be present for less time than is necessary for the major depressive classification.

      It is important to note that once depression is diagnosed or suspected, patients should be offered help and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling tired and fatigued for...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling tired and fatigued for the past 2 weeks. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, epilepsy, and polycystic kidney disease. The results of his blood test reveal an abnormality in his electrolyte levels:

      - Na+ 129 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - K+ 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)

      Which medication among his prescriptions is the most likely culprit for this abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors have been linked to the development of hyponatraemia, a significant electrolyte imbalance. The exact cause of this association is not fully understood, but it may be related to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Conversely, tolvaptan is a medication utilized to manage hypernatraemia in individuals with polycystic kidney disease.

      Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that work by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach’s parietal cells. This action is irreversible and helps to reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole.

      Despite their effectiveness in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, PPIs can have adverse effects. These include hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia, which are low levels of sodium and magnesium in the blood, respectively. Prolonged use of PPIs can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Additionally, there is a potential for microscopic colitis and an increased risk of C. difficile infections.

      It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of PPIs with your healthcare provider and to use them only as directed. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels and bone density may also be necessary for those on long-term PPI therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old woman with squamous cell lung cancer presents with confusion.

    Her family...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with squamous cell lung cancer presents with confusion.

      Her family reports that she has become slowly more confused over the last two weeks. She is also complaining of generalised aches and pains, lethargy and thirst. Further enquiry reveals that she has been having increasing problems with constipation.

      What is the underlying cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ectopic parathyroid hormone production

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic Syndromes Associated with Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer can be associated with various paraneoplastic syndromes, which are caused by substances produced by the tumor that affect other parts of the body. One such syndrome is hypercalcemia, which can cause confusion, lethargy, aches and pains, thirst, and constipation. Squamous cell lung carcinoma is particularly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone production, leading to increased calcium levels.

      Other paraneoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer include Cushing’s syndrome, which can occur with small cell lung cancer due to ectopic ACTH production; Horner’s syndrome, which can occur with apical lung tumors that invade sympathetic nerve fibers, causing ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis; and Lambert-Eaton syndrome, an autoimmune process associated with small cell lung cancer that causes muscle weakness and hyporeflexia.

      Another condition associated with lung cancer is SIADH, which causes hyponatremia and can lead to confusion, seizures, cardiac failure, edema, and muscle weakness. Causes of SIADH include small cell lung cancer, as well as other malignancies, stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, vasculitis, TB, and certain drugs like opiates. Understanding these paraneoplastic syndromes can help clinicians identify and manage symptoms in patients with lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 9-year-old girl comes to your urgent clinic after being hit in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl comes to your urgent clinic after being hit in the left eye with a baseball. She reports pain and blurry vision in the affected eye. Upon examination, you observe some blood in a crescent shape along the inferior part of her cornea. The sclera appears white and the pupil reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent (same-day) referral to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      Ocular Trauma and Hyphema Management

      Ocular trauma can lead to serious eye injuries, including hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. It is crucial to seek urgent referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management in such cases. The primary risk to vision arises from increased intraocular pressure, which can occur due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with hyphema require strict bed rest to prevent the disbursement of blood that had previously settled. High-risk cases may require admission to the hospital. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.

      In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can result from retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency that requires immediate attention. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, rock hard eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect. Urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit, and it should be performed before diagnostic imaging.

      Overall, prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist and appropriate management are essential in cases of ocular trauma and hyphema to prevent vision loss and other complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 17 - In a study of 26,000 males, 1,500 subjects were found to have either...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of 26,000 males, 1,500 subjects were found to have either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism.

      The risk of demonstrating either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism was therefore 5.77%.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the 1,500 cases of hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prevalence and Incidence

      Prevalence and incidence are two important concepts in epidemiology that help us understand the occurrence of a disorder in a population. Prevalence refers to the rate of a disorder in a specified population at a specified time. This means that it tells us how many people in a population have the disorder at a given point in time. On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disorder developing over a specific time. This means that it tells us how many new cases of the disorder have developed in a population over a certain period of time. Understanding these two concepts is crucial for healthcare professionals and researchers to identify the burden of a disorder in a population and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 18 - You are conducting a contraceptive evaluation on a 27-year-old female who is presently...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a contraceptive evaluation on a 27-year-old female who is presently using Dianette (co-cyprindiol). During the discussion, you mention the higher risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) associated with Dianette compared to standard combined oral contraceptive pills (COCP) that contain levonorgestrel. However, the patient is hesitant to switch as her acne has significantly improved since starting Dianette. Can you provide information on the exact increased risk of VTE in comparison to patients taking COCPs containing levonorgestrel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Around twice the risk

      Explanation:

      Dianette has a VTE risk that is approximately 1.5-2.0 times higher than that of typical COCPs.

      Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) – Updated Guidance

      Co-cyprindiol, also known as Dianette, is a medication licensed for the treatment of severe acne in women who are unresponsive to prolonged oral antibacterial therapy and moderately severe hirsutism. It is also an effective contraceptive, which has contributed to its popularity. However, some post-marketing studies have shown that some women were being prescribed additional hormonal contraception alongside co-cyprindiol, which is unnecessary and increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE).

      The duration of co-cyprindiol treatment is limited due to concerns about VTE. Interestingly, the increased risk of VTE associated with co-cyprindiol is similar to that of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) containing desogestrel, gestodene, or drospirenone, compared to COCPs containing levonorgestrel. The current evidence suggests that the VTE risk is about 1.5-2.0 times higher. Therefore, it is important to consider the risks and benefits of co-cyprindiol and other COCPs when prescribing them to women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman has relapsed Graves’ disease. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has relapsed Graves’ disease. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is less than 0.05 μU/l (normal range 1.7–3.2 μU/l and the free thyroxine (T4) is 32.5 pmol/l (normal range 11–22 pmol/l). She has severe bilateral thyroid eye disease with marked orbital oedema and proptosis. She is being considered for radioactive iodine treatment, as drug treatment has failed.
      Which of the following statements concerning the management of thyroid eye disease is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her thyroid eye disease may be worsened by radioiodine treatment

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Eye Disease: Treatment and Management

      Thyroid eye disease (TED) is a condition that affects the eyes and is often associated with thyroid dysfunction. Radioiodine treatment may worsen the eye disease, with exacerbation being more common than with drug therapy alone. However, only a small percentage of cases threaten sight, with most causing discomfort and deteriorating cosmetic appearance. Orbital irradiation is not commonly used to treat TED, as studies have not clearly demonstrated its efficacy. Corrective eye muscle surgery should be delayed until the disease has been stable for at least six months and may be of value in improving diplopia. Urgent orbital decompression surgery may be required for severe sight-threatening disease. Methylcellulose drops may be prescribed by general practitioners to alleviate symptoms due to corneal exposure. Systemic corticosteroids and oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may ease discomfort and decrease inflammation when symptoms are severe, while intravenous corticosteroids are used if vision is threatened. Smoking is an important risk factor for TED, increasing the risk of developing the disease by seven to eight times. The risk increases with the number of cigarettes smoked and reduces on stopping. Smoking also increases the risk of worsening after radioiodine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 16-year-old male is brought to see you by his mother following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is brought to see you by his mother following an episode of collapse. He tells you that on a few occasions whilst playing basketball he has had some chest pain and breathlessness, and has felt as though he were going to faint. Last night during practice he collapsed and 'blacked out' for a few seconds. On examination he has a harsh ejection systolic murmur with a palpable systolic thrill at the left sternal edge; and a prominent jerky carotid pulse. What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a condition caused by left ventricular outflow tract obstruction due to septal hypertrophy. It can be inherited or sporadic, and a family history of sudden death should be considered. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, palpitations, pre-syncope, and syncope. Clinical signs include a ‘jerky’ pulse, double apex impulse, and a prominent systolic thrill with a harsh ejection systolic murmur.

      Brugada syndrome is a rare inherited cardiac condition that can cause sudden cardiac death. It is caused by a genetic mutation affecting the cardiac sodium channels and is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

      Long-QT syndrome can be inherited or acquired and predisposes to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. Causes include various drugs, ischaemic heart disease, and metabolic abnormalities such as hypocalcaemia.

      Pericarditis can present acutely with chest pain that worsens when lying flat and with inspiration. A pericardial rub may be audible, and causes include viruses, bacteria, fungi, and systemic diseases.

      Constrictive pericarditis occurs when the pericardium becomes rigid and mainly leads to signs of right heart failure. Clinical signs include a diffuse apex beat, quiet heart sounds, and Kussmaul’s sign (JVP rises with inspiration paradoxically). It can occur after an episode of acute pericarditis.

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is caused by an accessory pathway that conducts between the atrium and ventricle, facilitating abnormal conduction and often presenting with supraventricular tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old accountant presents with a 4 months history of occasional loose stools...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old accountant presents with a 4 months history of occasional loose stools and bloating. Due to a heavy workload, she has not had the chance to visit her GP until now. She denies any vomiting or recent travel and has not noticed any mucous or blood in her stools. She has a history of anxiety and a strong family history of irritable bowel syndrome. During examination, her vital signs are normal, and her abdomen is visibly bloated but soft and non-tender. Bowel sounds are active, and rectal examination is unremarkable. What would be the most crucial next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check CA125

      Explanation:

      If a woman aged 50 or above reports symptoms resembling irritable bowel syndrome within the past year, it is important to consider the possibility of ovarian cancer. While IBS is uncommon in this age group, ovarian cancer can present with similar nonspecific symptoms, and it is crucial to rule out any serious conditions.

      Understanding Ovarian Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects women, with the peak age of incidence being 60 years. It is the fifth most common malignancy in females and carries a poor prognosis due to late diagnosis. Around 90% of ovarian cancers are epithelial in origin, with 70-80% of cases being due to serous carcinomas. Interestingly, recent studies suggest that the distal end of the fallopian tube is often the site of origin of many ‘ovarian’ cancers.

      There are several risk factors associated with ovarian cancer, including a family history of mutations of the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 gene, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity. Clinical features of ovarian cancer are notoriously vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms, early satiety, and diarrhea.

      To diagnose ovarian cancer, a CA125 test is usually done initially. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 should not be used for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women. Diagnosis is difficult and usually involves diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer usually involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. The prognosis for ovarian cancer is poor, with 80% of women having advanced disease at presentation and the all stage 5-year survival being 46%. It is traditionally taught that infertility treatment increases the risk of ovarian cancer, as it increases the number of ovulations. However, recent evidence suggests that there is not a significant link. The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk (fewer ovulations) as does having many pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a headache over his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a headache over his left eye spreading across his forehead. During the headache, he has difficulty speaking. Three minutes later he has developed clumsiness in his right hand, and two minutes after that he describes his right leg as ‘feeling heavy’. His speech and limb symptoms have disappeared after 20 minutes, but his headache persists for six hours. He suffered from migraines as a teenager but has not had an attack in over 15 years. He smokes 25 cigarettes a day.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neurological Symptoms: Differential Diagnosis

      When presented with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of transient symptoms accompanied by a prolonged headache history, migraine with aura is a likely possibility. The aura may be visual, sensory, motor, or a combination of these and typically lasts less than 60 minutes.

      While a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) could explain the neurological symptoms, it is unlikely to account for the prolonged headache history. A berry aneurysm, on the other hand, would not cause transient symptoms and would more likely result in a sudden-onset severe headache if ruptured.

      Cluster headaches, which are accompanied by autonomic symptoms on the same side of the head as the pain, are more common in smokers but would not explain the transient neurological symptoms.

      Finally, a subarachnoid haemorrhage typically presents as a sudden-onset severe headache, which is not consistent with the rapid resolution of the neurological symptoms in this case.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of neurological symptoms is crucial in determining the appropriate course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood pressure readings of 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential hypertension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension

      Ninety five percent of patients diagnosed with hypertension have essential or primary hypertension, while the remaining five percent have secondary hypertension. Essential hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in high blood pressure. On the other hand, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.

      It is important to understand the type of hypertension a patient has in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension requires addressing the underlying cause. Regular blood pressure monitoring and consultation with a healthcare professional can help manage hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following accurately defines the responsibilities of Caldicott guardians? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following accurately defines the responsibilities of Caldicott guardians?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protect access to confidential patient data

      Explanation:

      The Caldicott guardian is responsible for safeguarding patient information.

      The Role of Caldicott Guardians in Ensuring Patient Data Security

      The Caldicott Report of 1997 highlighted the inadequacies in the management of confidential patient data in some parts of the NHS. To address this issue, the report recommended the appointment of Caldicott Guardians, who are responsible for ensuring the security of patient data.

      Caldicott Guardians are members of staff who are tasked with overseeing the handling of confidential patient information within their respective NHS organizations. They are responsible for ensuring that patient data is kept secure and that access to it is restricted only to those who have a legitimate need to know.

      Today, it is mandatory for every NHS organization to have a Caldicott Guardian. This requirement is in place to ensure that patient data is protected from unauthorized access, theft, or misuse. By appointing Caldicott Guardians, the NHS is taking proactive steps to safeguard the privacy and confidentiality of patient information, which is essential for maintaining trust and confidence in the healthcare system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 25 - A tall, twelve-year-old girl complains of mid-foot pain and stiffness that worsens with...

    Incorrect

    • A tall, twelve-year-old girl complains of mid-foot pain and stiffness that worsens with activity. Upon examination, there is tenderness over the head of the second metatarsal and diffuse swelling in the area. The patient denies any significant trauma.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Freiberg's disease

      Explanation:

      Young women presenting with midfoot pain on walking should consider Freiberg’s disease as a possible cause. This condition occurs when the blood supply to the metatarsal head is interrupted, leading to infarction and flattening of the affected area. It is most commonly seen in adolescents, particularly tall, athletic females, whose bones may grow faster than blood vessels can keep up with. Symptoms include pain, swelling, and stiffness, which can be managed with conservative measures, although improvement may take up to a year. Other conditions that may cause similar symptoms include Morton’s neuroma, complex regional pain syndrome, and sesamoiditis, but each has its own unique presentation and risk factors.

      Understanding Freiberg Disease

      Freiberg disease, also known as metatarsal avascular necrosis, is a condition that occurs when the blood supply to the metatarsal head is disrupted, leading to infarction and flattening of the affected area. This condition is most commonly observed in adolescents, particularly tall, athletic females, as their bones may grow faster than blood vessels can keep up with. The second metatarsal is the most commonly affected area.

      The symptoms of Freiberg’s disease include pain, swelling, and stiffness, which can be managed through conservative measures such as activity limitation, analgesia, and orthotic devices like walking casts or boots. While operative management is rarely necessary, it is important to inform patients that improvement can be gradual and may take up to a year.

      Overall, understanding Freiberg disease is crucial for individuals who may be at risk, as early detection and management can help prevent further complications and improve overall outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her mental health. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her mental health. She was involved in a serious car accident three months ago and has been avoiding driving ever since. She experiences flashbacks and nightmares and has become increasingly isolated and anxious. The doctor suspects post-traumatic stress disorder.
      What is a diagnostic criterion for post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoidance of people associated with the event

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event that threatens physical integrity or life. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-5), outlines the core diagnostic criteria for PTSD, which include recurrent intrusive symptoms such as memories, nightmares, and flashbacks. Additionally, individuals with PTSD may exhibit persistent avoidance of thoughts, feelings, or external factors associated with the traumatic event, as well as negative changes in mood or thoughts and changes in arousal or reactivity.

      It is important to note that anxiety and depression often coexist with PTSD, but they are not diagnostic features. Similarly, substance abuse cannot be the primary cause of the disturbance in order for a PTSD diagnosis to be made. Recurrent early awakening, a symptom of dysthymia, is not part of the diagnostic criteria for PTSD.

      Overall, understanding the diagnostic criteria for PTSD can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify and treat this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 27 - You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with...

    Incorrect

    • You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with lower respiratory tract infections. He has lost weight and appears pale and gaunt. During your consultation, you inquire about his travel history and any potential exposure to sexually transmitted infections. The patient confesses to having unprotected sexual intercourse with a sex worker while on a business trip to Thailand a few years ago when his marriage was going through a rough patch. Since then, he has reconciled with his wife and she has been his only sexual partner. With the patient's consent, you conduct a blood test to screen for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which comes back positive. You discuss the implications of the result with the patient, but he insists that he cannot disclose this information to his wife, who is also a patient at your practice. What is your course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the patient an opportunity to tell his wife and if he doesn't then inform him that it is your duty to inform her

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to patient confidentiality and when it is acceptable to breach it. Specifically, if a patient has been diagnosed with a serious communicable disease, there is a risk of transmission to another patient. According to GMC guidelines, it is permissible to disclose information to a sexual partner of a patient with a sexually transmitted serious communicable disease if the patient has not informed them and cannot be convinced to do so. However, the patient should be informed before the disclosure is made, if possible and safe to do so. Any decision to disclose personal information without consent must be justified. Therefore, in this scenario, if the patient refuses to inform their spouse, it is appropriate to inform the spouse after informing the patient of the decision. It is important to follow professional guidelines in such situations, and other options would not be appropriate.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 28 - You come across a 16-year-old student who has been experiencing vertigo for the...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 16-year-old student who has been experiencing vertigo for the past 2 days. She complains of feeling like the room is spinning and experiencing nausea. She has been suffering from a severe cold for the last 10 days but denies any other symptoms. Upon examination and hearing tests, you suspect that she has vestibular neuronitis.

      What is a correct statement about vestibular neuronitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hearing is normal in vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.

      It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.

      Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.

      Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 29 - A 12-year-old girl has recently arrived from Lithuania and registered with your practice....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has recently arrived from Lithuania and registered with your practice. Lithuania is a country with an incidence of more than 40 per 100000 of tuberculosis. Mantoux testing has been carried out to screen for latent tuberculosis. It is unclear if she has ever had BCG immunisation and there are no scars suggestive of this. After 3 days the diameter of induration is 10 mm.
      Select from the list the single most correct management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferon γ (IGT) blood test

      Explanation:

      Detecting latent tuberculosis is crucial in controlling the disease, as up to 15% of adults with latent tuberculosis may develop active disease, and the risk may be even higher in children. In immunocompromised individuals, such as those who are HIV positive, the chance of developing active disease within 5 years of latent infection is up to 50%. The Mantoux test is a method of detecting previous exposure to the tuberculosis organism or BCG vaccination by causing a cell-mediated immune reaction. The interpretation of the test depends on factors such as BCG vaccination history, immune status, and concurrent viral infection. While a negative test in HIV-positive patients doesn’t exclude tuberculosis, a positive test at certain thresholds can indicate the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis. Indeterminate results may require further evaluation by a specialist. The use of IGT as a surrogate marker of infection can be useful in evaluating latent tuberculosis in BCG-vaccinated individuals, but it cannot distinguish between latent infection and active disease. NICE recommends different testing strategies based on age and risk factors, but the benefits of IGT over the Mantoux test in determining the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis are not certain. In children under 5 years, a positive test requires referral to a specialist to exclude active disease and consideration of treatment of latent tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about feeling anxious after giving...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about feeling anxious after giving birth to her daughter last week. Despite her usual loss of appetite when anxious, she reports eating well. While she was excited about her daughter's arrival during pregnancy, she now experiences frequent unhappiness and irritability. She expresses worry about motherhood and a lack of enthusiasm for it.

      What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      Mothers experiencing the ‘baby blues’ typically require reassurance, support, and follow-up. This is the correct answer as ‘baby blues’ is a common condition among mothers in the postnatal period, usually starting a week after childbirth and lasting only a few days. It is normal for mothers to feel emotional, anxious, tearful, and low after giving birth due to sudden hormonal changes. Reassurance is usually sufficient to manage this condition.

      Cognitive behavioural therapy and starting sertraline are incorrect options as they are suitable for patients with postnatal depression, which tends to start within 1-3 months post-delivery. Symptoms of postnatal depression include those of baby blues, but with additional symptoms such as lack of sleep, appetite changes, anhedonia, and thoughts of hurting themselves and their baby. Symptoms may also come on more gradually and last for a long time. However, in this vignette, the patient only describes feelings related to low mood and anxiety that set in a week after giving birth, making a diagnosis of postnatal depression unlikely.

      Referring to psychiatry is also an incorrect option as it is necessary only for severe circumstances where the patient has severe mental health impairment and poses a risk to themselves or others. This vignette suggests that the patient has baby blues, so reassurance would be the most appropriate option.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 31 - At what stage are GPs typically involved in myeloma? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage are GPs typically involved in myeloma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ESR and plasma viscosity are nearly always raised

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of abnormal plasma cells that produce an excess of monoclonal antibodies, also known as paraproteins. Here are some key diagnostic markers and symptoms of multiple myeloma:

      – Bence Jones protein is a reliable diagnostic marker.
      – Bone pain is common, usually in the back, but not in the skull.
      – White blood cell count is usually normal or low, with a classic leucoerythroblastic anemia.
      – Paraprotein may be absent in 20% of cases, but there are light chains in the urine.
      – Serum calcium can be normal or raised, and both ESR (usually) and CRP (nearly always) are raised.
      – IL6 is a key myeloma growth cytokine. Serum IL6 is raised in active myelomatosis and it primarily controls CRP production. A rise in IL6 is mirrored by a rise in CRP.
      – Bone lesions are lytic.

      It is important to note that multiple myeloma can present differently in each individual, and a proper diagnosis requires a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional. If you are experiencing any symptoms or have concerns about multiple myeloma, please consult with your doctor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 32 - A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two weeks, blood tests are conducted and no other medication changes have been made. The patient is examined and found to be adequately hydrated. As per NICE guidelines, what is the maximum acceptable rise in creatinine levels after initiating an ACE inhibitor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 33 - A client is taken off the practice list after attacking one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A client is taken off the practice list after attacking one of the receptionists. Who is accountable for arranging a different primary healthcare provider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The local clinical commissioning group

      Explanation:

      The responsibility of arranging alternative care falls on the local clinical commissioning group. To cater to aggressive or violent patients, several clinical commissioning groups may arrange primary care services that are tailored to their needs.

      Guidelines for Removing Patients from a Practice List

      Removing a patient from a practice list is a serious decision that should not be taken lightly. The Royal College guidelines provide clear examples of situations that may justify removal, such as unacceptable behavior like violence or deception like stealing from the practice. However, clinical matters like patient choice or critical questioning and complaints do not normally justify removal. It is important to note that removal is never justified based on age, gender, ethnic origin, religion, or sexual orientation.

      In exceptional situations where there is an ‘irretrievable breakdown’ in the doctor-patient relationship, a formal process should be agreed upon to try and rectify the problem. It is crucial to give reasons to the patient rather than unilaterally declaring an irretrievable breakdown.

      If removal is necessary, the following steps should be taken: give warning to the patient, inform the clinical commissioning group in writing, and write to the patient. It is important to note that the patient’s family should not be automatically removed, although in some cases, it may be necessary.

      Overall, removing a patient from a practice list should be a last resort and should only be done in accordance with the Royal College guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 34 - A 30 year old female smoker presents with painful aphthous ulcers and has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female smoker presents with painful aphthous ulcers and has been using a topical analgesic (benzydamine hydrochloride gel) for 3 weeks without relief. There is no indication of joint or bowel issues in her medical history or physical examination. She is in good health otherwise. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to secondary care

      Explanation:

      If an oral ulcer persists for more than 3 weeks without explanation, it is important to refer the patient to secondary care urgently to rule out the possibility of malignancy. While smoking is a risk factor for both oral malignancy and aphthous ulcers, it is not a reason for referral. Interestingly, quitting smoking can actually make aphthous ulcers worse. Over-the-counter local analgesics like Difflam (benzydamine hydrochloride) and Bonjela can provide relief from symptoms, but there is no evidence that they can reduce the frequency or duration of ulceration. Some evidence suggests that antibacterial mouthwashes (such as chlorhexidine) and topical corticosteroids (such as hydrocortisone oromucosal tablets) can help to shorten the duration and severity of symptoms, but they do not reduce the frequency of recurrence.

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 35 - An older man had been a patient of yours for many years. You...

    Incorrect

    • An older man had been a patient of yours for many years. You saw him regularly during his last illness and he passed away from cancer a few weeks ago. He frequently commented on your tie on several occasions and you had joked with him about it.

      This afternoon, you received a letter from a firm of solicitors, telling you that the man left you £10,000 in his will to buy a new tie. You know that he was a widower who was quite well off, and that he had a son Michael, who is also a patient at your practice.

      What is the appropriate course of action to take regarding this generous bequest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speak to Judith when she next comes into the clinic, inform your partners and primary care trust, and if no one objects, accept the bequest

      Explanation:

      Accepting Gifts from Patients: Guidelines for Doctors

      Patients may choose to give gifts to their doctors as a gesture of appreciation. While there is no legal or professional prohibition against accepting such gifts, doctors must be mindful of the guidelines set forth by the General Medical Council (GMC) in the UK. According to the GMC, doctors must not encourage patients to give gifts that would directly or indirectly benefit them, nor should they accept any inducements that could affect their treatment or referral decisions. Additionally, doctors must not offer such inducements to their colleagues.

      In the case of an unsolicited gift from a patient, such as an old lady’s bequest, it is generally acceptable to accept it as long as the doctor did not ask for it and it will not affect their relationship with the patient. However, it is important for doctors to be transparent and above board with anyone who may raise objections. It is also worth noting that these guidelines apply specifically to doctors practicing in the UK, and doctors working outside of the UK should consult their own regulatory guidance. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that they maintain the trust and confidence of their patients and colleagues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 36 - A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good health and reports no symptoms. His body mass index is 22 kg/m2. He takes no regular medication. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 3 units of alcohol per week. He presents to you for review of his blood tests, as shown below:

      - eGFR 92 mL/min/1.73m2
      - HBA1c 38 mmol/mol
      - Bilirubin 12 umol/l (3 - 17 umol/l)
      - Alanine transferase (ALT) 70 iu/l (3 - 40 iu/l)
      - Aspartate transaminase (AST) 30 iu/l (3 - 30 iu/l)
      - Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 95 umol/l (30 - 100 umol/l)
      - Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT) 55 u/l (8 - 60 u/l)
      - Total protein 72 g/l (60 - 80 g/l)

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a liver screen including a liver ultrasound and blood tests, and review the patient with the results

      Explanation:

      It is common for incidental raised liver function tests to persist even after a month, and normalised liver function tests do not necessarily indicate the absence or resolution of chronic liver diseases. Standard liver screen blood tests include Antinuclear antibody, anti-smooth muscle antibody, serum immunoglobulins, anti-mitochondrial antibody, ferritin, transferrin saturation, and a viral hepatitis screen.

      Given that the patient is currently well, there is no need for immediate hepatology review. Urgent hepatology referral within two weeks is also unnecessary as the patient is not exhibiting any concerning symptoms.

      Since the patient is consuming alcohol within recommended limits, there is no need for a referral for FibroScan (transient elastography).

      According to current guidelines, repeating liver function tests after an initial abnormal result is not recommended as they are unlikely to normalise unless an acute cause has been identified. Waiting for 12 months to repeat the bloods is also inappropriate.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 37 - A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance policy. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and drinks 3 units of alcohol weekly. During examination, a faint systolic murmur is detected. Her ECG shows a heart rate of 68 bpm and is normal. An echocardiogram reveals a bicuspid aortic valve.
      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for heart surgery at a later date

      Explanation:

      Bicuspid Aortic Valve: Risks and Recommendations

      Bicuspid aortic valve is a common congenital heart disease in adults, occurring in 1-2% of the population with a familial incidence of around 10%. While some patients may be asymptomatic, about 30% develop complications such as aortic stenosis or insufficiency, which may require surgery. Additionally, the aorta of patients with bicuspid aortic valve has reduced tensile strength, putting them at higher risk for aortic dissection and aneurysm formation in the ascending aorta.

      To manage the cardiovascular risk associated with this condition, low-dose aspirin and cholesterol-lowering drugs may be prescribed as appropriate. While there is evidence supporting a familial predisposition, screening for family members is not yet universally recommended. Finally, while infective endocarditis is a potential complication, antibiotic prophylaxis during dental procedures is no longer recommended.

      In summary, bicuspid aortic valve requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications and ensure optimal cardiovascular health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 38 - A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:

    Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
    ALP...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:

      Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
      ALP 84 U/L
      ALT 23 U/L
      Albumin 41 g/L

      His medical history reveals recent complaints of coryzal symptoms and a non-productive cough. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is typically characterized by a rise in bilirubin levels in response to physiological stress. Therefore, it is likely that a 22-year-old male with isolated hyperbilirubinemia has Gilbert’s syndrome. Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndrome, which both result in conjugated bilirubinemia, can be ruled out based on a normal dipstick urinalysis. Viral infections are often responsible for triggering a bilirubin increase in individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 39 - A 4-year-old child presents with a six day history of fever, coryzal symptoms,...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child presents with a six day history of fever, coryzal symptoms, cough and red watery eyes. Yesterday a red maculopapular rash appeared around the ears and face.

      On examination, in the mouth there are tiny white spots on an erythematous base, opposite the premolars on the buccal mucosa.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella

      Explanation:

      Measles vs Rubella: Understanding the Differences

      Measles and rubella are two viral infections that can cause similar symptoms, but they have some key differences. Measles is typically more severe and can have serious consequences, while rubella is usually milder and may go unnoticed in some individuals.

      In the case of measles, the illness usually starts with a prodromal phase that includes fever, dry cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis. After a few days, tiny white spots called Koplik’s spots appear on the buccal mucosa, followed by a rash that spreads downwards from the face and behind the ears.

      On the other hand, rubella tends to be shorter in duration and milder in symptoms. It may not even be noticed in some individuals. However, if a pregnant woman contracts rubella, it can pose a serious risk to the developing fetus.

      Understanding the differences between these two viral infections is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 40 - A 16-year-old girl comes in with a complaint of a sore throat. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes in with a complaint of a sore throat. She reports no cough, has a temperature of 38.4ºC, and her tonsils are enlarged with white exudate. What is the fourth component of the Centor criteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      The Centor criteria consist of a patient’s fever history, the existence of tonsillar exudate, the lack of a cough, and the presence of tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. None of the other options are included in this assessment.

      Management of Sore Throat

      Sore throat is a common condition that includes pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. Routine throat swabs and rapid antigen tests are not recommended for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be achieved with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not usually necessary. However, antibiotics may be indicated for patients with marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when 3 or more Centor criteria are present. The Centor criteria and FeverPAIN criteria can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. There is some evidence that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, but this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 41 - A 17-year-old man presents with difficulty in walking and foot drop. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old man presents with difficulty in walking and foot drop. There is weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot, with a small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of that foot.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      Nerve Lesions and their Effects on Foot and Ankle Movement

      The common peroneal nerve, arising from the sciatic nerve, can be damaged by pressure in the area close to the head of the fibula. Its deep branch supplies muscles that dorsiflex the foot and toes, while the superficial branch supplies muscles that evert the foot. Damage to the posterior tibial nerve results in weakness of plantar flexion and inversion of the foot. A L4/5 palsy produces weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, eversion, and inversion with sensory loss over the lower leg. A sciatic nerve lesion produces weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, eversion, inversion, and plantar flexion, with widespread sensory loss and loss of the ankle jerk. Nerve entrapment is a rare cause of these lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old male presents to your clinic with a suspected fungal toenail infection....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents to your clinic with a suspected fungal toenail infection. The infection has been gradually developing, causing discoloration of the nail unit with white/yellow streaks and distorting the nail bed. The severity of the infection is moderate. During his last visit, nail scrapings were taken for microscopy and culture, which recently confirmed dermatophyte infection. The patient is experiencing discomfort while walking and is seeking treatment for the fungal infection.

      What is the most suitable treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Oral terbinafine is recommended for treating dermatophyte nail infections.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 43 - A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal but urine dipstick testing shows blood ++. Her mother had also been hypertensive and had died prematurely aged 37 years of a cerebral haemorrhage.
      Select the single most likely cause of this patient’s hypertension.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypertension with Renal Involvement

      Hypertension with renal involvement has various causes, with renal impairment being the most common identifiable cause. Dipstick haematuria is a strong indicator of glomerulonephritis, particularly IgA nephropathy. However, if there is a family history and cerebral haemorrhage, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a likely cause. ADPKD is the most common inherited cause of serious renal disease and often presents with hypertension and microscopic haematuria. Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal arteries, which is autosomal dominant, may also cause hypertension but doesn’t present with haematuria. Renovascular atherosclerosis, on the other hand, causes hypertension but doesn’t show abnormal dipstick testing. A bruit may be audible in both fibromuscular dysplasia and renovascular atherosclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 44 - Select from the list the single patient who might benefit from receiving antibiotics...

    Incorrect

    • Select from the list the single patient who might benefit from receiving antibiotics if they are 65 years old.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 4-year-old with otitis media associated with otorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Use in Children with Otitis Media and Sore Throat: NICE Guidelines and Cochrane Review

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend immediate antibiotic prescribing for children with otorrhoea and acute otitis media, as well as for children under 2 years with bilateral otitis media, those who are systemically unwell, have signs of complications, or have pre-existing co-morbidities. For children with acute sore throat and three or more Centor criteria, antibiotics may be considered due to the likelihood of a group A β-haemolytic streptococcus infection. However, a Cochrane review found that antibiotics provide only a small benefit for acute otitis media in children, and the possible adverse reactions must be weighed against this benefit. A pragmatic approach is to provide a prescription for antibiotics but advise parents to wait and see if it is necessary to have it dispensed based on worsening or prolonged symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 45 - A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine a skin lesion on their shoulder. The patient reports having noticed the lesion for a few years and that it has slowly been increasing in size. They mention having worked as a builder and property developer, resulting in significant sun exposure. On examination, you note an irregular pale red patch on the right shoulder measuring 6x4mm. The lesion has a slightly raised 'rolled' pearly edge and a small eroded area in the center. There is no surrounding inflammation, and the lesion doesn't feel indurated.

      What is your plan for managing this patient's skin lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to dermatology

      Explanation:

      When a superficial basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is suspected, it is recommended to make a standard referral. This presentation is typical of BCC, which usually grows slowly and hardly ever spreads to other parts of the body. Dermatology referral is necessary in such cases. While Efudix and cryotherapy may be used as substitutes for excision in treating superficial BCC, it is important to seek the guidance of a dermatologist.

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma

      Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.

      If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 46 - A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient with a known HIV infection. What is the likelihood of the phlebotomist contracting HIV?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.30%

      Explanation:

      Compared to hepatitis B and C, the transmission rate of HIV is relatively low.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 47 - A 6-month-old, full-term boy presents with a four-week history of regurgitation of feeds....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old, full-term boy presents with a four-week history of regurgitation of feeds. He is otherwise well, with a normal growth chart. Examination is also normal.
      What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux

      Explanation:

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux, also known as posseting, is a common occurrence in infants between 1-4 months of age due to the underdeveloped lower oesophageal sphincter. This condition is characterized by effortless regurgitation and doesn’t require any investigation or treatment as it usually resolves on its own as the child grows and adopts an upright posture. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia, hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, and urinary tract infection are not the correct diagnoses for this scenario. Infective gastroenteritis may cause sudden onset diarrhea and vomiting, but it doesn’t fit with the symptoms described in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 48 - A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness in his big toe. He appears to be in good health and there are no signs of infection or fever. He reports a history of gout and suspects that it has returned. He is currently on a regular dose of allopurinol. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue allopurinol and commence colchicine

      Explanation:

      Patients with an acute flare of gout who are already on allopurinol treatment should not discontinue it during the attack, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Colchicine is a suitable option for acute gout treatment, and oral steroids can be used if colchicine or NSAIDs are not tolerated. Hospital review on the same day is not necessary unless there are red flag features or evidence of a septic joint. Aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 49 - You have a 7-year-old Asian child in your clinic. He has slightly bowed...

    Incorrect

    • You have a 7-year-old Asian child in your clinic. He has slightly bowed legs and complains of muscle pains. You suspect a Vitamin D deficiency. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25-hydroxyvitamin D

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency

      Vitamin D deficiency is a common health concern that can lead to various health problems. To investigate suspected Vitamin D deficiency, doctors often use the 25-hydroxyvitamin D blood test. However, it’s important to note that a high alkaline phosphatase level may indicate rickets, but it can still be normal despite significant Vitamin D deficiency. Additionally, Vitamin D deficiency can impair the absorption of dietary calcium and phosphorus, but these levels may still appear normal despite the deficiency.

      When the parathyroid calcium sensing receptors detect low levels of calcium, the body produces parathyroid hormone. While this hormone can be used to diagnose Vitamin D deficiency, it’s an expensive test that is not usually necessary. Overall, understanding the signs and symptoms of Vitamin D deficiency and getting regular check-ups can help prevent and treat this common health issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 50 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism presents with fatigue and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism presents with fatigue and a painful tongue. Her blood tests reveal the following results:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.7 g/dl
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 121 fl
      - Platelet count (Plt): 177 * 109/l
      - White blood cell count (WBC): 5.4 * 109/l

      Further investigations reveal that her vitamin B12 levels are 64 ng/l (normal range: 200-900 ng/l) and her folic acid levels are 7.2 nmol/l (normal range: > 3.0 nmol/l). Antibodies to intrinsic factor are also detected. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin 3 times each week for 2 weeks, then once every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 51 - What is a metabolic effect of exenatide? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a metabolic effect of exenatide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accelerates gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      Exenatide and its Metabolic Effects

      Exenatide is a medication that imitates the effects of GLP-1, a hormone produced in the gut. It has been found to have beneficial effects on the metabolism of individuals with diabetes mellitus. This medication has several metabolic effects, including the suppression of appetite, inhibition of glucose production in the liver, slowing of gastric emptying, and stimulation of insulin release. However, it doesn’t increase insulin sensitivity, which is achieved by other drugs such as metformin and the glitazones. Overall, exenatide has been shown to have a positive impact on the management of diabetes by regulating various metabolic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 52 - A 25-year-old man is worried about his left testis as he has observed...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is worried about his left testis as he has observed a swelling and some slight discomfort. The discomfort intensifies when he stands and subsides when he lies down. The left side scrotum hangs lower and feels like “a bag of worms”. Both testes are of the same size and feel normal. The swelling becomes more noticeable when he performs a Valsalva manoeuvre while standing.
      Select the accurate statement from the options given.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Controversy surrounds the need for treatment

      Explanation:

      Varicocele: To Treat or Not to Treat?

      Varicocele is a common condition found in 20% of all men in the general population and 40% of infertile men. While it may cause abnormal sperm count and infertility, controversy surrounds the need for treatment. A Cochrane review has cast doubt on the merits of varicocelectomy, but European guidelines cite several meta-analyses favoring treatment. Surgery is only indicated for persistent pain. In older men with newly symptomatic varicocele, an advanced renal tumor is possible and should be excluded. Overall, most varicoceles do not require treatment and are unlikely to cause long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 53 - A 75-year-old nursing home resident, with advanced dementia, has become increasingly verbally disruptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old nursing home resident, with advanced dementia, has become increasingly verbally disruptive at meal times, often shouting out incoherent phrases at staff and other residents. A general examination, urine dipstick and baseline blood tests were normal.

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Restrain the patient at meal times in case of violent behaviour

      Explanation:

      Managing Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia

      With Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia (BPSD), it is crucial to identify and treat any reversible causes. However, in cases where there are no other symptoms and normal examination and investigations, empirical antibiotics should be avoided as they may lead to adverse clinical events such as Clostridium difficile. If conservative measures fail, it is advisable to seek advice from an elderly care physician who may recommend short-term use of medications such as haloperidol or lorazepam. It is important to note that restraining the patient during anticipated bad behaviour is not appropriate. By following these guidelines, we can effectively manage BPSD and improve the quality of life for patients with dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 54 - A 32-year-old patient presents to you seeking pre-pregnancy advice and inquiring about folic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient presents to you seeking pre-pregnancy advice and inquiring about folic acid intake. The patient has a medical history of insulin-treated type 1 diabetes. What recommendations would you make regarding the duration and dosage of folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 400 micrograms daily, to be taken after conception and until week 12 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Requirements for Women During Pregnancy

      Most women are advised to take 400 mcg of folic acid daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy. However, there are exceptions to this rule. Women who are at a higher risk of neural tube defects, such as those with a history of bearing children with NTDs, or women with diabetes or taking anticonvulsants, should take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy.

      Another group of women who require a higher dose of folic acid are those with sickle cell disease. They need to take 5 mg of folic acid daily throughout pregnancy, and even when not pregnant, they’ll usually be taking folic acid 5mg every 1 to 7 days, depending on the severity of their disease. It’s important for women to consult with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dose of folic acid for their individual needs during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 55 - A 5-year old healthy girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year old healthy girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her parents who are concerned about some darker skin patches they have noticed on her legs, arms and back. They think they have been present since she was a small baby but seem to be more noticeable over the last few months. They have counted six in total.
      On examination, you observe several hyperpigmented macules with a sharp border and variable diameter on the limbs, abdomen and lower back. You believe these to be café au lait spots. She also has some freckly pigmentation under both arms.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a genetic disorder that causes lesions in the skin, nervous system, and skeleton. It is usually diagnosed in children under the age of eight, with 80% of cases being identified by age six. The condition is characterized by the presence of café au lait spots, which are hyperpigmented macules with a sharp border and a diameter of over 0.5 cm in children or 1.5 cm in adults. To be diagnosed with NF1, a patient must have at least two of the following seven presentations: six or more café au lait macules, two or more cutaneous/subcutaneous neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma, axillary or groin freckling, optic pathway glioma, two or more Lisch nodules, bony dysplasia, or a first-degree relative with NF1. Other skin conditions, such as acanthosis nigricans, childhood lentigines, Sturge-Weber syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis, have different symptoms and are not associated with café au lait spots.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 56 - An overweight 35-year-old woman presents with a short history of right upper-quadrant pain,...

    Incorrect

    • An overweight 35-year-old woman presents with a short history of right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. There is no previous history of illness and, apart from the jaundice, she has no signs of chronic liver disease.
      Initial investigations are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 115 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 105 fl 80–100fl
      Bilirubin 162 µmol/l 5-26 µmol/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 145 U/l 5–34 U/l
      Alanine transaminase (ALT) 40 U/l < 55 U/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 126 U/l 30–130 U/l
      Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT) 200 U/l 7–33 U/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Acute Right Upper-Quadrant Pain, Fever, and Jaundice: A Differential Diagnosis

      When a patient presents with acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, several conditions may be responsible. A differential diagnosis can help narrow down the possible causes based on the patient’s symptoms and laboratory results. Here are some potential conditions to consider:

      Alcoholic Hepatitis
      If the patient has a raised ALT or AST, alcoholic hepatitis may be the cause. An AST:ALT ratio >2 is typical of alcoholic liver disease or cirrhosis, and a macrocytosis and raised GGT further support this diagnosis.

      Autoimmune Hepatitis
      A short history of right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice may suggest autoimmune hepatitis. However, a raised AST:ALT ratio makes alcoholic liver disease more likely.

      Carcinoma of the Head of the Pancreas
      Painless obstructive jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools are typical of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. As the tumor grows, it may cause epigastric pain that radiates to the back. However, this condition should not present with a fever.

      Cholecystitis
      Cholecystitis can cause similar symptoms, but LFTs would show a different pattern, typically with a raised ALP and GGT and raised bilirubin if the patient is jaundiced. A normal ALP makes cholecystitis less likely.

      Hepatitis A Infection
      Hepatitis A infection can also cause acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. However, significantly raised ALT and AST levels are typical of this condition because the virus replicates within hepatocytes.

      In summary, a differential diagnosis can help identify the possible causes of acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. Laboratory results, such as AST:ALT ratio, macrocytosis, and GGT levels, can provide additional clues to narrow down the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 57 - A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with age-related macular degeneration. He wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with age-related macular degeneration. He wants to know if he can do anything to prevent it from worsening.
      What is the most crucial preventive measure? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Preventing Age-Related Macular Degeneration: Strategies and Misconceptions

      Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a leading cause of vision loss in older adults. While some risk factors, such as age and genetics, cannot be modified, there are strategies that can help prevent or slow the progression of the disease. However, there are also misconceptions about certain interventions.

      Smoking cessation is the most important modifiable factor in preventing AMD. Current smokers have a two to three times higher risk of developing the disease compared to non-smokers. Quitting smoking can also reduce the risk of progression in those who already have AMD.

      Antioxidant supplements, specifically the AREDS2 formula containing vitamin C and E, lutein, zeaxanthin, zinc, and copper, may reduce the risk of progression by 25% in patients with intermediate AMD. However, there is no evidence to support their use in lesser disease or primary prevention.

      While some studies have suggested a benefit of eating oily fish, the Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends a diet rich in leafy green vegetables and fresh fruit to improve concentrations of macular pigment.

      There is no conclusive evidence that statins, medications used to lower cholesterol, have an effect on AMD progression. Similarly, treating hypertension, while a risk factor for AMD, doesn’t reduce the risk of developing the disease.

      In summary, smoking cessation and antioxidant supplements may be effective strategies for preventing or slowing the progression of AMD, while eating a healthy diet and managing other health conditions can also be beneficial. However, it is important to be aware of misconceptions about certain interventions and to consult with a healthcare professional for personalized recommendations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 58 - A 72-year-old man with osteoarthritis affecting his left shoulder presents for follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with osteoarthritis affecting his left shoulder presents for follow-up. He is currently on regular co-codamol 30/500 for pain relief and takes oral ibuprofen as needed. The patient has been experiencing shoulder problems for several years and has had to increase his pain medication to manage his symptoms. He has also tried using heat and cold packs and has purchased a TENS machine. Despite these interventions, he continues to experience significant daily pain and reduced function of his left arm due to restricted shoulder movement. The patient is hesitant to pursue surgical intervention. What would be an appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline orally

      Explanation:

      Intra-Articular Corticosteroid Injections for Osteoarthritis Pain

      Intra-articular corticosteroid injections can be a helpful addition to treating moderate to severe osteoarthritis pain. If traditional treatments have failed, a corticosteroid injection may be an appropriate option for patients who are not interested in surgical intervention. While the injection provides short-term pain relief, it may also allow patients to engage in other interventions such as physiotherapy, which can provide longer-lasting benefits in terms of both pain and function. However, repeated injections over longer periods may cause joint damage and are generally not recommended.

      Other treatment options such as capsaicin, electro-acupuncture, amitriptyline, and glucosamine are not recommended for osteoarthritis pain. Capsaicin is not recommended for shoulder problems, electro-acupuncture is not recommended for any form of osteoarthritis, and amitriptyline is not a licensed or recommended treatment for osteoarthritis. Glucosamine has insufficient data of significant efficacy to justify its cost, but patients can try over-the-counter glucosamine sulfate at a dose of 1500 mg daily and monitor their symptoms before and after three months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 59 - A 68-year-old man has a diagnosis of carcinoma of the prostate confirmed by...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a diagnosis of carcinoma of the prostate confirmed by biopsy. His PSA is 25 ng/ml (normal range < 5 ng/ml in over 60s). The biopsy showed a Gleason score of 6 (range 2 - 10) and confirmed that the tumour is confined to the prostate. His general health is otherwise good, and he was asymptomatic at diagnosis. His father was also diagnosed with prostate cancer at a similar age.
      Which of the following is most likely to signify a high-risk prostate cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate specific antigen >20 ng/mL

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostate Cancer Risk Factors

      Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and risk stratification is important for determining appropriate treatment. The three main factors that contribute to risk stratification are prostate-specific antigen (PSA), Gleason score, and cancer stage. A PSA level of over 20 ng/mL signifies high-risk disease. The Gleason score estimates the grade of prostate cancer based on its differentiation, with a score of 8-10 indicating high-risk disease. Cancer stage is also important, with T2c indicating high-risk disease. Lower urinary symptoms and family history of prostate cancer are not significant determinants of risk. It is important to understand these risk factors in order to make informed decisions about prostate cancer treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 60 - A 60-year-old man comes to see you to discuss PSA testing. He plays...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to see you to discuss PSA testing. He plays tennis with a few friends once a week and they have all been talking about the PSA test after one of his friends went to see his own GP with 'waterworks' problems.

      He has no lower urinary tract symptoms and denies any history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He has one brother who is 63 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer. He is currently well.

      He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed.

      What advice would you give to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be advised of the benefits and limitations of PSA testing and make an individual decision on whether to have the test

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men

      PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity are significant, with two out of three men with a raised PSA not having prostate cancer and 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA having prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers.

      Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, in men with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction, digital rectal examination (DRE) and PSA testing should be offered. Asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer should be informed of the pros and cons of the test and allowed to make their own decision. DRE should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities.

      If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.

      Family history is an important factor when considering prostate cancer. If the patient has a first-degree relative with prostate cancer, this may influence their decision on whether to have a PSA blood test. The risk of prostate cancer is increased by 112-140% for men with an affected father and 187-230% for men with an affected brother. Risks are higher for men under the age of 65 and for men where the relative is diagnosed before the age of 60.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 61 - Which one of the following conditions is NOT a condition inherited in an...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following conditions is NOT a condition inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Albinism

      Explanation:

      Metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with the exception of inherited ataxias. On the other hand, structural conditions are often inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, although there are exceptions such as Gilbert’s syndrome and hyperlipidemia type II.

      Autosomal Dominant Conditions: A List of Inherited Disorders

      Autosomal dominant conditions are genetic disorders that are passed down from one generation to the next through a dominant gene. Unlike autosomal recessive conditions, which require two copies of a mutated gene to cause the disorder, autosomal dominant conditions only require one copy of the mutated gene. While some autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural, such as Marfan’s syndrome and osteogenesis imperfecta, others are considered metabolic, such as hyperlipidemia type II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.

      The following is a list of autosomal dominant conditions:

      – Achondroplasia
      – Acute intermittent porphyria
      – Adult polycystic disease
      – Antithrombin III deficiency
      – Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
      – Familial adenomatous polyposis
      – Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
      – Hereditary spherocytosis
      – Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
      – Huntington’s disease
      – Hyperlipidaemia type II
      – Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis
      – Malignant hyperthermia
      – Marfan syndromes
      – Myotonic dystrophy
      – Neurofibromatosis
      – Noonan syndrome
      – Osteogenesis imperfecta
      – Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
      – Retinoblastoma
      – Romano-Ward syndrome
      – Tuberous sclerosis
      – Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
      – Von Willebrand’s disease*

      It’s important to note that while most types of von Willebrand’s disease are inherited as autosomal dominant, type 3 von Willebrand’s disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 62 - A 55-year-old man presents to the GP clinic with complaints of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the GP clinic with complaints of lower back pain, fevers, and weight loss. He has also noticed a weakened urinary stream and increased frequency of urination over the past six months. On examination, including digital rectal examination, there are no significant findings. The GP recommends that he see the practice phlebotomist to check his prostate serum antigen level. What is the most probable factor that could lead to a false positive result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A confirmed UTI, successfully treated two weeks ago

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting PSA Measurement

      Prostate serum antigen (PSA) measurement is a crucial screening tool for detecting prostate cancer. However, recent urinary tract infections can increase PSA levels, which may remain elevated for up to a month. There are several other factors that can influence PSA levels, including recent prostate biopsy, vigorous exercise within the last 48 hours, and ejaculation within the last 48 hours. It is recommended that men avoid PSA testing under these circumstances. On the other hand, there is no evidence to suggest that an intercurrent illness, such as an upper respiratory tract infection, affects PSA levels. Proper understanding of these factors can help ensure accurate PSA measurement and reliable prostate cancer detection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 63 - A General Practitioner receives a call from a patient's relative who is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A General Practitioner receives a call from a patient's relative who is worried about the patient's possible manic episode due to bipolar disorder. What symptoms would be commonly observed in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lack of normal social inhibitions

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Mania in Bipolar Disorder

      Mania is a common symptom of bipolar disorder, characterized by a period of elevated or irritable mood, increased energy, and other changes in behavior. Here are some common symptoms of mania:

      Lack of normal social inhibitions: Manic episodes can lead to sexual indiscretions and loss of other normal social inhibitions, putting patients at risk of unplanned pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections.

      Avoidance of pleasurable activities: Manic patients may engage in excessive spending and other pleasurable activities without considering the consequences.

      Increased sleep: While reduced sleep is a common feature of mania, increased sleep can be a symptom of depression in bipolar disorder.

      Power of concentration increased: Manic patients may experience distractibility and reduced concentration, rather than increased levels of concentration.

      Reduced energy levels: While manic patients may feel elated and full of energy, this often shifts into depression, where they feel sad and hopeless with low energy levels.

      It is important to recognize these symptoms and seek appropriate treatment for bipolar disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 64 - A 65-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer has noticed an increase in nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer has noticed an increase in nausea and vomiting as her opioid dose has been raised. She is currently experiencing persistent and severe vomiting with minimal relief of her nausea.
      Which medication is most likely to provide relief for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Managing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Medications to Consider

      Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms in palliative care, and can be caused by a variety of factors such as drug toxicity or metabolic disturbances. To manage these symptoms, several medications can be considered.

      Haloperidol is often the first-line drug for opioid-induced nausea, renal failure, and hypercalcaemia. Metoclopramide and levomepromazine are alternative options. For nausea caused by cytotoxic therapy or radiotherapy, ondansetron can be used.

      Ranitidine may be beneficial if gastric or oesophageal stasis is an issue. Cyclizine is useful for managing vagally-mediated nausea and vomiting caused by mechanical bowel obstruction, vestibular disturbance, and Intracranial disease. Dexamethasone can be added to cyclizine in scenarios where Intracranial pressure is raised.

      Finally, hyoscine butylbromide can be used for managing bowel colic and excessive gastrointestinal secretions. When selecting medications, it is important to consider the underlying cause of the nausea and vomiting, as well as the patient’s individual needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 65 - A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset of nausea and vomiting associated with watery diarrhoea. The diarrhoea intensified and is now 'rice watery' character.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholera

      Explanation:

      Cholera: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. The incubation period for cholera is typically 2-5 days. The initial signs of cholera include vomiting and watery diarrhea. At first, the diarrhea may be modest and consist of faecal matter and watery stool. However, in some patients, the diarrhea becomes profound and can exceed 200 ml/kg body weight per day. The stool in these cases becomes ‘rice-watery’ in character, resembling the opaque white water discarded after rice has been washed. The diarrhea is painless, and patients are often incontinent of stool. Without antimicrobial treatment, the total stool volume during the illness can exceed total body weight.

      Cholera is rarely imported from abroad, with an average of only 10 cases of cholera in the UK annually. The most common serotype is V. cholerae El Tor, and most infections are acquired on the Indian subcontinent. The risk of cholera for most travelers to endemic areas is very low, particularly in short-term travelers. However, the risk increases for those staying in areas of outbreaks. An oral cholera vaccine is now available in the UK and may be suitable for those who are unable to take adequate precautions in highly endemic or epidemic areas, such as disaster relief workers and adventurous backpackers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 66 - A 65-year-old woman seeks your advice on reducing her risk of pancreatic cancer...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman seeks your advice on reducing her risk of pancreatic cancer after her sister was recently diagnosed with the disease. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day, doesn't drink alcohol, and has lost weight through dieting. She consumes a lot of low calorie sweetened drinks and drinks four to five cups of strong coffee daily. She has been taking hormone replacement therapy for the past four years and regularly takes over-the-counter omega 3 capsules. What factor is linked to an increased risk of pancreatic cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer

      Chronic pancreatitis, smoking, and obesity are the three biggest risk factors for pancreatic cancer. The longer chronic pancreatitis is present, the higher the risk of developing pancreatic cancer, with some sources quoting a 26 times increased risk. Obese individuals are also about 20% more likely to develop pancreatic cancer. Other risk factors include alcohol consumption, family history of pancreatic cancer, and possibly diabetes.

      Up to 10% of cases may have a genetic cause, with germ-line mutations in the BRCA2 gene being involved in a significant number of familial pancreatic cancer cases. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome sufferers have a more than 100-fold increased lifetime risk, and patients with cystic fibrosis living into adulthood are also at increased cancer risk. Inflammatory bowel disease, periodontal disease, and peptic ulcer disease are also associated with an increased risk.

      However, fish or omega 3 fatty acid supplements, HRT, and sweetened carbonated drinks are not risk factors for pancreatic cancer. While there was concern over caffeine intake, coffee consumption is no longer considered a risk factor. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals make informed decisions about their lifestyle choices and medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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  • Question 67 - A 5-year-old boy has a temperature of 39°C and symptoms of an upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy has a temperature of 39°C and symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, but there are no high-risk signs to suggest that admission to hospital is necessary and it is decided that the child should be looked after at home.
      What is the most appropriate piece of advice to give to the parents regarding antipyretic interventions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antipyretic drugs are only needed if the child appears distressed or unwell

      Explanation:

      Antipyretic Interventions for Children with Fever

      Antipyretic drugs, such as paracetamol and ibuprofen, are recommended for children with fever if they appear distressed or unwell. However, these drugs should not be given solely to reduce body temperature or prevent febrile convulsions. Over-wrapping or underdressing a child with fever should also be avoided.

      Either paracetamol or ibuprofen can be given, but ibuprofen should be avoided if the child is dehydrated. Both drugs are equally effective and well tolerated, but they should not be given at the same time. If one drug is not effective, the other drug may be added with caution over dosing intervals.

      Aspirin should not be given to children under 16 years old due to safety concerns about the risk of developing Reye syndrome. Ibuprofen and/or paracetamol are appropriate for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 68 - A 56-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-month history of shortness of breath on exertion. Recently, he has also started waking at night with shortness of breath, which is relieved by sitting up in bed. On examination, crepitations are heard on auscultation of both lung bases and mild ankle oedema. There is no significant past medical history.
      What is the most appropriate next step according to current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test for B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations and Treatment for Suspected Heart Failure

      Suspected cases of heart failure require appropriate investigations and treatment. The recommended first-line investigation is B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) testing, which is released into the blood when the myocardium is stressed. If the BNP level is abnormal, the patient should be referred for specialist assessment and echocardiography. Treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors is indicated for patients suffering from heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, but this diagnosis should be confirmed before starting treatment. Referral for echocardiography should be guided by the BNP level, and spirometry is not the most appropriate investigation for patients with classical symptoms of congestive cardiac failure. If treatment is necessary, a loop diuretic such as furosemide is usually started.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 69 - During your weekly ward round at the local neurological rehabilitation care centre you...

    Incorrect

    • During your weekly ward round at the local neurological rehabilitation care centre you see a 34-year-old man who has a background of depression, asthma and a traumatic spinal cord injury. The nurses report him being more distressed and agitated over the last two days.

      On examination he is profusely sweating in the upper body and face, his blood pressure is 180/110mmHg, heart rate 60/min, oxygen saturations 99%, chest clear to auscultation and Glasgow coma scale 15, calves soft and non-tender, pupils equal and reactive. He admits to drinking 15 units/week and smokes 10 cigarettes/day. Regular medications include salbutamol, oxycodone, co-codamol 30/500 as required and prophylactic dose low molecular weight heparin.

      What is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autonomic dysreflexia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is faecal impaction or urinary retention. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause, which in this case is likely faecal impaction. Risk factors for impaction include immobility, certain medications, anatomic conditions, and neuropsychiatric conditions. The patient may have developed impaction due to the use of oxycodone and Co-codamol without laxatives. This is the only answer that would result in localised flushing above the level of the spinal cord injury.

      Alcohol withdrawal is an incorrect answer as the patient’s alcohol consumption is not high enough to cause physical withdrawal symptoms.

      Pulmonary embolism is also an incorrect answer as it would present with different symptoms such as tachycardia and signs of a DVT.

      Serotonin syndrome is an incorrect answer as it would not cause localised sweating and may present with other symptoms such as tachycardia and dilated pupils.

      Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that occurs in patients who have suffered a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 spinal level. It is caused by a reflex response triggered by various stimuli, such as faecal impaction or urinary retention, which sends signals through the thoracolumbar outflow. However, due to the spinal cord lesion, the usual parasympathetic response is prevented, leading to an unbalanced physiological response. This response is characterized by extreme hypertension, flushing, and sweating above the level of the cord lesion, as well as agitation. If left untreated, severe consequences such as haemorrhagic stroke can occur. The management of autonomic dysreflexia involves removing or controlling the stimulus and treating any life-threatening hypertension and/or bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 70 - A 6-year-old child presents clinically with mumps and has not been immunised.

    Which statement...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child presents clinically with mumps and has not been immunised.

      Which statement is true of notifiable diseases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Notification is a statutory duty

      Explanation:

      Disease Notification and Surveillance

      The notification of diseases has a long history, dating back to the great epidemics of the past. With improvements in hygiene and vaccination, infectious diseases have become less common, and many GP disease notification returns are inconsistent. However, it is still a legal obligation to report diseases. It is also essential that hospitals are informed of potential infectious diseases when patients are referred. The government uses various data sources for disease surveillance and increasingly relies on electronic data returns. Mumps remains a risk to unimmunised populations.

      Mumps: Epidemiology, Surveillance, and Control

      Mumps is a viral infection that can cause swelling of the salivary glands, fever, and headache. It is still a risk to unimmunised populations. To control the spread of mumps, it is essential to have effective epidemiology, surveillance, and control measures in place. This includes reporting cases to health authorities, monitoring outbreaks, and promoting vaccination. With the help of electronic data returns and other surveillance methods, it is possible to track the spread of mumps and take appropriate action to prevent further transmission. By working together, we can reduce the impact of mumps and other infectious diseases on our communities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 71 - Following NICE guidance, which one of the following patients should undergo screening for...

    Incorrect

    • Following NICE guidance, which one of the following patients should undergo screening for hereditary thrombophilia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 54-year-old woman with an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. Her sister was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism three years ago

      Explanation:

      The probability of an underlying hereditary thrombophilia is high in the 54-year-old woman who has an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis and a first-degree relative with the same condition.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 72 - A 32-year-old man presents for an insurance medical. He has no significant medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents for an insurance medical. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, his BMI is 23 kg/m2, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and auscultation of the heart reveals a mid-systolic click and a late systolic murmur (which are more pronounced when he stands up).
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mitral Valve Prolapse: Symptoms, Causes, and Associated Conditions

      Mitral valve prolapse is a condition where the leaflets of the mitral valve bulge in systole, affecting around 2-3% of the population. It can occur as an isolated entity or with heritable disorders of connective tissue. While most people are asymptomatic, some may experience symptoms such as anxiety, panic attacks, palpitations, syncope, or presyncope. The condition is also a risk factor for mitral regurgitation and carries a small risk of cerebral emboli and sudden death. Diagnosis is made through auscultation, with a mid-to-late systolic click and a late systolic murmur heard at the apex. Other heart conditions, such as atrial septal defect, aortic stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and mitral stenosis, have distinct murmurs that aid in diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 73 - Rohan is a 9-month-old baby who is brought in by his dad. He...

    Incorrect

    • Rohan is a 9-month-old baby who is brought in by his dad. He has developed an eczema type rash on his body and has more loose stools. His dad noticed these changes after he started weaning. Prior to this he was exclusively breastfed. On examination he is well, except for mild eczema. You suspect a diagnosis of cow's milk protein allergy.

      Which of the following milks could Rohan also be intolerant of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Soya milk

      Explanation:

      Babies with cow’s milk protein allergy may also have an intolerance to soya milk. The primary milk alternatives used for such babies are extensively hydrolysed formula and alpha amino acid formula. Oat and almond milk are not advised for babies with this allergy, although there is no evidence of any adverse reactions to them.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 74 - A 55 year-old man with haemophilia A has just become a grandfather. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year-old man with haemophilia A has just become a grandfather. He is curious about the likelihood of his grandson inheriting haemophilia. His daughter's partner is healthy and has no medical history.

      What is the probability of his grandson having haemophilia A?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 75 - A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.

      The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.

      The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 76 - A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal normal serum TSH concentration, but elevated concentrations of both free thyroxine and free triiodothyronine. What is the most probable explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A TSH-secreting pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hyperthyroidism with Normal TSH Levels

      Hyperthyroidism with normal TSH levels can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is a TSH-secreting pituitary tumour, which is a rare condition that can lead to excessive secretion of TSH and growth hormone. Another possible cause is self-administration of thyroxine, but this can be ruled out if TSH secretion is still suppressed. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, is less likely as it typically results in unmeasurable TSH concentrations. Heterophilic antibodies in the patient’s serum can cause bizarre results, but this is unlikely to be the cause in a patient with classic symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. Finally, thyroid hormone resistance (Refetoff syndrome) is a rare syndrome where thyroid hormone levels are elevated but TSH levels are not suppressed. However, this is unlikely if the patient is symptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 77 - A 37-year-old woman presents with new-onset facial weakness. She had been in excellent...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman presents with new-onset facial weakness. She had been in excellent health until last summer when, after a hiking trip, she noticed an expanding erythematous rash on her abdomen, ultimately about 8 inches in diameter and lasting about three weeks. This improved following treatment with an oral cephalosporin, but she developed six weeks of diffuse arthralgias and headaches.
      She has developed acute right facial paralysis, evolving over 24 hours, with retro auricular pain, hyperacusis and a decreased sense of taste. On examination, a complete, right lower motor neurone, seventh nerve palsy is noted.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Facial Paralysis and Other Symptoms After a Walking Holiday

      Facial paralysis is a common neurological manifestation of Lyme disease, which is a possible diagnosis for a patient with no specific history of tick bite but with a rash and arthralgias after a walking holiday. Sarcoidosis can also cause facial palsy but fits less well with the story. Bell’s palsy is consistent with a complete lower motor neurone seventh nerve palsy, hyperacusis, and retroarticular pain, but doesn’t explain the preceding symptoms. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by symptomatic neurological episodes that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations, which doesn’t fit with a single episode of seventh nerve palsy. Ramsay Hunt syndrome would cause pain and a vesicular eruption in and around the ear and the facial palsy but not the other features, and is unlikely without the characteristic rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 78 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset of left eye pain that has lasted for 10 hours. She mistakenly left her contact lenses in overnight and woke up with severe pain, sensitivity to light, and blurry vision. What is the most suitable treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levofloxacin 5mg/ml eye drops

      Explanation:

      Levofloxacin for Contact Lens Keratitis

      Levofloxacin is a type of fluoroquinolone antibiotic that is effective against gram negative bacteria. This makes it a suitable treatment option for contact lens keratitis, which is commonly caused by the gram negative bacteria pseudomonas aeruginosa. It is important to note that Chloramphenicol is not effective against this type of bacteria, so it should not be used as a treatment option.

      While dexamethasone may be used in conjunction with other treatments, it is not typically used as a standalone treatment for contact lens associated keratitis. Fusidic acid is more commonly used to treat staphylococcal infections, while propamidine isethionate is reserved for the rare form of contact lens keratitis caused by acanthamoeba.

      In summary, levofloxacin is a suitable treatment option for contact lens keratitis caused by gram negative bacteria such as pseudomonas aeruginosa. Other treatment options may be used in conjunction with levofloxacin, but it is important to choose the appropriate treatment based on the specific type of bacteria causing the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 79 - Which one of the following conditions is NOT an autosomal recessive condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following conditions is NOT an autosomal recessive condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Exceptions aside, metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, while structural conditions are usually inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. However, it should be noted that hereditary spherocytosis is an example of a condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.

      Autosomal recessive conditions are often referred to as metabolic conditions, while autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural. However, there are notable exceptions to this rule. For example, some metabolic conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD are X-linked recessive, while some structural conditions like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia are autosomal recessive.

      Autosomal recessive conditions occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. Some examples of autosomal recessive conditions include albinism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and Wilson’s disease. These conditions can affect various systems in the body, including metabolism, blood, and the nervous system. It is important to note that some conditions, such as Gilbert’s syndrome, are still a matter of debate and may be listed as autosomal dominant in some textbooks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 80 - A 78-year-old man presents at the clinic for follow-up of his heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents at the clinic for follow-up of his heart failure. He was referred by his GP through the rapid assessment pathway and has received the results of his recent Echocardiogram. The patient has a history of hypertension and an inferior myocardial infarction and is currently taking amlodipine and ramipril 5 mg. On examination, his BP is 150/82, his pulse is regular at 84 beats per minute, and there are bibasal crackles on chest auscultation, but no significant pitting edema is observed. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 132 g/L (135-177), white cell count of 9.3 ×109/L (4-11), platelet count of 179 ×109/L (150-400), sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level of 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine level of 124 μmol/L (79-118). The Echocardiogram shows no significant valvular disease, with an ejection fraction of 31%. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for his heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol 2.5 mg and titrate up the beta blocker and ramipril

      Explanation:

      Treatment Guidelines for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. According to the NICE guidelines on Chronic heart failure (NG106), combination therapy with a beta blocker licensed for the treatment of heart failure and an ACE inhibitor is recommended. The philosophy of start low and titrate up both therapies slowly in patients with a proven reduced ejection fraction is also emphasized.

      Carvedilol and bisoprolol are the two major beta blockers used for the treatment of cardiac failure, and both have well-characterized titration schedules. For second-line treatment, the addition of spironolactone at a low dose (25 mg) is recommended. In cases where patients are intolerant of both ACE inhibitors and ARBs, alternatives such as hydralazine combined with nitrate can be used.

      To follow the guidelines, it is recommended to add bisoprolol 2.5 mg and titrate up the beta blocker and ramipril. By following these guidelines, patients with chronic heart failure can receive the best possible care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 81 - A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of constant fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of constant fatigue and muscle weakness for the past 4 months. She has no significant medical history and is a non-smoker with a healthy weight. On examination, her blood pressure is found to be consistently high at 160/95 mmHg. However, there are no other significant findings on physical examination. Her blood sugar levels are normal, but her potassium levels are low at 3.4 mmol/L. The GP suspects primary hyperaldosteronism and plans to refer the patient to secondary care. What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone/renin ratio

      Explanation:

      The initial investigation for suspected primary hyperaldosteronism is a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio. A CT abdomen may be used to detect an adrenal adenoma, but it is not the first-line investigation. A dexamethasone suppression test is primarily used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome by observing cortisol level responses after dexamethasone injection. A short synacthen test is utilized to identify hypoadrenalism, such as Addison’s disease.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 82 - After a fall at home, a 75-year-old Caucasian male presents to his GP....

    Incorrect

    • After a fall at home, a 75-year-old Caucasian male presents to his GP. After a FRAX assessment, he is referred for a DEXA scan. The results of the scan are as follows:

      T score -2.25 > -1.0 = normal
      -1.0 to -2.5 = osteopaenia
      < -2.5 = osteoporosis
      Z score 0 < -2.0 = below the expected range for age
      > -2.0 = within the expected range for age

      For which of the following factors is the Z score adjusted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age, gender, ethnic factors

      Explanation:

      When analyzing DEXA scans, the Z score is modified to account for age, gender, and ethnicity, allowing for a comparison of an individual’s bone density to that of an average person with similar characteristics. Notably, the Z score remains unaffected by a person’s history of fractures or treatment with glucocorticoids.

      Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis

      When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 83 - A 25-year-old man comes to see you to discuss his father’s recent diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to see you to discuss his father’s recent diagnosis of Huntington’s disease. He is particularly concerned about the possibility that he could develop the disease himself, and that he could pass it on to his children.
      Select the single correct statement concerning Huntington's disease.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition is an autosomal dominant trait, giving a 50% risk of passing the disease on to children

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease: A Progressive Neurodegenerative Disorder

      Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a gene on chromosome 4. It can present at any age from 20 years to old age and is associated with cell loss in the basal ganglia and cortex. The disease is characterized by a distinct phenotype, including chorea and dystonia, incoordination, cognitive decline, and behavioral problems, ultimately leading to death.

      There is often a prodromal phase of mild psychotic and behavioral symptoms that can last up to 10 years before the development of chorea. Unfortunately, drug therapy has no effect on the progression of disability, and while hyperkinesia and psychiatric symptoms may respond to pharmacotherapy, neuropsychological deficits and dementia remain untreatable.

      Management of Huntington’s disease is supportive, and a predictive diagnosis is possible in offspring of affected individuals if they wish it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 84 - On reviewing the blood results of a 65-year-old patient, you note mild hypercalcaemia....

    Incorrect

    • On reviewing the blood results of a 65-year-old patient, you note mild hypercalcaemia. The full blood count, renal function, serum electrolytes, liver function tests and thyroid function tests were all normal. A subsequent repeat serum calcium shows persistence in the mild hypercalcaemia along with a raised parathyroid hormone. The patient is otherwise asymptomatic.

      Which of the following would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Managing Incidental Findings of Hypercalcaemia

      It is crucial to consider the differential diagnosis when an incidental finding of hypercalcaemia is discovered. Immediate hospital review is necessary for severe hypercalcaemia (>3.40mmol/L) or those with symptoms. Further investigations may be required for mild hypercalcaemia, depending on the clinical context, such as chest x-ray, serum and urine protein electrophoresis, and serum cortisol.

      NICE recommends referring patients suspected of having primary hyperparathyroidism to endocrinology. They will exclude other causes of hypercalcaemia and assess whether a parathyroidectomy is appropriate. Calcimimetic drug treatments and bisphosphonate therapy are potential treatments, but these would be considered in secondary care initially. A normal dietary intake of calcium is usually advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 85 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father. She has been experiencing nighttime itching around her bottom and has reported seeing small white strands in her stool. She is not experiencing constipation and is in good health otherwise. No one else in the household is experiencing similar symptoms. The girl lives with her father and her four-month-old brother.

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mebendazole and hygiene measures for the patient and his parents, as his sister is too young

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to treat asymptomatic household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they show no symptoms. In this case, the appropriate treatment would be Mebendazole and hygiene measures for the patient and his parents, but not for his three-month-old sister who is too young for the medication. While a sample can be sent to confirm the diagnosis, empirical treatment is appropriate in most cases. Advising on hygiene and fluid intake alone would not be sufficient to treat the threadworm infection. Permethrin is not a suitable treatment for threadworms, as it is used for scabies.

      Threadworms: A Common Infestation Among Children in the UK

      Infestation with threadworms, also known as pinworms, is a prevalent condition among children in the UK. The infestation occurs when individuals swallow eggs present in their environment. Although around 90% of cases are asymptomatic, some possible features include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls.

      Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The recommended management for threadworm infestation is a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is used as a first-line treatment for children over six months old, with a single dose given unless the infestation persists. By following these guidelines, individuals can effectively manage and prevent the spread of threadworms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 86 - A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her right hand that sometimes disturbs...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her right hand that sometimes disturbs her sleep at night. She usually shakes her hand to alleviate the symptoms, which disappear entirely. She has a history of uncontrolled type 2 diabetes and breast cancer.

      During the examination, there is no evidence of deformity or wasting, and she has good strength throughout her hand. The symptoms are reproduced by performing forced wrist flexion.

      What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wrist splinting

      Explanation:

      For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, conservative treatment with a wrist splint, with or without a steroid injection, should be attempted first. In this case, the woman’s symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome and therefore, first-line management should involve conservative treatment before symptoms worsen. While amitriptyline may be useful for neuropathic pain, it is not the appropriate treatment in this case. Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs may be suitable for osteoarthritis involving the hands, but this presentation doesn’t suggest osteoarthritis. Surgical decompression may be necessary if symptoms worsen, but it is not the first-line treatment for mild-moderate symptoms. While a steroid injection may be appropriate when used in conjunction with wrist splinting, it is not typically the first-line treatment.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 87 - What is the most common association with acute pancreatitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common association with acute pancreatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Acute Pancreatitis: Causes and Risk Factors

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that can be caused by various factors. Certain drugs, such as azathioprine, can increase the risk of developing acute pancreatitis. Gallstones are also a common cause, and can be identified by the presence of Cullen’s sign (periumbilical darkening) or Gray-Turner’s sign (flank darkening). Infections like mumps and Coxsackie B can also lead to acute pancreatitis. Smoking and scorpion bites are other risk factors, with smoking having a synergistic effect when combined with high alcohol intake. Despite the various causes, most single acute episodes of pancreatitis result in uncomplicated recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 88 - A 25-year-old woman has just failed her medical for a career as a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has just failed her medical for a career as a graphic designer because of previously undiagnosed red-green colour blindness. She has been told that she has inherited this from her parents and feels that it is their fault that she has been barred from her chosen career.

      Which one of the following statements is true regarding the cause of red-green colour blindness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red-green colour blindness is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait

      Explanation:

      Understanding Red-Green Colour Blindness: Causes, Prevalence, and Implications for Driving and Employment

      Red-green colour blindness is the most common type of colour vision deficiency, affecting 8% of men and 0.4% of women. This condition is usually congenital and inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. While less common forms of colour blindness are acquired and associated with macular disease, red-green colour blindness is often present from birth.

      To assess red-green colour vision, Ishihara plates are commonly used as a screening tool. It is important to test colour vision in suspected optic nerve lesions and thyroid eye disease, as colour vision can be affected before visual acuity is impacted.

      While the DVLA need not be informed of red-green colour blindness, certain occupations may exclude individuals with this condition. However, driving is generally not limited as traffic lights can be distinguished by their position.

      Understanding the causes, prevalence, and implications of red-green colour blindness is important for individuals with this condition and their healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 89 - A 65-year-old man comes in for a blood pressure check. His at-home readings...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in for a blood pressure check. His at-home readings have consistently been high at 155/94 mmHg. He reports feeling fine. He is currently on the maximum dose of amlodipine. An echocardiogram done recently showed moderate to severe aortic stenosis.

      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add indapamide and review urea and electrolytes and blood pressure in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to prescribe ACE inhibitors to patients with moderate-severe aortic stenosis, making ramipril an inappropriate choice. Similarly, angiotensin-II receptor blockers like losartan are also contraindicated. Furosemide is not indicated for hypertension treatment. According to NICE CKS guidance, a combination of thiazide-like diuretics and calcium channel blockers is recommended, making indapamide a suitable alternative to ramipril and losartan. Digoxin has no role in hypertension treatment in this case.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 90 - A 65-year-old gentleman presents for a medication review. He is currently on sildenafil...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman presents for a medication review. He is currently on sildenafil for erectile dysfunction and has a longstanding history of stable angina. Which of the following medications should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carvedilol

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil: A Treatment for Impotence

      Sildenafil is a well-established treatment for impotence that works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase type 5, which produces cavernous venodilation and erections in appropriately stimulated patients. It is important to note that sildenafil doesn’t increase sex drive or libido.

      While sildenafil is not contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, it is contraindicated in subjects taking nitrates due to the potential for severe hypotension. Additionally, drugs like nicorandil are inadvisable due to the nitrate component.

      Common side effects of sildenafil include flushing, which develops in the majority of patients, as well as nasal congestion and blue visual discolouration. It is important to discuss any potential risks and benefits of sildenafil with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 91 - You see a 32-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with Crohn's disease....

    Incorrect

    • You see a 32-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with Crohn's disease. He presented with frequent and loose stools, with occasional blood and mucous. He is otherwise fit and well. His only other past medical history is appendicitis as a 16-year-old.

      He has been reviewed by a gastroenterologist and is on a reducing dose of corticosteroid.

      Can you provide him with more information about Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of Crohn's disease increases early after an appendicectomy

      Explanation:

      Smoking increases the likelihood of developing Crohn’s disease.

      Experiencing infectious gastroenteritis raises the risk of developing Crohn’s disease by four times, especially within the first year.

      The chances of developing Crohn’s disease are higher in the early stages after having an appendicectomy.

      Crohn’s disease affects both genders equally, with no significant difference in occurrence rates.

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 92 - A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats and subside abruptly after he finishes eating. They are not accompanied by chest pain, but, on occasion, he also feels lightheaded. He has no reflux symptoms or dyspepsia. He is otherwise well and on presentation his blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, his pulse is in sinus rhythm, and examination of his heart and abdomen are normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
      What is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hour portable electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Explanation:

      The Most Appropriate Investigation for Palpitations and Dizziness: A Cardiac Investigation

      When a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac cause is often suspected. While the association with food may be a red herring, the combination of symptoms suggests a need for further investigation. An ECG or examination of the pulse may not reveal an underlying cause unless the patient is experiencing symptoms at that exact moment. Therefore, a 24 hour portable ECG is often recommended to assess the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.

      A chest X-ray is unlikely to be helpful in the absence of chest pain or respiratory symptoms. Similarly, an endoscopy may be indicated for dyspeptic symptoms, but the history of palpitations and dizziness suggests a cardiac cause. H. pylori testing is only relevant for dyspeptic symptoms, and thyroid function tests are important for anyone experiencing palpitations, as hyperthyroidism can be a cause.

      In summary, when a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac investigation is the most appropriate first step. A 24 hour portable ECG can provide valuable information about the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 93 - A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with symptoms of acute sinusitis. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with symptoms of acute sinusitis. He had a severe cold 10 days ago and thought he was recovering, but now has pain over his left cheek and a purulent nasal discharge, more pronounced from the left nostril. On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C and is tender when pressure is applied over the left maxilla. As he is feeling unwell, you decide to prescribe antibiotics, but he has a penicillin allergy. What would be your approach to treating this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline for 5 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Acute Sinusitis

      Some important points to consider when treating acute sinusitis with antibiotics include the choice and duration of treatment. It is important to note that NICE CKS doesn’t recommend antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated acute sinusitis lasting 10 days or less. However, if antibiotic treatment is deemed appropriate, it is crucial to be familiar with the options available.

      For patients who are not allergic to penicillin, a 5-day course of Phenoxymethylpenicillin is the first choice. However, if the patient is allergic to penicillin, the options are limited to a 5-day course of doxycycline or a 7-day course of Clarithromycin. It is important to read the question carefully and take note of any allergies mentioned in the vignette.

      In summary, when considering antibiotic treatment for acute sinusitis, it is important to follow NICE CKS guidelines and be aware of the appropriate choice and duration of treatment based on the patient’s allergy status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 94 - Samantha is a 7-year-old girl who has presented with impacted earwax which has...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 7-year-old girl who has presented with impacted earwax which has failed to improve with olive oil drops. Ear irrigation has been recommended.

      Which of the following would be a contraindication to this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grommets in situ

      Explanation:

      Ear irrigation should not be performed on patients with grommets as it is a contraindication. Additionally, individuals who have had otitis media within the past 6 weeks should also avoid ear irrigation. However, there are no other listed conditions that would prevent someone from undergoing this procedure.

      Understanding earwax and Its Impacts

      earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 95 - You are reviewing a study that is comparing a new flu vaccine against...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a study that is comparing a new flu vaccine against a regular vaccine currently prescribed. The study aims to determine if the new vaccine reduces the number of people getting the flu over a year. The results show 100 people got the flu out of 500 people on the regular vaccine and 50 people got the flu out of 500 people on the new vaccine.

      What is the relative risk reduction in this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      The formula for relative risk reduction is (EER – CER) / CER, where EER is the experimental event rate and CER is the control event rate. To calculate the relative risk reduction, subtract the control event rate from the experimental event rate, then divide the result by the control event rate.

      For example, if the experimental event rate is 20 out of 100 and the control event rate is 50 out of 100, the relative risk reduction would be (20/100 – 50/100) / 50/100 = 0.6.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 96 - One of the nurses at your hospital sustains a needlestick injury while administering...

    Incorrect

    • One of the nurses at your hospital sustains a needlestick injury while administering medication to a patient.

      What is the single, most appropriate, immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wash the wound with soap under running water

      Explanation:

      First Line Management of Needlestick Injuries

      First line management of needlestick injuries involves immediate washing of the affected area under running water. It is important to report all incidents to the occupational health department and undergo a careful risk assessment. If the donor is known to be hepatitis B positive and the victim is non-immune, HBIG is given. However, antiretroviral therapy is only given after counselling if the donor is known to be HIV positive and the exposure is deemed high risk. By following these guidelines, the risk of infection can be minimized and appropriate treatment can be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
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  • Question 97 - You receive a call regarding a patient's potassium level:

    K+ 6.3 mmol/l

    Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call regarding a patient's potassium level:

      K+ 6.3 mmol/l

      Which of the following options would not account for this result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.

      There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.

      It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 98 - A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of his illicit opioid use, it becomes apparent that he is extremely anxious about quitting drugs completely but is interested in attempting a maintenance program. He also abuses alcohol and consumes up to 40 units per week. He has been referred to a community treatment program to assist with his decreased use of drugs and alcohol.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer a harm-reduction programme but advise that complete detoxification remains the goal of treatment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Substance Abuse

      Substance abuse can have harmful effects on a person’s health, and reducing the use of alcohol and illicit drugs is an appropriate treatment goal. While maintenance can be an important step towards detoxification and abstinence, complete detoxification should always be the main goal of a reduction programme. It is important to discuss this with the patient when treatment is commenced.

      When it comes to opioid reduction, it is recommended to achieve complete detoxification from alcohol before attempting to reduce opioid use. Withdrawal effects can be managed with appropriate medical care, and patients should not be penalised for using illicit substances. However, it is important to discuss the impact of continued drug use on the treatment programme.

      While there doesn’t need to be a strict timeline imposed at the start of treatment, it is important to work towards reducing drug and alcohol use. Buprenorphine and methadone are both recommended for substitute prescribing, but methadone is typically prescribed as the first choice. The choice of drug may depend on patient preference or experience with the medication. Overall, the goal of treatment should be to achieve complete detoxification and abstinence from substance abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 99 - A 45-year-old male with type 1 diabetes has been diagnosed with microalbuminuria during...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male with type 1 diabetes has been diagnosed with microalbuminuria during his yearly check-up. He is aware of other patients with type 1 diabetes who have developed renal failure and required dialysis a few years after being diagnosed with nephropathy. When examining his vascular risk profile, which parameter is most likely to decrease the risk of future renal failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Managing Nephropathy Progression

      Tight control of blood pressure and glucose levels is crucial in managing the progression of nephropathy. The recommended target for systolic blood pressure is 130 or less, while the HbA1c target should be less than 53 mmol/mol. Although BMI, diastolic blood pressure, and cholesterol are relevant factors, they are less significant compared to blood pressure and glucose control.

      Among all antihypertensives, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) have the strongest evidence for reducing nephropathy progression. Therefore, it is important to prioritize these medications in the management of nephropathy. Proper management of blood pressure and glucose levels, along with the use of ACE inhibitors and ARBs, can significantly slow down the progression of nephropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 100 - A 42-year-old woman presents to you seeking advice. She had the Mirena coil...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to you seeking advice. She had the Mirena coil inserted for contraception 3 years ago and has been amenorrhoeic since then. She wants to know how long she can leave the Mirena in place and when it will need to be replaced.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding the Mirena coil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It should be reviewed every 2 years

      Explanation:

      Annual Assessments for Women on Contraceptives

      Women who use the combined contraceptive pill or the progesterone only pill should undergo an annual medical assessment to check for any new health issues. For those using the Depo-Provera injection, a review should be conducted every two years to evaluate the risks and benefits of the treatment.

      The Mirena, an intrauterine device, can be used for up to seven years (off licence) if inserted when a woman is 45 years or older and if the patient is comfortable with their bleeding patterns. If a woman remains amenorrhoeic after seven years of use, the device can remain in place until menopause. Similarly, a copper coil inserted at the age of 40 years or over can be kept until menopause.

      Regular assessments and reviews are crucial to ensure that women are receiving the most appropriate and effective contraceptive treatment for their individual needs. By staying up-to-date with their health status and treatment options, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health and overall well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 101 - A 7-year-old boy is seen complaining of verrucas.
    Which of the following statements about...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is seen complaining of verrucas.
      Which of the following statements about treatment of verrucas is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Untreated verrucas often resolve spontaneously

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatments for Plantar Warts: A Guide

      Plantar warts, also known as verrucas, are notoriously difficult to treat due to their thick cornified layer. This layer makes it harder for treatments to penetrate to the lower epidermis, resulting in lower cure rates compared to other skin warts. However, there are several effective treatments available.

      First-line treatment for plantar warts is over-the-counter salicylic acid. While this treatment can turn the affected area white and cause soreness, it is often effective. Paring the wart before treatment may also help. Glutaraldehyde is another effective option, but it may turn the skin brown and cause sensitization.

      Cryotherapy is a second-line treatment that involves freezing the wart with liquid nitrogen. However, multiple cycles may be needed for it to be effective. Reported cure rates vary widely.

      For more aggressive treatment, salicylic acid and/or cryotherapy can be used with more intensive regimens. However, caution is needed as these treatments can have worse side effects.

      Surgery and bleomycin are not typically used for plantar warts. Instead, the British Association of Dermatologists recommends several other treatments with some evidence base, including dithranol, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), formaldehyde, laser, photodynamic therapy, topical immunotherapy, and podophyllotoxin.

      In conclusion, while plantar warts can be challenging to treat, there are several effective options available. Consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for your individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 102 - You are assessing a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica and is undergoing treatment. She has been taking a gradually decreasing dose of prednisolone for the past 2 months. Currently, she is on a daily dose of 30 mg prednisolone, with a plan to decrease by 5mg each week. Although her symptoms are under control, she is concerned about the possibility of developing osteoporosis and asks if she should be on any medication for this. She has no history of fractures and no other risk factors for osteoporosis.

      What advice would you give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calculate the 10 year fragility fracture risk score to guide further investigation and treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who take the equivalent of 7.5mg prednisolone daily for 3 months or more are at risk of developing osteoporosis and require bone protection. In this case, the patient has already been on a higher dose of prednisolone for the past 2 months and will continue treatment for at least another 6 weeks, making her susceptible to osteoporosis. Therefore, it is crucial to evaluate her 10-year fragility fracture risk score. Abruptly reducing or stopping the prednisolone could be hazardous. While ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake is essential, the patient needs a comprehensive risk assessment and consideration of bisphosphonate therapy while still on steroids.

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 103 - What parameter is the GP measuring by asking 100 randomly selected patients from...

    Incorrect

    • What parameter is the GP measuring by asking 100 randomly selected patients from his patient list if they are currently experiencing symptoms of eczema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Point prevalence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epidemiological Measures: Point Prevalence, Incidence Rate, Cumulative Incidence, Incidence Proportion, and Period Prevalence

      Epidemiological measures are essential in determining the prevalence and incidence of diseases in a population. Among the commonly used measures are point prevalence, incidence rate, cumulative incidence, incidence proportion, and period prevalence.

      Point prevalence refers to the proportion of people with a particular disease at a specific time point. For instance, a doctor may send a questionnaire to determine the number of people suffering from a disease at a particular time, and the data collected can be used to determine the point prevalence.

      Incidence rate, on the other hand, refers to the rate at which a new event occurs over a specified period. For example, the number of new cases of a disease in a population over a year.

      Cumulative incidence is another term for incidence proportion, which refers to the number of new cases in a population during a specified time period.

      Incidence proportion is similar to cumulative incidence, but it only considers new cases in a population during a specified time period.

      Period prevalence, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of people with a particular disease during a given time period.

      Understanding these epidemiological measures is crucial in determining the prevalence and incidence of diseases in a population, which can help in developing effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 104 - A 45-year-old patient presents with a 36-hour history of varicella zoster in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with a 36-hour history of varicella zoster in the T4 dermatome. She complains of severe pain in the skin supplied by T4.

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for herpes zoster

      Aciclovir and famciclovir are effective medications for treating herpes zoster, reducing the time to healing and associated pain. Aciclovir is the most cost-effective option as it is now available as a generic medication. Early use of steroids can also reduce the amount of analgesia required and the length of illness.

      A clinical review published in the BMJ emphasized the importance of appropriate treatment for herpes zoster to control acute symptoms and reduce the risk of longer-term complications. NICE updated their guidance in 2010, recommending amitriptyline or pregabalin as first-line treatments for post-herpetic neuralgia. CKS also issued guidance, which is generally in line with NICE, but they caution against using carbamazepine due to potential serious adverse effects and lack of a license for primary care treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 105 - You are checking your mail before the start of morning surgery, and receive...

    Incorrect

    • You are checking your mail before the start of morning surgery, and receive a letter from a firm of solicitors informing you that you are being sued for negligence following the recent death of a patient of yours who died from mesothelioma. According to the letter, his son claims you failed to diagnose the condition until it was too late, and that he died as a result of your incompetence.

      You review the notes of the deceased, a retired plumber in his 60s, and see that he came to see you three times over a period of six months for vague chest pains and coughs. You remember that when you finally arranged a chest x ray, the diagnosis was a complete surprise to you.

      You plan to call your medical defence organisation for further advice, but based on what you know, how concerned should you be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You need to start thinking about how you can prove that you did not act negligently in diagnosing the deceased's mesothelioma, and in the way you treated him after diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Medico-Legal Issues for GPs

      All GPs must have a good understanding of medico-legal issues to avoid negligence claims. To win a case for negligence, the complainant must prove that the doctor owed them a duty of care, failed in that duty, and caused harm. The burden of proof is on the person making the claim. The first limb of the test is usually obvious if the patient is under the doctor’s care. The second limb requires that the doctor exercised reasonable care and skill, according to the Bolam test. The third limb requires that the doctor’s treatment was the cause or a major contributor to the harm.

      In this case, it is unlikely that the patient’s daughter’s case would succeed, as the mesothelioma diagnosis would not have changed the outcome. However, it is important to discuss the case with a medical defence organisation. It is crucial to never alter records under any circumstances, as dishonesty can lead to a loss of reputation and being considered unfit for practice. By understanding medico-legal issues, GPs can provide better care and avoid negligence claims.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 106 - John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged for a routine DEXA scan. The DEXA results are as follows:

      Spine (L2-4) T: -2.6 Z: -1.7
      Left femur T: -1.5 Z: -0.9
      Right femur T: -2.3 Z: -1.5

      What is your interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The results of the DEXA scan show that the spine has osteoporosis with a T-score below -2.5, while the left and right femur have osteopenia with T-scores between -1 and -2.5. It is important to note that osteoporosis is diagnosed when the T-score is below -2.5, while osteopenia is diagnosed when the T-score is between -1 and -2.5. The z score takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, but the T score is used to determine the presence of osteoporosis and osteopenia.

      Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis

      When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 107 - What is the main diagnostic core symptom of depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main diagnostic core symptom of depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fatigue or loss of energy

      Explanation:

      Core Symptoms of Depression

      Depression is a mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the defining characteristics of depression is the presence of core symptoms that are present for more than two weeks. These core symptoms include persistent feelings of sadness or hopelessness, as well as a marked loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable.

      It’s important to note that while there are other symptoms of depression, such as changes in appetite or sleep patterns, these are classified as other symptoms and are not considered core symptoms. This means that someone may experience these symptoms without necessarily meeting the criteria for a diagnosis of depression.

      If you or someone you know is experiencing persistent feelings of sadness or loss of interest in activities, it’s important to seek help from a mental health professional. Depression is a treatable condition, and with the right support, individuals can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 108 - A 23 year old female presents for a routine contraception pill check. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old female presents for a routine contraception pill check. She has been taking co-cyprindiol for the past year. Her blood pressure and BMI are normal, she doesn't smoke, and has no personal or family history of stroke, venous thromboembolism, or migraine. She previously had acne but reports it has been clear for the past 4 months and wishes to continue on the same pill. She is in a committed relationship. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discontinue co-cyprindiol and change to standard combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      The MHRA recommends discontinuing co-cyprindiol (Dianette) 3-4 cycles after acne has cleared due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. It should not be used solely for contraception. However, the patient still requires contraception, and a combined pill may offer better contraceptive coverage than a progesterone-only pill, while also providing some benefit for her skin. Other contraceptive options should also be considered.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 109 - You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day history of dysuria and frequency of urination. There is no reported visible haematuria. He has no history of urinary tract infections, however, he does report longstanding problems with poor urinary stream, hesitancy of urination, and nocturia.

      Clinical examination of his abdomen and loins is unremarkable and he has no fever or systemic upset.

      Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites positive
      leucocytes ++
      protein ++
      blood ++.

      You diagnose a urinary tract infection, send a urine sample to the laboratory for analysis, and treat him with a course of antibiotics.

      You go on to chat about his more longstanding lower urinary tract symptoms. Following this discussion, he is keen to have a rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. Digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign feeling prostate.

      Two days later, the laboratory urine results return confirming a urinary tract infection.

      When is the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The test can be performed any time from now

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test

      The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, or ejaculation.

      It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if the person has recently ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the past 48 hours, the test should also be postponed. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, studies have shown that rectal examination has minimal impact on PSA levels.

      In summary, several factors can affect the results of the PSA blood test, and it is crucial to consider these factors before interpreting the test results accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 110 - You see a 66-year-old gentleman with a past history of rheumatoid arthritis for...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 66-year-old gentleman with a past history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he is receiving treatment with a disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD).

      He has progressively developed marked shortness of breath and a dry cough. You send him for an urgent chest x ray which is reported as showing interstitial infiltrates bilaterally in keeping with pulmonary fibrosis.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely a cause for his respiratory symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      DMARDs and Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Many GP practices have a shared care relationship with rheumatologists to monitor and prescribe DMARDs for patients with rheumatoid arthritis. GPs involved in this care need to be knowledgeable about DMARD monitoring protocols and potential adverse effects. One such effect is pulmonary fibrosis, which can be caused by several DMARDs, including methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, sulphasalazine, and gold. Methotrexate is particularly well-known for causing lung fibrosis and interstitial pneumonitis, as well as blood dyscrasias and hepatic toxicity. Patients on methotrexate should be advised to seek medical attention if they experience dyspnoea, cough, or fever. It is important for GPs to be aware of these potential side-effects and to monitor patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 111 - A 25-year-old patient with psoriasis presents with thick adherent scale on their torso....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient with psoriasis presents with thick adherent scale on their torso.

      You decide to treat with topical therapy.

      Which of the following formulations would be most appropriate for treating this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ointment

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Topical Treatment in Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects millions of people worldwide. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on topical treatment for psoriasis. These guidelines take into account the patient’s preference and recommend the following:

      – For widespread psoriasis, use cream, lotion, or gel.
      – For scalp or hair-bearing areas, use a solution, lotion, or gel.
      – For thick adherent scale, use an ointment.

      It is important to note that these recommendations are not set in stone and may vary depending on the severity of the condition and the patient’s individual needs. Therefore, it is essential to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any treatment. By following these guidelines, patients can effectively manage their psoriasis symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 112 - A 10-year-old student sustains a needlestick injury that breaks the skin and causes...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old student sustains a needlestick injury that breaks the skin and causes bleeding whilst doing a science experiment in class.

      Which of the following would form part of the most appropriate advice regarding the immediate first aid steps that should be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid encouraging the wound to bleed

      Explanation:

      First Aid for Needlestick Injuries in Primary Care

      Immediate first aid knowledge is crucial in managing needlestick injuries, especially in primary care where procedures like venepuncture and minor surgery are frequently performed. It is important to have a clear local policy on the management of needlestick injuries that is accessible to healthcare professionals.

      In case of a needlestick injury, the first step is to encourage the wound to bleed and wash it with soap and water. It is important not to suck the wound or apply antiseptic agents as there is no evidence for their use or efficacy. The wound should also not be scrubbed with an abrasive. A simple waterproof plaster or dressing is appropriate to cover the wound. These measures may seem like common sense, but they should be part of any needlestick injury guidance or protocol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 113 - A 15-year-old boy who is active in sports comes to you for consultation...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy who is active in sports comes to you for consultation after seeing your colleague 4 weeks ago due to right knee pain. He plays basketball and had a fall during a game 6 weeks ago. Despite the initial consultation, his pain has not subsided and he experiences discomfort at night, which affects his sleep. During the examination, you detect a solid, immovable lump on his distal femur. What would be the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent XR of right knee (within 48 hours)

      Explanation:

      When an adolescent experiences persistent night time pain and has a palpable bony mass, it is important to consider the possibility of a bone tumour until proven otherwise. The NICE guidelines for childhood cancer recommend obtaining an urgent X-ray within 48 hours for suspected sarcoma. Referring the patient to physiotherapy or providing reassurance is not appropriate as it doesn’t address the concerning symptoms. Ultrasound is not the most suitable imaging modality for bone pain and swelling. Urgent outpatient orthopaedic referral is also not the correct answer as it may cause delays in further investigation and management.

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 114 - A multicentre trial was carried out in General Practice to test the effectiveness...

    Incorrect

    • A multicentre trial was carried out in General Practice to test the effectiveness of a new oral preparation for moderate and severe acne vulgaris (defined as Leeds grade 3 or above) in adolescents. It was a blinded, randomised controlled trial. Matched controls were given oxytetracycline. A total of 200 adolescent patients were recruited into each arm of the trial. After six months, the results for the new drug, as measured by improvement in acne grade, were significantly better than for oxytetracycline. Of adolescent patients taking the new drug, 40% completed the 6-month trial, compared with 56% of adolescent patients taking oxytetracycline.
      Which of the following is the most likely source of bias in this trial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients dropping out of the trial

      Explanation:

      Potential Sources of Bias in a Clinical Trial Comparing Two Acne Treatments

      Clinical trials are essential in determining the safety and efficacy of new treatments. However, bias can be introduced into the study design, potentially affecting the validity of the results. In a clinical trial comparing two acne treatments, several potential sources of bias should be considered.

      Patients dropping out of the trial can introduce bias, as those who do not complete the study may have different characteristics or outcomes than those who do. This can be especially problematic if there are different dropout rates in the intervention and comparison groups. Measures such as intention-to-treat analysis can help minimize this bias.

      Recall bias, which occurs when participants have different recollections of past events or experiences, is not likely to be an issue in this trial. However, bias due to confounders, such as other acne treatments or lifestyle habits, could be introduced. Matching the two arms of the trial can help minimize this bias.

      Lack of power, or the study’s ability to detect a difference or association, can also be a potential source of bias. The sample size of 200 patients in each arm of the trial is not small, but without information on whether a statistical power calculation was done, this could still be a concern.

      Finally, observer bias can occur if researchers grading the outcome do not make accurate assessments. Using a validated scale and providing training can help minimize this potential source of bias.

      Overall, it is important to consider and address potential sources of bias in clinical trials to ensure the validity of the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 115 - A 38-year-old female presents with an acute illness. She reports experiencing a fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female presents with an acute illness. She reports experiencing a fever, malaise, and a sore throat. She has a medical history of asthma, hyperthyroidism, and migraines. Her current medications include salbutamol inhaled as needed, sumatriptan 50 mg as needed, carbimazole 40 mg daily, and Cerazette 75 mcg daily. What blood tests should be ordered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver function

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole and Infection Risk

      Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis by blocking the iodination of thyroid hormone. However, patients taking carbimazole should be aware of the potential risk of infection, particularly sore throat, and report any symptoms or signs of infection to their healthcare provider. This is because carbimazole can cause bone marrow suppression, which can lead to agranulocytosis, a rare but serious adverse effect.

      If a patient on carbimazole presents with an acute illness consisting of fever, malaise, and sore throat, a full blood count should be performed to assess the white blood cell count and differential. If neutropenia is found, carbimazole should be stopped immediately. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients taking carbimazole for signs of infection and to take appropriate action if necessary to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 116 - Sadia is a 32-year-old woman who has come with complaints of cyclical breast...

    Incorrect

    • Sadia is a 32-year-old woman who has come with complaints of cyclical breast pain. What would be the initial recommended course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A supportive bra

      Explanation:

      The initial approach to treating cyclical mastalgia involves a supportive bra and basic pain relief measures like paracetamol, ibuprofen, or topical NSAIDs. Codeine is not the preferred first-line option. The evidence is inadequate to suggest reducing caffeine intake or using the progestogen-only pill. A systematic review revealed that evening primrose oil is not superior to placebo.

      Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 117 - A 72-year-old man with end-stage lung cancer is being evaluated. He is presently...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with end-stage lung cancer is being evaluated. He is presently on MST 60 mg bd to manage his pain. Due to his inability to take oral medications, it has been decided to initiate a syringe driver. What would be the appropriate dosage of diamorphine to prescribe for the syringe driver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40 mg

      Explanation:

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 118 - An academic researcher is investigating the efficacy of a new treatment for elderly...

    Incorrect

    • An academic researcher is investigating the efficacy of a new treatment for elderly patients with osteoporosis. Prior to commencing her own study, she intends to conduct a meta-analysis to consolidate existing findings on the subject. As part of her meta-analysis, she must evaluate whether publication bias exists in the literature.

      What is the most effective method for the researcher to detect this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      The forest plot and Kaplan-Meier curve in the report are not appropriate for the data presented. The forest plot is typically used in meta-analyses to display the weight and confidence intervals of individual studies and the overall results. The Kaplan-Meier curve is commonly used to show the data of a single survival analysis study. Instead, the report should include appropriate graphs or charts that clearly display the confidence intervals for the data.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 119 - A 23-year-old woman contacts her doctor to request a referral for antenatal care....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman contacts her doctor to request a referral for antenatal care. She has been attempting to conceive for the past year and has recently received a positive pregnancy test result. Her LMP was 5 weeks ago, which prompted her to take the test. The patient is in good health with no pre-existing medical conditions, doesn't smoke, and abstains from alcohol. Her BMI is 34 kg/m².

      What is the advised folic acid consumption for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5mg daily, continue until end of 1st trimester

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have a BMI of 30 kg/m² or higher should be given a daily dose of 5mg folic acid until the 13th week of pregnancy. Folic acid is crucial during the first trimester to prevent neural tube defects (NTD). While most pregnant women require 400mcg of folic acid daily during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, those with a BMI of over 30 kg/m² need a higher dose.

      Apart from women with a BMI of over 30 kg/m², those with diabetes, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD should also be prescribed a daily dose of 5mg folic acid. It is recommended to start taking folic acid while trying to conceive to further reduce the risk of NTD.

      In addition to folic acid, NICE advises all pregnant women to take 10mcg (400 units) of vitamin D daily throughout their pregnancy. This should be continued until the end of their pregnancy.

      Pregnancy and Obesity: Risks and Management

      Obesity during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the unborn child. A woman is considered obese if her body mass index (BMI) is equal to or greater than 30 kg/m² at the first antenatal visit. Maternal risks include miscarriage, venous thromboembolism, gestational diabetes, pre-eclampsia, dysfunctional labour, induced labour, postpartum haemorrhage, wound infections, and a higher rate of caesarean section. Fetal risks include congenital anomaly, prematurity, macrosomia, stillbirth, increased risk of developing obesity and metabolic disorders in childhood, and neonatal death.

      It is important to note that women with a BMI of 30 or more should not try to reduce the risk by dieting while pregnant. Instead, health professionals caring for them during their pregnancy will manage the risk. At the booking appointment, women with a BMI of 30 or more should be informed of the risks to their health and the health of their unborn child.

      Management of obesity during pregnancy includes taking 5mg of folic acid instead of 400mcg, screening for gestational diabetes with an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks, giving birth in a consultant-led obstetric unit if the BMI is equal to or greater than 35 kg/m², and having an antenatal consultation with an obstetric anaesthetist and a plan made if the BMI is equal to or greater than 40 kg/m². By managing the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy, both the mother and the unborn child can have a healthier outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 120 - An 80-year-old man who lives alone is evaluated. He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who lives alone is evaluated. He has a history of dementia. His neighbors are becoming worried about his behavior as they frequently observe him wandering outside in a seemingly disoriented state. You believe he may require a care package or residential care, but he adamantly refuses to consider such an option. Which legal framework is the most suitable for addressing this matter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mental Capacity Act

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate legal framework to use for non-mental health disorders is the Mental Capacity Act. This act, which was established in 2005 and implemented in 2007, applies to individuals over the age of 16 and outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity encompasses the ability to make decisions regarding daily life, healthcare, and financial matters.

      The Mental Capacity Act is based on five key principles. Firstly, a person is assumed to have capacity unless it is proven otherwise. Secondly, a person should not be considered unable to make a decision unless all possible steps have been taken to assist them in doing so. Thirdly, a person should not be deemed incapable of making a decision simply because they make an unwise choice. Fourthly, any action or decision made on behalf of a person who lacks capacity must be in their best interests. Finally, before any action or decision is taken, consideration must be given to whether there is a less restrictive way to achieve the desired outcome that respects the person’s rights and freedom.

      When patients lack capacity, they are typically treated without issue. However, problems arise when these patients refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest. In such cases, there are three frameworks that can be used: common law for emergency scenarios, the Mental Capacity Act for physical disorders affecting brain function, and the Mental Health Act for mental disorders. For patients already admitted to hospital, a section 5(2) may be used if there is not enough time for a more formal section 2 or 3. An example of this would be a patient with a mental health disorder attempting to discharge themselves, which could result in harm. For a more detailed review, the BMJ article When and how to treat patients who refuse treatment provides an excellent resource.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 121 - A 45-year-old lady comes to see you regarding her copper intrauterine device (Cu-IUD)....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old lady comes to see you regarding her copper intrauterine device (Cu-IUD). The device contains >300 mm² of copper. She had it inserted 2 years ago and would like to know how long it can be used for before it needs removing.

      What sentence below is correct regarding removing the Cu-IUD and this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Cu-IUD can remain in situ until 1 year after the last menstrual period (LMP) if it occurs when the woman is 50 or older

      Explanation:

      The copper IUD can be used until menopause if inserted at age 40 or over, according to the FSRH. It can remain in place for 1 year after the last menstrual period if the woman is over 50, or 2 years if she is under 50. It should not be left in place indefinitely due to the risk of infection.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 122 - Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about in Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)

      The Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI) is a commonly used tool to evaluate the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It consists of 10 questions, each scored out of 3, with a maximum score of 30. The higher the score, the more significant the impact on the patient’s quality of life. The DLQI covers six areas, including symptoms and feelings, daily activities, leisure, work and school, personal relationships, and treatment.

      The DLQI questions are designed to assess the level of discomfort, embarrassment, and interference with daily activities caused by the skin condition. Patients are asked to rate the severity of symptoms such as itchiness, soreness, and pain, as well as the impact on social and leisure activities, work or study, and personal relationships. The DLQI also evaluates the impact of treatment on the patient’s life.

      Interpreting the DLQI scores is straightforward. A score of 0-1 indicates no effect on the patient’s life, while a score of 2-5 suggests a small impact. A score of 6-10 indicates a moderate effect, while a score of 11-20 suggests a very large impact. A score of 21-30 indicates an extremely large impact on the patient’s life.

      In summary, the DLQI is a quick and easy tool to assess the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It provides valuable information to healthcare professionals to tailor treatment plans and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 123 - A 58-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision that have been present for two days. He has been taking amlodipine 5 mg, which was prescribed at the same clinic two weeks ago. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 190/115 mmHg. Although his cardiovascular examination is unremarkable, retinal hemorrhages are observed during fundoscopy, but no papilledema is present. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent specialist care on the same day

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Referral to Specialist Care for Hypertension

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with accelerated hypertension or suspected phaeochromocytoma should be referred to specialist care on the same day. Accelerated hypertension is defined as having a blood pressure usually higher than 180/120 mmHg with signs of papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage. Suspected phaeochromocytoma is characterized by labile or postural hypotension, headache, palpitations, pallor, and diaphoresis.

      It is important to note that if a patient presents with a blood pressure higher than 180/120 mmHg, it is crucial to examine their fundi and check for the presence or absence of papilloedema or retinal haemorrhages. Additionally, healthcare professionals should consider the need for specialist investigations in patients with signs and symptoms suggesting a secondary cause of hypertension. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 124 - What is the interpretation of an SMR of 125 for a particular town...

    Incorrect

    • What is the interpretation of an SMR of 125 for a particular town in England, with England and Wales as the comparison standard?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The town has 25% more deaths than expected if age specific death rates for England and Wales are applied to the population

      Explanation:

      Understanding Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR)

      To compare mortality rates in different populations, we use the Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR). This ratio compares the observed deaths in a study population to the number of deaths that would be expected if the standard population’s age-specific mortality rates were applied. The result is multiplied by 100 for convenience, but SMR is not a rate or percentage. An SMR of 100 means the study population has the same number of deaths as expected by national standards. A value less than 100 indicates fewer observed deaths than expected, while a value greater than 100 indicates more observed deaths than expected.

      The SMR is useful for comparing different towns, cities, or districts, as well as certain groups like social classes. It can also be used for serial comparisons over several years. The data used to calculate SMR is age-standardized, so it corrects for differences in age structures between populations. This means that the crude death rate, which doesn’t use age-specific data, may not necessarily be higher in the study population. Age-specific data is crucial in correcting for differences in age structures and allows for more accurate comparisons of mortality rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 125 - An anxious mother brings her 15-year-old daughter to see you as she is...

    Incorrect

    • An anxious mother brings her 15-year-old daughter to see you as she is worried that she may be depressed or using drugs, although she has no evidence of the latter. She had previously been happy and healthy and performing well at school, but recently has become withdrawn, has started failing at school and is often heard shouting in her bedroom, which she locks herself into most of the day. She has accused her parents of trying to harm her when they have encouraged her to come out.
      Select from the list the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Early Intervention for Acute Schizophrenia and Substance Use

      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute schizophrenia, including social withdrawal, declining academic performance, delusions of persecution, and hallucinations. Substance use is a common factor in the development of psychosis, with cocaine, amphetamines, cannabis, and alcohol use linked to a higher risk of developing schizophrenia. Research suggests that cannabis use, in particular, may contribute to the development of schizophrenia. However, signs of drug use typically precede the onset of thought disorders. To ensure the best possible outcome, this patient should be referred to an early intervention team for prompt diagnosis and treatment. Early intervention is crucial for managing acute schizophrenia and substance use disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 126 - A 62-year-old woman presents with complaints of recurrent episodes of dizziness. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with complaints of recurrent episodes of dizziness. She has been previously healthy. She reports experiencing repeated episodes of the room spinning around her in a horizontal plane, which occur multiple times a day. Each episode lasts for approximately 10 seconds and seems to happen when she turns in bed, lies down, or sits up from a supine position. There are no other accompanying symptoms, and she is not taking any medication. A standard neurological examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Benign Positional Paroxysmal Vertigo

      Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo (BPPV) is a disorder characterized by short episodes of vertigo that are specifically positional in nature. The cause of BPPV is inner ear dysfunction, where otoliths become detached from the maculae and enter the semicircular canals. The diagnosis of BPPV can be confirmed through a Dix-Hallpike test, which involves observing the patient’s eyes for nystagmus after a quick change in head position.

      Other potential causes of vertigo were considered and ruled out in this case. Labyrinthitis, which typically presents with hearing changes and nausea/vomiting, was deemed unlikely. Migraine, which can cause vertigo but is usually accompanied by headaches, was also ruled out. Posterior circulation stroke was considered but deemed unlikely due to a normal neurological examination. Postural hypotension was also ruled out as the patient experienced difficulties with turning in bed and lying down as well as standing up.

      Overall, the differential diagnosis for BPPV involves ruling out other potential causes of vertigo through a thorough examination and consideration of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 127 - A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma. She has been using inhaled treatment for the past 12 months and is currently taking salbutamol as needed and a very low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) daily. She has been using the very low dose ICS at the current dose for the past six months. Her parents report that she still needs to use her salbutamol on most days of the week, but never more than once a day. On clinical examination, her chest is clear and there are no focal cardiorespiratory findings. Her inhaler technique is good and there are no issues with compliance. Based on BTS/SIGN guidelines, what is the most appropriate plan for her current management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the inhaled corticosteroids to a low daily dose

      Explanation:

      Treatment Ladder for Asthma in Children

      Here we have a 7-year-old child who is currently on a regular inhaled very low dose corticosteroid and salbutamol PRN for asthma. However, despite the regular inhaled steroid, the child still requires salbutamol most days, indicating suboptimal control and the need for treatment escalation.

      To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the most well-recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step should be to add in an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist or an LTRA (Leukotriene receptor antagonist) if over 5 years old. If the child was under 5 years old, then an LTRA alone would be added.

      It is important to note that higher inhaled corticosteroid doses are treatment options further up the ladder, and theophylline would not normally feature in the primary care setting. Continuing the same treatment with review in 12 months is not appropriate as the child’s current disease control is suboptimal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 128 - A 26-year-old lady presented 48hrs ago with a tender swelling in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old lady presented 48hrs ago with a tender swelling in her left breast. She was prescribed flucloxacillin but her symptoms have failed to settle. She had been Breastfeeding her baby for three weeks and was well until four days prior to being seen when she noted a painful swelling developing.

      On examination there was a tender, erythematous, warm area in the left breast. She has been fully compliant with her medication and an alternative diagnosis appears unlikely on clinical grounds.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast milk should be cultured

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Lactational Mastitis

      Lactational mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women. If symptoms fail to improve after 48 hours of first-line antibiotic treatment, it is important to check that the woman has taken the antibiotic correctly and consider the possibility of an alternative diagnosis such as breast cancer or a breast abscess. If an abscess is suspected, it is important to note that malaise and fever may have subsided if antibiotics have been started.

      If an alternative diagnosis is unlikely, a sample of breast milk should be sent for microscopy, culture, and antibiotic sensitivity. A second-line antibiotic, co-amoxiclav 500/125 mg three times a day, should be prescribed for 10-14 days, with a review of this choice when breast milk culture results become available. It is important to seek specialist advice if the woman is allergic to penicillin.

      Breastfeeding should continue from both breasts if possible, with the affected breast being expressed if feeding is too uncomfortable. In the absence of culture and sensitivity results, flucloxacillin is the usual first choice, with erythromycin for those who are penicillin allergic. Recurrences are best treated with co-amoxiclav. It is worth noting that some cases progress to an obvious abscess, which should be drained.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 129 - A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris with papules, pustules and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris with papules, pustules and comedones. Her weight and periods are both normal. Identify the probable cause from the options provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacteria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acne in Women: Causes and Treatments

      Acne is not just a teenage problem, especially for women. There are several factors that contribute to its development, including genetics, seborrhoea, sensitivity to androgen, P. acnes bacteria, blocked hair follicles, and immune system response. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a less common cause of acne. Treatment options target these underlying causes, with combined oral contraceptives being a popular choice. Contrary to popular belief, diet and hygiene do not play a significant role in acne. The black color of blackheads is due to pigment in the hair follicle material. Understanding the causes and treatments of acne can help women manage this common skin condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 130 - A 27-year-old woman comes in seeking advice on contraception. She is currently on...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman comes in seeking advice on contraception. She is currently on day 14 of her regular 28-30 day cycle and has no medical history or regular medications. She desires a method that is effective immediately and doesn't require daily attention. What contraceptive option would be suitable for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      If a woman is not starting her contraceptive method on the first day of her period, the only option that will be effective immediately is an intrauterine device (IUD). This device is a T-shaped plastic device that contains copper and is inserted into the uterus to provide contraception immediately.

      Other methods, such as the contraceptive injection, implant, and combined oral contraceptive (COC), as well as the intrauterine system (IUS), require 7 days to become effective if not started on the first day of menstruation. The progesterone-only pill (POP) is also not the best choice as it requires 2 days before becoming effective and must be taken every day. It is important to consider the effectiveness and convenience of each method when choosing a contraceptive.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 131 - You observe a 14-year-old girl with a painless, soft, and fluctuant swelling at...

    Incorrect

    • You observe a 14-year-old girl with a painless, soft, and fluctuant swelling at the back of her left knee. The swelling appeared spontaneously and is not causing any discomfort.

      What is a true statement about Baker's cysts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A child with a suspected Baker's cyst requires an USS to confirm the diagnosis

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis of a suspected Baker’s cyst in a child, an USS is necessary as per the NICE guidelines. Knee x-ray is not usually required as primary cysts are the most common in children and not caused by underlying disease. However, an x-ray may be necessary in adults to detect underlying knee pathology. Secondary cysts in children are rare and may be caused by juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Primary Baker’s cysts in children typically resolve on their own without any treatment.

      Baker’s cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are not true cysts but rather a distension of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa. They can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Baker’s cysts are not associated with any underlying pathology and are typically seen in children. On the other hand, secondary Baker’s cysts are caused by an underlying condition such as osteoarthritis and are typically seen in adults. These cysts present as swellings in the popliteal fossa behind the knee.

      In some cases, Baker’s cysts may rupture, resulting in symptoms similar to those of a deep vein thrombosis, such as pain, redness, and swelling in the calf. However, most ruptures are asymptomatic. In children, Baker’s cysts usually resolve on their own and do not require any treatment. In adults, the underlying cause of the cyst should be treated where appropriate. Overall, Baker’s cysts are a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 132 - A 27-year-old patient visits you on a Wednesday morning after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old patient visits you on a Wednesday morning after having unprotected sex on Saturday. She is worried about the possibility of an unintended pregnancy and wants to know the most effective method to prevent it. Her last menstrual cycle was two weeks ago.

      What would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for copper coil (IUD) insertion

      Explanation:

      For this patient who has had unprotected intercourse within the last 72 hours and is seeking the most effective form of emergency contraception, the recommended course of action is to arrange for a copper coil (IUD) insertion. The copper coil is highly effective in preventing pregnancy for up to five days (120 hours) after intercourse, whether or not ovulation has occurred, by preventing fertilization or implantation. If there are concerns about sexually transmitted infections, antibiotics can be given at the same time. It is important to note that the patient has not missed the window for emergency contraception, as both the copper coil and ulipristal acetate are licensed for use up to five days after intercourse, while levonorgestrel emergency contraception can be taken up to 72 hours after intercourse. However, given that the patient is presenting 72 hours after intercourse and may have already ovulated, levonorgestrel emergency contraception or ulipristal acetate may not be as effective as the copper coil and therefore the copper coil is the most appropriate choice.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 133 - You are evaluating a 5-year-old girl with constipation during a routine check-up. During...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 5-year-old girl with constipation during a routine check-up. During the abdominal examination, you observe a small lump in her right lower abdomen. The child doesn't seem to be in any discomfort when you touch it.

      The mother informs you that a previous doctor had also noticed this lump but had assured her that it was probably due to constipation and nothing to worry about.

      The child is healthy otherwise, and the mother has no specific concerns.

      What is the most suitable next step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss him with the on-call paediatric registrar

      Explanation:

      If a child has a palpable abdominal mass or an unexplained enlarged abdominal organ, it is important to refer them urgently (<48 hours) for specialist assessment to check for neuroblastoma and Wilms' tumour. The correct course of action would be to discuss the case with the on-call paediatric registrar. It is crucial to rule out malignancy as the cause of the mass, as neuroblastomas can metastasize quickly and are often diagnosed too late. While constipation may be a possible cause, it is important not to overlook the possibility of a neuroblastoma, which can even cause constipation. A 2-week review is not appropriate, and a routine referral would cause unnecessary delay. Paediatrics can arrange an abdominal ultrasound scan much quicker than primary care, and an abdominal x-ray is not recommended due to the high radiation exposure, especially for a young child. Understanding Neuroblastoma in Children Neuroblastoma is a type of cancer that affects children and is responsible for 7-8% of childhood malignancies. It develops from neural crest tissue found in the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system. Typically, the disease is diagnosed in children around 20 months old and presents with a range of symptoms, including abdominal mass, weight loss, bone pain, and hepatomegaly. In some cases, paraplegia and proptosis may also occur. To diagnose neuroblastoma, doctors will typically look for raised levels of urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA). Additionally, calcification may be visible on an abdominal x-ray, and a biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Overall, neuroblastoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. By understanding the symptoms and diagnostic process, parents and caregivers can work with healthcare providers to ensure that children receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 134 - A 45-year-old man presents for a follow-up of his hypertension. He is of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents for a follow-up of his hypertension. He is of Caucasian descent. He was diagnosed with essential hypertension six months ago and was prescribed ramipril, which has been increased to 10 mg daily. He also has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and gout, and he takes atorvastatin 20 mg once nightly.

      He provides a set of home blood pressure readings with an average of 140/95 mmHg.

      What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended medication to add would be either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, since the patient has a history of gout, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the most appropriate choice. Losartan, an A2RB drug, should not be used in combination with ACE inhibitors. The maximum daily dose of ramipril is 10 mg. The target home readings for this patient would be less than 135/85 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 135 - A 32-year-old nulliparous lady presents with a discharging left nipple for the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old nulliparous lady presents with a discharging left nipple for the last two weeks. She takes off her bra to show you and there is a small amount of staining of the inside of the bra. She squeezes the nipple and you see a small amount of blood stained mucoid discharge leak from the duct at 6 o'clock.

      You examine her and there is no mass palpable, nor is there any pain. There are no cervical or axillary lymph nodes and she appears otherwise well.

      What should you do?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to breast clinic

      Explanation:

      Management of Unilateral Spontaneous Bloody Nipple Discharge

      When a patient presents with unilateral spontaneous bloody nipple discharge, it is important to rule out breast cancer before assuming it is duct ectasia. Reassuring the patient without proper investigation is inappropriate. Prescribing antibiotics or sending a sample for culture without evidence of cellulitis can delay a diagnosis and is not the correct management. Advising the patient to express the discharge again is also inappropriate.

      If a non-lactational abscess is suspected, it is best to refer the patient to the emergency department for proper drainage. However, if infection is less likely, an urgent referral for suspected cancer is appropriate. According to NICE guidelines, patients aged 50 and over with any symptoms in one nipple only, such as discharge, retraction, or other changes of concern, should be referred for an appointment within 2 weeks. However, regardless of age, a patient presenting with unilateral spontaneous bloody discharge should have an urgent referral.

      In summary, proper investigation and referral are crucial in managing unilateral spontaneous bloody nipple discharge to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 136 - You are called to a nursing home to see a 85-year-old lady who...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to a nursing home to see a 85-year-old lady who has become acutely confused.

      She has a past medical history of hypertension and hypothyroidism. These are well controlled on bendroflumethazide 2.5 mg OD and thyroxine 100 mcg OD.

      On arrival she is disoriented to time and place; and the nursing staff report that earlier she seemed to be hallucinating. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.1°C, pulse rate of 92 regular and a blood pressure of 108/88 mmHg. Blood sugar is 4.6.

      What is the next most appropriate acute action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Think sepsis and check symptoms and signs using a local or national tool

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Confusional State in Elderly Patients

      This patient is presenting with an acute confusional state and pyrexia, which is most likely caused by an underlying infection. An anxiolytic is not the appropriate treatment as it doesn’t address the underlying cause. Additionally, oral glucose is not necessary as the patient’s blood sugar is within the normal range. While a cerebrovascular accident should be considered in any elderly patient who is confused, this patient doesn’t exhibit any focal neurological signs and the clinical picture is more consistent with an infective cause. Therefore, administering aspirin is not recommended.

      For elderly patients over 65 years old, a urine dipstick test should not be performed. Instead, healthcare providers should use the PINCH ME method to exclude other causes of delirium. In cases of an acutely confused, pyrexial, elderly patient, sepsis should be considered and managed accordingly.

      When it comes to urinary tract infections, antibiotics should only be prescribed when appropriate. Factors such as the severity of symptoms, the presence of complicating factors, and the likelihood of bacterial infection should be taken into account before prescribing antibiotics. Overuse of antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance, so it is important to use them judiciously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 137 - A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly develops a painful red rash on her trunk that spreads to her face and limbs. The rash consists of macules, some of which resemble target lesions, and numerous flaccid bullae. Skin erosion is present in areas where the bullae have ruptured. She has conjunctivitis, crusted red lips, mouth ulcers, and dysuria. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug induced

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Serious Skin Reaction

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but serious skin reaction that can be fatal. It is considered to be part of a disease spectrum that includes erythema multiforme and toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, some experts believe that erythema multiforme should not be classified as part of the same spectrum as it is associated with infections while SJS and TEN are reactions to certain drugs.

      The most common drugs implicated in SJS are sulphonamides, but other medications such as penicillins, antifungals, and anticonvulsants can also cause the reaction. Less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in SJS, compared to over 30% in TEN.

      Management involves stopping the suspected causative drugs as soon as possible and immediate admission to an intensive care or burns unit. The prognosis is better if the drugs are stopped within 24 hours of bullae appearing.

      Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome is a differential diagnosis that can be mistaken for SJS. It is caused by a bacterial infection and tends to occur in young children.

      Herpes simplex virus can cause erythema multiforme, but this rash is not the same as SJS. Shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus, is another condition with a painful blistering rash that is confined to a dermatome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 138 - A 70-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain and a positive exercise tolerance...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain and a positive exercise tolerance test. He refuses to undergo an angiogram and is discharged with a medication regimen consisting of aspirin 75 mg od, simvastatin 40 mg on, atenolol 50 mg od, and a GTN spray prn. Upon examination, his pulse is 72 bpm and his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. During follow-up, he continues to frequently use his GTN spray. What is the most appropriate course of action for his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase atenolol to 100 mg od

      Explanation:

      If a patient with angina doesn’t respond well to the first-line drug (such as a beta-blocker), the dose should be increased before adding another drug. The recommended dose of atenolol for angina is 100 mg daily, and a pulse rate of 72 bpm indicates inadequate beta-blockade. The starting dose of isosorbide mononitrate is 10 mg bd.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 139 - A medical research team is comparing the existing diagnostic scanning method for breast...

    Incorrect

    • A medical research team is comparing the existing diagnostic scanning method for breast cancer with a new type of scan. This research has taken place over a number of years. Currently, patients are scanned once symptoms develop and the mean survival time is 2 years from the point of diagnosis. The new scan allows for the detection of breast cancer by screening high-risk patients before symptoms develop. With this new scan, breast cancer is diagnosed 2 years before symptoms develop and overall survival time from diagnosis is 3 years.

      What bias is this an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead-time bias

      Explanation:

      The scenario described above exemplifies lead-time bias, which occurs when two tests for a disease are compared and the newer test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no actual effect on the outcome of the disease. In this case, regardless of the test used, patients survive for a year after the emergence of symptoms. It is important to note that this is distinct from the Hawthorne effect, which refers to a group changing its behavior due to being studied, and late-look bias, which involves gathering information at an inappropriate time. Additionally, publication bias, which involves the failure to publish results from valid studies, is not relevant to the scenario described.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 140 - A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. He is currently on metformin, aspirin, and simvastatin, and there have been no changes to his medication for the past 18 months. As per the latest NICE guidelines, what is the recommended frequency for checking his HbA1c?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 monthly

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests that individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus should have their HbA1c levels checked every six months once their treatment has been stabilized.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 141 - You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South...

    Incorrect

    • You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South Asian Muslim population. Currently you operate clinic hours from 9 am-5 pm from Monday to Friday, with an extra clinic on a Saturday morning. The clinic manager comes to see you with a proposal to stop the clinic on a Thursday afternoon to allow for staff training.
      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations before changing the clinic hours?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should meet informally to consider possible impact on ethnic and religious groups of your change

      Explanation:

      Importance of Considering Equality and Diversity in Policy Changes

      By law, it is mandatory to consider equality and diversity issues before implementing any changes in practice policy. For instance, if consulting time is removed from Thursday afternoons and reallocated to Fridays, it could significantly disadvantage Muslim patients who observe Friday as a holy day. Therefore, the NHS guide to equality and diversity recommends conducting a formal impact assessment of the change to ensure that it doesn’t discriminate against any group.

      While the fifth option may seem like a reasonable first step, it doesn’t fully meet the obligations of ensuring equality and diversity. It is crucial to take into account the needs and preferences of all patients, regardless of their race, religion, gender, or any other characteristic. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure that their policies and practices are inclusive and accessible to everyone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 142 - A pharmaceutical representative visits the practice and discusses with you a new treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical representative visits the practice and discusses with you a new treatment for osteoporosis in elderly patients.
      A recently performed randomised control trial has looked at using the new treatment in preventing vertebral fractures in patients over 70 years old. They leave you a copy of a study for you to read in more detail.

      On reading the paper, you see that there were 8,000 patients in both the treatment and control arms of the study. The number of patients sustaining a vertebral fracture in the treatment arm was 200 and the number of patients sustaining a vertebral fracture in the control arm was 250.
      What is the number needed to treat with the new drug in order to prevent one vertebral fracture in elderly patients over 70 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 200

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a useful measure in determining the effectiveness of a treatment. It represents the number of patients that need to be treated to prevent one additional event, such as a disease or complication. This takes into account the absolute risk of the event, making it a clinically meaningful way of comparing different interventions.

      To calculate the NNT, we first need to determine the absolute risk reduction (ARR). This is done by subtracting the absolute risk of events in the control group from the absolute risk of events in the treatment group. For example, if 350 out of 10,000 patients in the control group sustained a vertebral fracture (3.5%), and 300 out of 10,000 patients in the treatment group sustained a vertebral fracture (3%), the ARR would be 0.5%.

      The NNT is then calculated by taking the reciprocal of the ARR. In this case, the NNT would be 1/0.5% = 200. This means that 200 patients would need to be treated with the new drug to prevent one vertebral fracture. Understanding the NNT can help clinicians make informed decisions about the most effective treatment options for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 143 - A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends starting a beta-blocker along with other medications. He is currently stable hemodynamically. What is the most suitable beta-blocker to use in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure: Medications and Contraindications

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to reduce mortality. Beta-blockers are a class of medications that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. Despite some relative contraindications, beta-blockers can be safely initiated in general practice. However, there are still absolute contraindications that should be considered before prescribing beta-blockers, such as asthma, second or third-degree heart block, sick sinus syndrome (without pacemaker), and sinus bradycardia (<50 bpm). Bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol are all licensed for the treatment of heart failure in the United Kingdom. Among these medications, bisoprolol is the recommended choice and should be started at a low dose of 1.25 mg daily and gradually increased to the maximum tolerated dose (up to 10 mg). Other beta-blockers such as labetalol, atenolol, propranolol, and sotalol have different indications and are not licensed for the treatment of heart failure. Labetalol is mainly used for hypertension in pregnancy, while atenolol is used for arrhythmias, angina, and hypertension. Propranolol is indicated for tachycardia linked to thyrotoxicosis, anxiety, migraine prophylaxis, and benign essential tremor. Sotalol is commonly used to treat atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, particularly atrial fibrillation. In summary, beta-blockers are an important class of medications for the treatment of heart failure. However, careful consideration of contraindications and appropriate medication selection is crucial for optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 144 - A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor. His movements seem slower and he has cog-wheel rigidity when his arms are flexed and extended.
      Which of the following is most likely to cause these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conventional antipsychotics

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Medications and their Side Effects

      When it comes to medication, it is important to understand the potential side effects that may occur. In this case, the patient is experiencing a tremor and excessive urination and thirst. Let’s compare the potential causes of these symptoms based on different types of medication.

      Conventional Antipsychotics:
      Common extrapyramidal side-effects include dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. It is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent.

      Atypical Antipsychotics:
      Atypical antipsychotics have low rates of causing extrapyramidal side effects and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.

      Lithium:
      Excessive urination and thirst are common side effects associated with lithium, with rates up to 70% in long-term patients who are treated with it. However, it is not known to cause extrapyramidal side effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.

      Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor:
      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors typically cause headache, dry mouth, insomnia, and restlessness. However, it is more likely that this patient’s symptoms are caused by a drug such as an atypical antipsychotic, which more commonly causes extrapyramidal side effects such as a tremor.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants:
      Tricyclic antidepressants typically cause antimuscarinic side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention. They do not usually cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.

      In conclusion, based on the symptoms described, it is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 145 - You see a 7-week old baby girl with her dad. He is worried...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 7-week old baby girl with her dad. He is worried as she has episodes where she cries uncontrollably and pulls her legs up to her tummy. She appears to be in pain and he is unable to calm her down. The crying doesn't seem to be related to feeding. The episodes last for around 30 minutes to 1 hour and occur for a total of about 3 hours a day. He finds it difficult to soothe her and is feeling exhausted.

      She is breastfed and is feeding well. She is growing appropriately and is having normal wet and dirty nappies.

      During the examination, she appears to be a healthy and content baby. No abnormalities are found.

      Which statement below, regarding infantile colic, is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colic is associated with crying which most often occurs in the late afternoon or evening

      Explanation:

      Infantile colic is characterized by repeated episodes of excessive and inconsolable crying in an otherwise healthy and thriving infant. This condition typically begins in the first few weeks of life and resolves by around 3-4 months of age. The crying often occurs in the late afternoon or evening and may be accompanied by the infant drawing its knees up to its abdomen or arching its back. Colic affects both breastfed and bottle-fed infants and occurs equally in both sexes. However, it can lead to complications such as parental stress, anxiety, and depression, sleep deprivation, family tension, and attachment difficulties between parent and infant. It may also result in premature cessation of breastfeeding or weaning onto solid foods, as well as an increased risk of child maltreatment.

      Understanding Infantile Colic

      Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.

      Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 146 - A 70-year-old heavy smoker (40 cigarettes per day) has a past history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old heavy smoker (40 cigarettes per day) has a past history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Over the past few months he has suffered a chronic cough and has lost approximately 2 stone (about 12.5 kg) in weight. He has been increasingly drowsy over the past few days and his relatives were unable to rouse him this morning. On examination he has a Glasgow Coma Score of 6 and you notice that he has been incontinent of urine and faeces.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma with cerebral metastases

      Explanation:

      Urgent CT Scanning for Deteriorating Conscious Level in a Heavy Smoker with a History of Chronic Cough and Weight Loss

      This patient’s history of chronic cough and weight loss raises the possibility of bronchial carcinoma, which may have metastasized to the brain. The progressively deteriorating conscious level suggests increasing cerebral edema, which is a common complication of cerebral metastases. While stroke and glioblastoma are possible alternative diagnoses, they are less likely given the patient’s history. A meningioma is slow-growing, and subarachnoid hemorrhage typically presents with a sudden severe headache.

      Urgent CT scanning is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment. Medical treatment may include dexamethasone with or without mannitol IV to reduce cerebral edema. However, even with treatment, the prognosis for this type of presentation is extremely poor.

      Intracranial tumors can be caused by metastases, malignant primary brain tumors, or benign brain tumors. Metastases account for around 50% of cases, while malignant primary brain tumors and benign brain tumors account for around 35% and 10%, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 147 - A 27-year-old man presents to his GP for a review of his depression....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents to his GP for a review of his depression. He mentions that he recently applied for Universal Credit due to financial struggles after being made redundant. He requests a copy of his medical record to support his claim.

      The patient is currently single and resides alone in the UK. He was last employed six months ago with a private car detailing company, where he worked for over five years before leaving due to mental health issues. He has savings of approximately £20,000. He has no siblings or children, and his parents passed away in a car accident seven years ago.

      What is the probable outcome of his Universal Credit application?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He is not eligible as he has more than £16,000 in savings

      Explanation:

      If you have savings exceeding £16,000, you are not eligible to receive Universal Credit. To qualify for Universal Credit, you must be 18 or over (with some exceptions for 16 to 17-year-olds), have a low income or be unemployed, be under State Pension age (or have a partner who is), have savings of £16,000 or less between you and your partner, and live in the UK. While medical conditions or dependents do not impact your eligibility, they may affect the amount of payment you receive.

      Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies

      Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.

      The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.

      Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.

      Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 148 - A 21-year-old woman decides to opt for an implantable contraceptive. What distinguishes Nexplanon...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman decides to opt for an implantable contraceptive. What distinguishes Nexplanon from Implanon as its primary benefit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: New design makes the insertion of implants that are too deep less likely

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 149 - A 35-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis presents with a 5 day history of worsening symptoms. He has been having six episodes of uncomfortable bloody stools per day which is an increase compared to his regular bowel habits. Observations in clinic are stable but he is concerned that oral mesalazine is not controlling his disease.

      What would be an appropriate medication to add in order to gain better control of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If a patient with mild-moderate ulcerative colitis doesn’t respond to topical or oral aminosalicylates, the next step is to add oral corticosteroids. In this case, the patient is experiencing 5 bloody stools per day and is already taking mesalazine. Therefore, oral steroids are recommended for flare-ups, but they are not used for maintaining remission.

      Anti-motility drugs like loperamide should not be used as they may increase the risk of toxic megacolon. Metronidazole is not necessary as there is no indication of an infection.

      Intravenous hydrocortisone is not needed as the patient’s condition is stable and hospitalization is not required at this time. Severe exacerbation is typically defined as passing more than 6-8 episodes of bloody stools per day.

      Although it is important to manage the patient’s discomfort, oral NSAIDs should be avoided as they can worsen colitis symptoms. Paracetamol is the preferred first-line treatment.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 150 - A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided frontotemporal headache over the past few days. The headache seems to occur early in the morning, around the same time each day, and lasts between 15 minutes to 2 hours. He feels sick at the time and is unable to lie still. He had a similar episode last year.

      During a headache-free period, a complete neurological examination is entirely normal.

      What could be the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s demographics, description of pain, and duration of symptoms, it is likely that they are experiencing a cluster headache. These headaches typically last between 15 minutes to 2 hours and occur in clusters over a period of time. The fact that the patient had a similar headache a year ago also supports this diagnosis.

      A carotid artery dissection would cause persistent symptoms, including neck pain and neurological symptoms, and would not explain the same symptoms occurring a year ago.

      Migraines usually present with unilateral, episodic headaches, but patients tend to want to lie still during an attack, which is the opposite of what is seen in cluster headaches. Additionally, migraines typically last longer than 15 minutes to 2 hours and do not occur in clusters over a period of time.

      Trigeminal neuralgia is more common in women over the age of 50 and tends to have a specific trigger, such as brushing teeth. The pain is typically more facial in distribution rather than frontotemporal.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 151 - A female patient with Addison's disease calls for guidance. She has experienced diarrhea...

    Incorrect

    • A female patient with Addison's disease calls for guidance. She has experienced diarrhea and vomiting throughout the night and has vomited thrice this morning. She feels slightly lightheaded. What recommendation would you provide concerning the hydrocortisone dosage for an Addison's disease patient who has vomited three times?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use hydrocortisone 100 mg intramuscularly and seek medical advice

      Explanation:

      Sick Day Rules for Addison’s Patients

      Patients with Addison’s disease must follow specific sick day rules to manage their condition effectively. These rules include doubling the normal dose of hydrocortisone for a fever of more than 37.5 C or for infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics. In case of severe nausea, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally and sip rehydration/electrolyte fluids like Dioralyte. If vomiting occurs, patients should use the emergency injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone immediately and call a doctor, stating that it is an Addison’s emergency.

      In case of a major injury, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately to avoid shock. It is also essential to ensure that the anaesthetist and surgical team, dentist, or endoscopist are aware of the need for extra oral medication. They should check the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover, which is available at www.addisons.org.uk/publications. By following these sick day rules, Addison’s patients can manage their condition effectively and avoid any complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 152 - You have a scheduled telephone consultation with Mrs. O'Brien, a 55-year-old woman who...

    Incorrect

    • You have a scheduled telephone consultation with Mrs. O'Brien, a 55-year-old woman who has been undergoing BP monitoring with the health-care assistant. The health care assistant has arranged the appointment as her readings have been consistently around 150/90 mmHg. Upon reviewing her records, you see that she was prescribed amlodipine due to her Irish ethnicity, and she is taking 10 mg once a day. Her only other medication is atorvastatin 20 mg. The health care assistant has noted in the record that the patient confirms she takes her medications as directed.

      As per NICE guidelines, what is the next step in managing hypertension in Mrs. O'Brien, taking into account her ethnic background?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      For patients of black African or African–Caribbean origin who are taking a calcium channel blocker for hypertension and require a second medication, it is recommended to consider an angiotensin receptor blocker instead of an ACE inhibitor. An alpha-blocker is typically not a first-line option, while spironolactone may be considered as a fourth-line option. However, the 2019 update to the NICE guidelines on hypertension recommends an ARB as the preferred choice for this patient population.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 153 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the GP with fever, vomiting and dysuria. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the GP with fever, vomiting and dysuria. Upon examination, she has right renal angle and bladder tenderness and is pyrexial at 38.2°C. Co-amoxiclav is prescribed and urine microscopy and culture is arranged. The following investigations are conducted: Haemoglobin 120 g/L (115-165), White cell count 13.2 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 140 ×109/L (150-400), Sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 5.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Creatinine 130 µmol/L (60-110), and MSU: blood++, protein+, enterococcus faecalis isolated. What is the most appropriate imaging investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound during the acute infection

      Explanation:

      Atypical Urinary Tract Infection in Children

      According to NICE guidelines, an atypical urinary tract infection (UTI) in children is characterized by certain features such as a seriously ill child, poor urine flow, abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to a suitable antibiotic within 48 hours, or infection with non-Escherichia coli organisms.

      If a child experiences renal angle pain during the acute infection, an ultrasound should be performed. However, surgical intervention is generally avoided if possible. It is recommended that the child be referred to a paediatric urologist for further evaluation and management. Early detection and appropriate treatment of atypical UTIs can prevent complications and improve outcomes in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 154 - Liam is a 27-year-old man with a history of depression and type 1...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 27-year-old man with a history of depression and type 1 diabetes mellitus, for which he takes citalopram and insulin.

      What substances should Liam avoid due to potential dangerous interactions with his medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: St John’s wort

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome can be caused by the interaction between St. John’s Wort and SSRIs, such as citalopram. While cranberry juice is an enzyme inhibitor, it doesn’t have any known interactions with SSRIs or insulin. Similarly, paracetamol doesn’t interact with either SSRIs or insulin. Cannabis is not known to have any interactions with SSRIs. Although cheese can interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors, it doesn’t have any interactions with SSRIs.

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, altered mental state, and confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another potentially life-threatening condition. While both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 155 - You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with lower urinary tract symptoms. He presented...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with lower urinary tract symptoms. He presented six months ago with complaints of weak urinary stream, hesitancy, intermittency, terminal dribbling, and nocturia ×2. He denies any history of visible haematuria or erectile dysfunction. Urine dipstick testing is normal, his eGFR is stable at 84, and his PSA is 0.9 ng/mL. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is less than 30 g in size with no sinister features.

      Despite conservative management and modification of his fluid intake, his symptoms persist and he has returned seeking advice on taking a tablet. His international prostate symptom score was 17 at his initial visit and is now 15. He reports that his quality of life is affected by his urinary symptoms and he is unhappy. He is otherwise healthy and not taking any other medications.

      What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological approach for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finasteride 5 mg OD and oxybutynin 5 mg BD

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Drug Treatment of Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms

      NICE recommends drug treatment for bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) if conservative measures fail. For moderate to severe LUTS, an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin should be offered. Patients should be reviewed after four to six weeks until stable. If LUTS is accompanied by an enlarged prostate or a high PSA level, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor like finasteride should be prescribed. Anticholinergic drugs like oxybutynin can be used to manage storage symptoms. For patients with moderate to severe LUTS and an enlarged prostate or high PSA level, both an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor can be started. In the case of a patient with moderate LUTS, a prostate less than 30 g, and a PSA level less than 1.4, starting an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin and reviewing the patient in four to six weeks is the most appropriate approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 156 - A 45-year-old male office worker is on quetiapine for his bipolar disorder and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male office worker is on quetiapine for his bipolar disorder and visits your clinic alone after driving himself. He has had a stable condition for the past year with no manic or depressive episodes. He reports experiencing flight-of-ideas, pressured speech, and difficulty sleeping.

      What advice should you give him regarding his ability to drive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Must stop driving for at least 3 months and inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with bipolar disease are required to inform the DVLA if they experience manic episodes, as this will prevent them from driving. The duration of the driving ban depends on whether the patient has stable or unstable disease. If the patient has stable disease, they must stop driving for a minimum of 3 months. However, if they have unstable disease, they must stop driving for at least 6 months. Before being allowed to drive again, patients must adhere to their treatment plan, regain insight, be free from any medication effects that could impair driving, and receive a favorable specialist report. During a manic episode, patients must stop driving, but they can continue to drive if they inform the DVLA. If a patient experiences a manic episode without informing the DVLA, they must stop driving for 6 months.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 157 - A 50-year-old man presents with vertigo, reporting a recurrent feeling that the environment...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with vertigo, reporting a recurrent feeling that the environment is spinning. What is the leading cause of vertigo?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

      Explanation:

      Vertigo is most commonly caused by BPPV.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 158 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain. She believes she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain. She believes she is approximately 8 weeks pregnant according to her last menstrual period and has been feeling fine until 5 days ago when she started experiencing some lower abdominal discomfort that has been gradually intensifying. What should be avoided during her evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examination for an adnexal mass

      Explanation:

      NICE advises against examining an adnexal mass as it may lead to rupture.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. Women with ectopic pregnancy typically experience lower abdominal pain, which is often the first symptom. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen. Vaginal bleeding is another common symptom, which is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Women with ectopic pregnancy may also experience dizziness, fainting, or syncope.

      During a physical examination, doctors may find abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation, also known as cervical motion tenderness. However, they are advised not to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels above 1,500 suggest an ectopic pregnancy.

      In summary, ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Women who experience lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding should seek medical help immediately. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 159 - A 42-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of ear pain. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of ear pain. He had visited the emergency department 3 days ago but was only given advice. He has been experiencing ear pain for 5 days now.

      During the examination, his temperature is recorded at 38.5ºC, and his right eardrum appears red and bulging. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      To improve treatment without antibiotics, guidelines suggest waiting 2-3 days before considering treatment if symptoms do not improve. This is especially important when a patient has a fever, indicating systemic involvement. Therefore, recommending regular paracetamol is not appropriate in this case.

      While erythromycin is a useful alternative for patients with a penicillin allergy, it should not be the first choice for those who can take penicillin. It is particularly useful as a syrup for children due to its lower cost compared to other alternatives.

      Penicillin V is the preferred antibiotic for tonsillitis, as amoxicillin can cause a rash in cases of glandular fever. However, it is not typically used for otitis media.

      For otitis media, amoxicillin is the recommended first-line medication at a dosage of 500mg three times a day for seven days.

      Co-amoxiclav is only used as a second-line option if amoxicillin is ineffective and is not typically used as a first-line treatment according to current guidelines.

      References: NICE Guidelines, Clinical Knowledge Summaries

      Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 160 - A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His blood tests are shown in the table below. Other liver function tests are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 1000 IU/l 30–150 IU/l
      Adjusted calcium 2.25 mmol/l 2.12–2.65 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.2 mmol/l 0.8–1.45 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of Bone: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects individuals over the age of 40. It is often asymptomatic and is discovered through incidental findings of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels or characteristic abnormalities on X-rays. However, classic symptoms include bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. Diagnosis is established by finding a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level, but normal liver function tests. Differential diagnoses include multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnoses of Paget’s disease of bone is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 161 - A 20-year-old woman from Sierra Leone comes to your clinic and reveals that...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman from Sierra Leone comes to your clinic and reveals that she underwent female genital mutilation (FGM) at the age of 16 and is still struggling with the trauma. She mentions that her three sisters also went through the same procedure but don't appear to be affected mentally. She feels embarrassed that she is the only one struggling while her sisters seem to be doing fine.

      What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to local safeguarding procedures and refer to mental health services

      Explanation:

      If a female under 18 discloses that she has undergone genital mutilation, the mandatory reporting duty applies. However, in this case, the individual is over 18, so the duty doesn’t apply, and there is no need to involve the police.

      Instead, it is important to follow local safeguarding procedures and refer the individual to mental health services. It is recommended to refer her to mental health services rather than suggesting she self-refer or seek private counseling, as she may be hesitant to do so on her own. It is crucial to provide support and resources to help her cope with her feelings and experiences.

      If the individual chooses to involve the police, it is her decision to make.

      Understanding Female Genital Mutilation

      Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a practice that involves the partial or total removal of the external female genitalia or other forms of injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. This practice is classified into four types by the World Health Organization (WHO). Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while Type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 162 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with her husband. They are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with her husband. They are concerned because she has become increasingly fixated on cleaning, which is interfering with her other responsibilities and straining their relationship.

      She has installed a nail brush in the downstairs bathroom to scrub her skin after using the toilet and has prohibited guests from using any of the upstairs bathrooms. She also requires visitors to remove their shoes outside and has banned eating from any area outside the kitchen. Most recently, she has begun waking up at 5:30 am every day to clean.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Counselling

      Explanation:

      Treating OCD with CBT and SSRIs

      CBT and SSRIs are the main treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT involves challenging the ritualistic behavior of OCD through exposure and response prevention, which exposes the patient to stimuli that usually provoke their behavior and challenges their irrational thinking. On the other hand, SSRIs are the main pharmacological therapy for OCD. Counseling alone is not usually focused enough to provide significant impact on symptoms. A comprehensive treatment plan that includes CBT and SSRIs can help individuals with OCD manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 163 - At what age will children be eligible for the intranasal influenza vaccine once...

    Incorrect

    • At what age will children be eligible for the intranasal influenza vaccine once the NHS has implemented the vaccination programme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 years

      Explanation:

      Children under the age of 2 are not eligible to receive the intranasal flu vaccine.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 164 - A child is born to a mother who has a history of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A child is born to a mother who has a history of chronic hepatitis B. The mother's recent test results indicate:

      HBsAg Positive
      HBeAg Positive

      What is the best approach to decrease the rate of vertical transmission?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B and Pregnancy: Screening and Prevention

      During pregnancy, all women are offered screening for hepatitis B. If a woman is found to be chronically infected with hepatitis B or has had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy, her baby should receive a complete course of vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. Studies are currently being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of oral antiviral treatment, such as Lamivudine, in the latter part of pregnancy.

      There is little evidence to suggest that a caesarean section reduces the transmission rates of hepatitis B from mother to baby. It is important to note that hepatitis B cannot be transmitted through breastfeeding, unlike HIV. Therefore, mothers with hepatitis B can safely breastfeed their babies without fear of transmission.

      Overall, screening for hepatitis B during pregnancy and taking appropriate preventative measures can greatly reduce the risk of transmission from mother to baby. It is important for healthcare providers to educate pregnant women about the importance of screening and prevention to ensure the health and safety of both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 165 - A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test score.
      He says he is a bit worried about his memory. He is a retired lawyer. The three questions he got wrong related to short-term memory loss.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diagnose dementia

      Explanation:

      Management of Memory Loss in the Elderly

      MRCGP candidates are expected to have an understanding of the management of conditions commonly associated with old age, including memory loss. However, the correct course of management for memory loss would be to undertake a full assessment in the first instance. The abbreviated mental test is only a screening test and should not be used alone to form a diagnosis. If a significant problem is found, it is usual to refer to memory assessment services, which may be provided by a memory assessment clinic or community mental health teams. This should be the single point of referral for all people with a possible diagnosis of dementia. GPs would not normally initiate prescribing in this manner, although they may be involved in a shared care arrangement with specialist initiation and supervision of medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 166 - A 55-year-old business man who has been drinking heavily for at least two...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old business man who has been drinking heavily for at least two years, states that he drinks alcohol on his way into work as he suffers from anxiety attacks.

      Which one of the following statements is true regarding his anxiety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It indicates alcohol dependence, and after initial worsening with withdrawal usually will improve after three weeks of abstinence from alcohol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mild Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms

      This individual is struggling with alcohol dependence and is currently experiencing anxiety during the morning withdrawal period. Anxiety is a common symptom of mild alcohol withdrawal, which can also lead to agitation, fever, sweats, and tremors. While alcohol initially provides relief for these symptoms, continued abstinence can cause them to peak after approximately 72 hours and last for up to a week or more. However, most patients find that these symptoms have resolved within three weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 167 - Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 168 - You are asked to assess an elderly 83-year-old man who has advanced prostate...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess an elderly 83-year-old man who has advanced prostate cancer and is experiencing poor appetite and anorexia. Upon further inquiry, he reports that his nausea is well-managed with cyclizine as needed, and he doesn't have any difficulty swallowing. His pain is adequately controlled, and he has regular bowel movements. What would be the most beneficial approach in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nutritional supplements alongside any tolerated diet

      Explanation:

      Addressing Lack of Appetite in Palliative Care Patients

      A thorough history and clinical examination are crucial in identifying the underlying cause of anorexia and lack of appetite in palliative care patients. Pain, constipation, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia are some of the potential causes that need to be treated accordingly. However, if the primary cause is a lack of appetite, specific measures should be taken to address it.

      Home care input may not be effective in improving appetite, and changing antiemetics is unnecessary if the current medication is working well. Nutritional supplements may aid in caloric intake, but addressing the lack of appetite is still the priority. Referral for PEG feeding is not appropriate if there are no physical problems preventing oral intake.

      The best option to stimulate appetite and improve oral intake is a course of prednisolone or dexamethasone. These corticosteroids have been proven to increase appetite and enjoyment of food in many patients. Progestogens are also effective but are more expensive.

      In conclusion, addressing the lack of appetite in palliative care patients is crucial in improving their quality of life. A thorough assessment of the underlying cause is necessary, and appropriate measures should be taken to address it. Corticosteroids such as prednisolone and dexamethasone are effective in stimulating appetite and improving oral intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 169 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father. He is worried that she is not speaking as much as her peers, though she can say more than 60 words and uses them in short sentences. She prefers to play on her own and gets upset by changes in her daily routine.
      On examination, she reacts to quiet speech, but is shy and avoids eye contact.
      What is the most probable reason for her speech delay?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Austism spectrum disorder (ASD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Delayed Speech and Social Interaction in a 3-Year-Old Child

      Delayed speech and social interaction in a 3-year-old child can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is autism spectrum disorder (ASD), which affects around 1% of children in the UK, with symptoms developing before three years of age. Children with ASD may have absent or delayed speech, a lack of collaborative or imaginative play, or an impairment of non-verbal or social interactions. Another possible cause is deafness, which affects 1-2 per 1,000 newborns in the UK. Symptoms of hearing loss include speech impediments, delayed speech, or behavioural problems. However, deafness is not the most likely cause if the child reacts to quiet speech and exhibits other typical behaviours associated with autism. Learning disability is another possible cause, but with the classic additional features of autism in this case, it is not the most likely cause. Neglect and normal development can also be ruled out as possible causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of delayed speech and social interaction in a 3-year-old child to provide appropriate interventions and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 170 - A 26-year-old woman with type I diabetes contacts the clinic for telephone guidance....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with type I diabetes contacts the clinic for telephone guidance. She has been a diabetic since the age of 12 and is currently on a basal bolus insulin regimen, taking a total of 55 units per day.

      She reports experiencing a flu-like illness with symptoms such as fever, myalgia, cough, and slightly looser stools. These symptoms began yesterday, and she feels generally unwell. Although she is not vomiting, she is able to drink adequate amounts of fluids and has been snacking on regular carbohydrates as a substitute for meals.

      The reason for her call is that her latest blood glucose reading is 18 mmol/L, which is higher than her usual single-digit readings. Additionally, she has checked her blood ketone level, which is 2.5mmol/L.

      What is the most appropriate advice to provide in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce each insulin dose of rapid-acting insulin by 5 units and continue to retest blood glucose and ketone levels every 4 hours. If blood glucose is greater than 20 mmol/L or blood ketones are greater than 3.0 mmol/L she should recontact the surgery or advice

      Explanation:

      Managing Insulin Use in Unwell Diabetic Patients

      When it comes to managing diabetic patients taking insulin, Diabetes Specialist Nurses (DSNs) play a crucial role. However, as a healthcare professional, you may not always have exposure to this type of clinical problem, which can lead to de-skilling. Additionally, the Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has identified this area as a particular weakness in past AKT exams, making it important to stay up-to-date on the topic.

      One key aspect of counselling diabetic patients who have started insulin is knowing what to do if they become unwell. For type I diabetics, it is essential to check their blood glucose and ketone levels regularly, at least every 4 hours. If the blood glucose level is less than 13 mmol/L and there are no ketones present in the urine (or ketone levels are less than 1.5 mmol/L on blood ketone testing), then insulin should be taken as normal. However, if the blood glucose level is greater than 13 mmol/L and urinary ketones are present (or blood ketone level greater than 1.5mmol/L), then insulin adjustment is necessary. In such cases, the patient requires an additional 10% of their daily insulin dose as rapid-acting insulin every 4 hours, followed by 4-hourly glucose and ketone monitoring to guide ongoing management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 171 - A 65-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease becomes more breathless...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease becomes more breathless and looks anaemic.
      Test Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 130-170 g/l
      Reticulocyte count 0.85% 0.5%-1.5%
      Mean cell volume (MCV) 120.6 fl 82-102 fl
      Vitamin B12 90.0 ng/l 130-700 ng/l
      Intrinsic factor antibodies Positive
      He is commenced on injections of hydroxocobalamin with blood tests to be repeated in seven days.
      What is the most likely change at 1 week which would suggest that the patient is responding to treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A rise in the reticulocyte count

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Response to Vitamin B12 Treatment in Pernicious Anaemia

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which can lead to a range of symptoms including fatigue, weakness, and neurological problems. Treatment involves intramuscular injections of hydroxocobalamin, with the frequency and duration of treatment depending on the severity of the deficiency.

      To monitor the response to treatment, several indicators can be measured. A rise in the reticulocyte count and haemoglobin level within 7-10 days indicates a positive effect. The mean cell volume (MCV) may initially increase due to the increased reticulocyte count, but should return to normal within 25-78 days. Intrinsic factor antibodies may remain present despite treatment. Measuring cobalamin levels is not always necessary, but can be done 1-2 months after starting treatment if there is no response.

      Overall, monitoring these indicators can help confirm a diagnosis of pernicious anaemia and ensure that treatment is effective in addressing the deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 172 - A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in...

    Incorrect

    • A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in a surveyed population. Is it accurate to say that the disease is more fatal in this age group?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There were 40% more fatalities from the disease in this population compared to the reference population

      Explanation:

      There were a higher number of deaths in the sample population than what was anticipated.

      Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio

      The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.

      An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 173 - A 72-year-old man is admitted with a six-week history of proximal muscle weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is admitted with a six-week history of proximal muscle weakness. He has been having difficulty climbing stairs and getting up from a sitting position in a chair. He says his alcohol intake is 40 units per week.
      Which of the following results is most likely to point to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abnormal liver function tests and macrocytosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Proximal Myopathy and its Possible Causes

      Proximal myopathy is a condition characterized by weakness in the muscles closest to the body’s core. One possible cause of this condition is alcohol excess, which can lead to abnormal liver function tests and macrocytosis. Patients may underestimate or hide their alcohol consumption levels, making it important for healthcare providers to ask about this history. Chronic myopathy involves a gradual progression, while acute myopathy may follow binge drinking and result in acute renal tubular necrosis.

      Thyrotoxicosis and hypothyroidism can also cause proximal myopathy. An elevated TSH and normal free-thyroxine levels may suggest sub-clinical hypothyroidism. Cushing syndrome, indicated by failure to suppress the 0900 h serum cortisol level after an overnight dexamethasone suppression test, can also cause proximal myopathy.

      While hypercalcaemia is not a common cause of proximal myopathy, osteomalacia can lead to this condition. Osteomalacia is characterized by low calcium and raised alkaline phosphatase. Rare reports suggest that hyperparathyroidism may also cause proximal myopathy.

      High vitamin B12 levels are not typically associated with proximal myopathy. In fact, low vitamin B12 levels, such as those seen in pernicious anaemia, can cause neurological symptoms like peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Excessive alcohol consumption can deplete B12 levels. Understanding the possible causes of proximal myopathy can help healthcare providers diagnose and treat this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 174 - A 27-year-old man has been hospitalized due to multiple injuries sustained during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man has been hospitalized due to multiple injuries sustained during a mugging on his way back from the bar last night. The assailant bit him during the altercation, leaving deep bite marks on his hand, which appears red and swollen. You decide to administer tetanus and hepatitis B prophylaxis.

      What antibiotic do you recommend for his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate treatment for human bites, similar to animal bites. In case the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole can be used. However, since there is no mention of any allergies, we assume that the patient has none. Waiting for the swab results is not the correct approach. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for various conditions, including hand/foot/facial injuries, deep puncture wounds, wounds requiring surgical debridement, wounds involving joints/tendons/ligaments, suspected fractures, and patients who are immunosuppressed, diabetic, cirrhotic, asplenic, or elderly. Antibiotic treatment is necessary for infected bites, which is the case here as the bite appears red, swollen, and is on the hand. Cellulitis, on the other hand, is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.

      On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 175 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery where she has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery where she has recently registered. She is experiencing sneezing, an itchy nose, and itchy, watery eyes. She suspects that her symptoms are due to allergies and would like to undergo comprehensive allergy testing to inform her workplace and make necessary adjustments. She also wonders if she should carry an EpiPen.
      What is the most probable cause of this patient's allergy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seasonal rhinitis

      Explanation:

      Common Allergic and Non-Allergic Conditions: Causes and Differences

      Seasonal rhinitis, atopic eczema, chronic urticaria, lactose intolerance, and coeliac disease are common conditions that can cause discomfort and distress. Understanding their causes and differences is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Seasonal rhinitis, also known as hay fever, is caused by allergens such as tree pollen, grass, mould spores, and weeds. It is an IgE-mediated reaction that occurs at certain times of the year.

      Atopic eczema can be aggravated by dietary factors in some children, but less frequently in adults. Food allergy should be suspected in children who have immediate reactions to food or infants with moderate or severe eczema that is not well-controlled.

      Chronic urticaria may have an immunological or autoimmune cause, but can also be idiopathic or caused by physical factors, drugs, or dietary pseudo allergens. It presents with a rash.

      Lactose intolerance is due to an enzyme deficiency and is different from milk allergy, which is IgE-mediated. It can occur following gastroenteritis.

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition that affects the small intestine in response to gluten exposure. It is not a gluten allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 176 - A 5-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes is rushed into the emergency room...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes is rushed into the emergency room by her father as she is extremely restless. He suspects that she is experiencing a 'hypo' and has attempted to give her sugary drinks and snacks, but to no avail. The child is uncooperative and agitated. Upon examination, she appears sweaty and anxious, but her airways are clear and she is breathing normally. Physical examination is unremarkable, and her vital signs are normal. A blood glucose test reveals a reading of 3.2 mmol/L. The child weighs 20kg. What is the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer glucagon 500 mcg IM STAT

      Explanation:

      In the case of a child weighing 25kg or less experiencing hypoglycaemia, glucagon 500 mcg should be given via IM if oral treatment is not possible or ineffective. Hypoglycaemia is clinically defined as a blood glucose level below 3.5 mmol/L, which is the case for this child. Despite the mother’s attempts at oral treatment, the child has not improved, making it necessary to administer glucagon to prevent further deterioration. Once the child is stable, it is advisable to contact the paediatric team for further evaluation and management.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.

      Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 177 - A 30-year-old female presents with a one-sided throbbing headache, along with photophobia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with a one-sided throbbing headache, along with photophobia and nausea. She has been experiencing these attacks several times a month for the past half-year. The patient has no comorbidities, is not taking any other medications, and has no known drug allergies.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral triptan and propranolol prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of migraine, this patient should be prescribed an oral triptan along with either an NSAID or paracetamol for acute attacks. Additionally, prophylaxis should be considered as the patient experiences two or more attacks per month. Propranolol would be the most appropriate prophylaxis for this patient, as she is of childbearing age and topiramate may not be suitable. Pizotifen is no longer recommended for migraine prophylaxis due to its common side effects, while verapamil is used for prophylaxis of cluster headaches.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 178 - A 27-year-old professional footballer collapses while playing football.

    He is rushed to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old professional footballer collapses while playing football.

      He is rushed to the Emergency department, and is found to be in ventricular tachycardia. He is defibrillated successfully and his 12 lead ECG following resuscitation demonstrates left ventricular hypertrophy. Ventricular tachycardia recurs and despite prolonged resuscitation he dies.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy and its ECG Findings

      The sudden onset of arrhythmia in a young and previously healthy individual is often indicative of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). It is important to screen relatives for this condition. The majority of patients with HCM have an abnormal resting ECG, which may show nonspecific changes such as left ventricular hypertrophy, ST changes, and T-wave inversion. Other possible ECG findings include right or left axis deviation, conduction abnormalities, sinus bradycardia with ectopic atrial rhythm, and atrial enlargement.

      Ambulatory ECG monitoring can reveal atrial and ventricular ectopics, sinus pauses, intermittent or variable atrioventricular block, and non-sustained arrhythmias. However, the ECG findings do not necessarily correlate with prognosis. Arrhythmias associated with HCM can include premature ventricular complexes, non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is also a common complication, occurring in approximately 20% of cases and increasing the risk of fatal cardiac failure.

      It is important to note that there is no history to suggest drug abuse, and aortic stenosis is rare in the absence of congenital or rheumatic heart disease. A myocardial infarction or massive pulmonary embolism would have distinct ECG changes that are not typically seen in HCM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 179 - You are asked to carry out a DNA paternity test on a patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to carry out a DNA paternity test on a patient whose absent father is refusing to pay maintenance. The father has arranged his own test, even though the patient is a minor.

      Which of the following is TRUE regards this process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buccal swabs should be taken from both the mother and child

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paternity Testing: What You Need to Know

      Paternity testing is a process that can determine whether a man is the biological father of a child. This is done by analyzing DNA samples from the man, the child, and ideally, the mother. Buccal swabs are the preferred method for collecting DNA samples, and testing is not available on the NHS. The consent of both parents is required for testing, and some companies offer motherless testing, which is less accurate. Blood grouping can sometimes exclude paternity, but it cannot be used to confirm it. It is important to understand the basics of paternity testing before pursuing it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 180 - A 43-year-old former beef farmer is currently being looked after in a care...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old former beef farmer is currently being looked after in a care home after a severe deterioration in his memory and ability to care for himself.

      You examine him and note that he has nystagmus, bilateral lateral rectus palsy, ataxia, a broad based gait and peripheral neuropathy with sensory loss in his feet. You understand that his father died at an early age, apparently from Alzheimer's disease.

      He is known to drink alcohol.

      Which one of the following is most likely to be the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy and Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that occurs in patients with thiamine deficiency, often associated with chronic alcohol abuse or other malnutrition states. It is characterized by haemorrhage into the mamillary bodies of the brain. If left untreated, it can progress to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a chronic stage of the same condition.

      Early stages of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can be reversible, especially the eye signs. However, if left untreated, it can lead to memory loss and other irreversible symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This highlights the importance of early thiamine replacement in patients admitted to the hospital with symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. By recognizing and treating Wernicke’s encephalopathy early, we can prevent the progression to Korsakoff’s syndrome and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 181 - A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his mother who has noticed his...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his mother who has noticed his legs 'look strange' since he started walking over the past 5 weeks. His mother says that when he stands straight, his knees are very close together and his feet have a wide gap between them. The boy has no pain in his knees and there is no limp when he walks. He runs around the house without any problems.

      On examination, there are no lumps along the bones of either leg.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genu valgus

      Explanation:

      This young woman has a noticeable inward curvature of her knees, also known as genu valgus or ‘knock knees’. Her symptoms are typical and there are no concerning signs in her medical history or physical examination. Genu varus, on the other hand, is characterized by outward curvature of the legs or ‘bow legs’, with a significant gap between the knees and ankles. Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common condition among athletes that causes knee pain. Rickets is a disorder that results in soft and weak bones, often leading to bone pain, delayed growth, muscle weakness, or skeletal issues. It is typically caused by a deficiency in vitamin D or calcium. Synovial sarcoma is a rare type of cancer that usually presents as a painless lump near a joint.

      Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, and can be caused by a variety of conditions. Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that affects teenage girls and is characterized by softening of the cartilage of the patella. This can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. However, it usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking. Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella, and the knee may give way. Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys and causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. It is tender below the patella on examination.

      It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 182 - Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The positive predictive value of BNP is greater than the negative predictive value

      Explanation:

      The negative predictive value of BNP for ventricular dysfunction is good, but its positive predictive value is poor.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 183 - A 36-year-old large goods vehicle (LGV) driver visits your clinic. He has type...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old large goods vehicle (LGV) driver visits your clinic. He has type II diabetes, managed with metformin and tolbutamide.

      He reports experiencing a hypoglycaemic episode while at work. He was conversing with a colleague before embarking on a delivery when he suddenly felt hot, dizzy, and disoriented. His colleague escorted him to the first-aid station, where his blood glucose was checked. It was 3.2. The first-aider administered oral glucose, and he quickly recovered.

      What guidance will you provide to your patient regarding his Group 2 (LGV) driving license?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No driving for 12 months and he must notify the DVLA

      Explanation:

      Diabetes and Driving: DVLA Guidelines

      People with diabetes who are managed by tablets that carry a risk of inducing hypoglycaemia must meet certain criteria to maintain their driving licence. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) guidelines state that patients must have no episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance in the past 12 months, have full awareness of hypoglycaemia, regularly monitor their blood glucose levels, and demonstrate an understanding of the risks of hypoglycaemia. Additionally, there should be no other complications of diabetes that could affect driving, such as a visual field defect.

      If a patient experiences an episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance, they must give up their Group 2 licence until they have been clear of any similar episodes for 12 months. It is also important to note that a lack of hypoglycaemic awareness can be a worrying feature, and referral to a specialist diabetic team may be necessary to optimize diabetic control and re-establish hypoglycaemic awareness. By following these guidelines and working with healthcare professionals, people with diabetes can maintain their driving privileges while ensuring their safety and the safety of others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 184 - Which medical conditions are included in the February 2022 UK immunisation schedule for...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical conditions are included in the February 2022 UK immunisation schedule for receiving the Meningococcal ACWY vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia

      Explanation:

      Asplenia and Splenic Dysfunction: Important Considerations for Vaccinations

      A surprising answer for many, the medical conditions that require additional vaccines may not be what you expect. While immunosuppression and diabetes are common guesses, patients with asplenia or splenic dysfunction (such as those with coeliac disease or sickle cell) should receive Men ACWY, Pneumococcal, and influenza vaccines in addition to the routine schedule.

      It’s important to note that asplenia and splenic dysfunction are not rare conditions. In fact, one in a hundred patients may have coeliac disease, whether diagnosed or not. Additionally, those with complement disorders (including those receiving complement inhibitor therapy) should also receive the Meningococcal ACWY vaccine.

      Overall, it’s crucial for healthcare professionals to consider these conditions when determining a patient’s vaccination schedule. By doing so, we can help protect those who may be at higher risk for vaccine-preventable diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 185 - A 2-year-old boy is brought to surgery with a fever and poor appetite....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy is brought to surgery with a fever and poor appetite. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.5ºC and there is no clear source of infection. The mother was able to collect a urine sample using a collection pad, which tested positive for both leucocytes and nitrites. As a result, the child was started on a course of trimethoprim and the urine sample was sent for culture. After three days, the urine culture results reveal the growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange abdominal ultrasound + outpatient referral for consideration of further imaging

      Explanation:

      The presence of Pseudomonas infection in a child’s urinary tract indicates the possibility of an underlying structural abnormality. This is considered an atypical feature of a urinary tract infection and warrants uroimaging. According to NICE guidelines, if such an infection is detected, an ultrasound should be performed while the infection is still acute.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children require investigation to identify any underlying causes and potential kidney damage. Unlike in adults, the development of a UTI in childhood may indicate renal scarring. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging the urinary tract for infants under six months who present with their first UTI and respond to treatment, within six weeks. Children over six months who respond to treatment do not require imaging unless there are features suggestive of an atypical infection, such as being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.

      Further investigations may include a urine microscopy and culture, as only 50% of children with a UTI have pyuria, making microscopy or dipstick of the urine inadequate for diagnosis. A static radioisotope scan, such as DMSA, can identify renal scars and should be done 4-6 months after the initial infection. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) can identify vesicoureteric reflux and is only recommended for infants under six months who present with atypical or recurrent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 186 - An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

    He was recently...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

      He was recently diagnosed when he was admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. Echocardiography has revealed impaired left ventricular function. He also has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.

      His current medications are: aspirin 75 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, metformin 850 mg TDS, ramipril 10 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily.

      He tells you that the ramipril was initiated when the diagnosis of heart failure was made and has been titrated up to 10 mg daily over the recent weeks. His symptoms are currently stable.

      Clinical examination reveals no peripheral oedema, his chest sounds clear and clinically he is in sinus rhythm at 76 beats per minute. His BP is 126/80 mHg.

      Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to add to his therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Heart Failure Patients

      Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors and beta blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The ACE inhibitors should be considered first, followed by beta blockers once the patient’s condition is stable, unless contraindicated. However, the updated NICE guidance suggests using clinical judgment to decide which drug to start first. Combination treatment with an ACE-inhibitor and beta blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for these patients. Beta blockers have been shown to improve survival in heart failure patients, and three drugs are licensed for this use in the UK. Patients who are newly diagnosed with impaired left ventricular systolic function and are already taking a beta blocker should be considered for a switch to one shown to be beneficial in heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 187 - Mrs. Smith is a 65-year-old lady who has been prescribed once-daily insulin for...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Smith is a 65-year-old lady who has been prescribed once-daily insulin for her type 2 diabetes by the secondary care diabetes team a few months ago. During her routine medication review, you observe that she is not utilizing many lancets or blood sugar (BM) testing strips. She confesses to not checking her sugars every day. You inquire if she drives; she frequently uses the car for running errands around town.

      What guidance should you provide to Mrs. Smith regarding blood glucose (BM) monitoring and driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check BM before driving and every 2 hours of the journey subsequently

      Explanation:

      Patients taking diabetes medication that can cause hypoglycaemia, such as insulin and sulphonylureas, must check their blood glucose levels (BM) before driving and every two hours during long journeys. It is incorrect to assume that BM checks are not necessary for journeys under 30 minutes, as patients on insulin must always check their BM before driving, even for short distances. Patients should not omit their diabetes medication due to driving, as this can be dangerous. If a patient’s BM is less than 4mmol/l, they should not drive and must treat the hypoglycaemia before waiting at least 45 minutes for their BM to normalise to over 5mmol/l before driving again. If their BM is between 4mmol/l and 5mmol/l, they should have a snack.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 188 - A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of coarse hair on her lip, chin,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of coarse hair on her lip, chin, chest and abdomen. She reports moderate menstrual irregularity and long periods of amenorrhoea. Upon examination, her body mass index is 40 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hirsutism and its Common Causes

      Hirsutism is a condition characterized by excessive hair growth in women, often in areas where hair is typically absent or minimal. The most common cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which accounts for 95% of cases. This condition is often accompanied by obesity and amenorrhea, which are indicative of insulin resistance.

      Biochemically, patients with PCOS have a reversed luteinising hormone:follicle-stimulating hormone (LH:FSH) ratio and elevated androstenedione with a low sex-hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). It is important to rule out other potential causes of hirsutism, such as androgen-producing tumors of the adrenal gland or ovary, Cushing’s syndrome, or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

      In summary, hirsutism is a common condition in women, with PCOS being the most common cause. Proper evaluation and diagnosis are crucial to ensure appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 189 - A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of swelling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of swelling in his ankles and fluid-filled blisters around his feet that burst easily. He has a history of Crohn's disease that has been bothering him for a long time. Upon examination, he appears normal except for a urinalysis that shows 2+ protein. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions Associated with Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can lead to various medical conditions. One of these conditions is amyloidosis, which occurs when extracellular protein deposits disrupt normal organ function. This can result in nephrotic syndrome, characterized by protein in the urine and edema. While cardiac disease is uncommon in Crohn’s disease, it can occur and may present as congestive heart failure. Cirrhosis of the liver is also a potential complication, particularly in cases of primary sclerosing cholangitis. However, there is no indication of liver failure in the presented case. Nephritic syndrome, which involves protein and blood in the urine, is not the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. While cutaneous manifestations such as blisters can occur in Crohn’s disease, pemphigus is a rare association and is not the likely cause of the patient’s edema and proteinuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 190 - A 30-year-old female presents after her partner encouraged her to see the GP....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents after her partner encouraged her to see the GP. She has had hyperarousal to loud noises and difficulty concentrating at work following a car accident 4 weeks ago. Her partner did some reading online and feels she is suffering from an acute stress disorder. You advise her that she has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and discuss treatment options. She asks what the difference is, so that she can explain it to her partner. You advise there are similarities in the presentation and the main difference is temporal.

      At what point after the event can you confirm a diagnosis of PTSD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is characterized by an acute stress reaction that occurs within 4 weeks of a traumatic event, while PTSD is diagnosed after 4 weeks have passed. Symptoms presented at 2 weeks would indicate acute stress disorder. PTSD and acute stress disorder share similar symptoms, including re-experiencing, avoidance, hyperarousal, and emotional numbing. Re-experiencing symptoms may include flashbacks, nightmares, and intrusive images, while avoidance symptoms may involve avoiding people, situations, or circumstances associated with the traumatic event. Hyperarousal symptoms may include hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response, sleep disturbances, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. Emotional numbing may manifest as a lack of ability to experience feelings or feeling detached.

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.

      The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 191 - Mary comes to see you for a medication review. She is a 65-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Mary comes to see you for a medication review. She is a 65-year-old woman, with a past medical history of chronic kidney disease stage 3, hypertension and gout. Her current medication are amlodipine 10 mg daily and allopurinol 100 mg daily. Her blood pressure today is 151/93 mmHg. A recent urine dip was normal and her blood results are shown in the table below.

      Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 27 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 130 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      eGFR 55 ml/min/1.73m2 (>90)

      What changes should you make to her medications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue current medications, add ramipril

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing poorly controlled hypertension, despite being on the maximum dose of a calcium channel blocker. Additionally, he has established renal disease and his clinic blood pressure readings consistently exceed 140/90. To address this, it is recommended to add either an ACE inhibitor, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker, or a thiazide-like diuretic to his current medication regimen. Simply relying on lifestyle modifications will not be sufficient to bring his blood pressure under control. Therefore, combination therapy with amlodipine should be continued.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 192 - A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He has a history of angina and takes isosorbide mononitrate. What is the most suitable initial treatment option in this scenario? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alprostadil

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Erectile Dysfunction: Alprostadil, Tadalafil, Penile Prosthesis, and Psychosexual Counselling

      Erectile dysfunction affects a significant percentage of men, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition shares the same risk factors as cardiovascular disease. The usual first-line treatment with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, as concurrent use can lead to severe hypotension or even death. Therefore, alternative treatment options are available.

      Alprostadil is an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction, either topically or in the form of an intracavernosal injection. It is the most appropriate treatment to offer where PDE5 inhibitors are ineffective or for people who find PDE5 inhibitors ineffective.

      Tadalafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction. It lasts longer than sildenafil, which can help improve spontaneity. However, it is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, and a second-line treatment, such as alprostadil, should be used.

      A penile prosthesis is a rare third-line option if both PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil are either ineffective or inappropriate. It involves the insertion of a fluid-filled reservoir under the abdominal wall, with a pump and a release valve in the scrotum, that are used to inflate two implanted cylinders in the penis.

      Psychosexual counselling is recommended for treatment of psychogenic erectile dysfunction or in those men with severe psychological distress. It is not recommended for routine treatment, but studies have shown that psychotherapy is just as effective as vacuum devices and penile prosthesis.

      In summary, treatment options for erectile dysfunction include alprostadil, tadalafil, penile prosthesis, and psychosexual counselling, depending on the individual’s needs and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 193 - An 77-year-old-man presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent right ear pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 77-year-old-man presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent right ear pain and discharge. He was previously diagnosed with otitis externa and prescribed antibiotic ear drops by a colleague, followed by further antibiotic drops and tramadol by an out of hours doctor. However, his symptoms have not improved and the pain has become unbearable.

      The patient has a medical history of type-2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, and takes metformin, gliclazide, ramipril, and atorvastatin regularly. He has no known drug allergies and doesn't smoke or drink alcohol.

      Upon examination, debris is observed in the right ear canal, but the tympanic membrane remains visible. There is no erythema of the pinna or mastoid swelling, and cranial nerve examination is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to on-call ENT team

      Explanation:

      If a patient with otitis externa experiences worsening pain that doesn’t respond to strong painkillers, it is important to refer them urgently to an ENT specialist. This is especially true if the patient has a history of diabetes, as they are at a higher risk of developing malignant (necrotising) otitis externa. In advanced stages, this condition can cause facial nerve palsy on the same side as the affected ear. Treatment typically involves a long course of intravenous antibiotics, which is why prompt ENT assessment is crucial.

      While oral antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin may be prescribed alongside ear drops if there is concern about deep tissue infection, most patients will require IV antibiotics. However, the priority in this situation is to escalate the case to an ENT specialist rather than focusing on pain relief or swabbing the ear canal. It is also important to avoid syringing the ear, as this can worsen the condition.

      Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection

      Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.

      Key features in the patient’s history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and persistent ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and facial nerve dysfunction.

      Diagnosis is typically done through a CT scan, and non-resolving otitis externa with worsening pain should be referred urgently to an ENT specialist. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonas infections.

      In summary, malignant otitis externa is a rare but serious infection that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with diabetes or immunosuppression should be particularly vigilant for symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience persistent ear pain or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 194 - Which of the following congenital infections is most commonly associated with sensorineural hearing...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following congenital infections is most commonly associated with sensorineural hearing loss in newborns?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The condition known as congenital rubella can lead to both sensorineural deafness and congenital cataracts.

      Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus

      Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three most common congenital infections encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Of these, cytomegalovirus is the most common in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.

      Each of these infections can cause different characteristic features in newborns. Rubella can cause sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, glaucoma, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, low birth weight, and purpuric skin lesions. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cerebral palsy, anaemia, and microcephaly. Cytomegalovirus can cause visual impairment, learning disability, encephalitis/seizures, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, jaundice, and cerebral palsy.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early detection and treatment can help prevent or minimize the health problems associated with these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 195 - A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has been experiencing difficulty urinating. Upon further questioning, he describes urinary hesitancy, a weak stream, occasional dribbling, and a sensation of incomplete emptying. These symptoms are causing him distress to the point where he avoids going out in public. Upon examination, you note a smooth enlarged prostate and decide to send blood for PSA testing and a urine specimen for culture. The results come back clear, and his PSA level is 3.8 ng/ml (normal age-adjusted range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An alpha-blocker is the first-line treatment in this patient group

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Here are some common treatment options and their effectiveness:

      Alpha-blockers: These medications, such as tamsulosin, relax smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms.

      Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP): Surgery is reserved for patients with bladder outflow obstruction or in those in whom medical therapy fails.

      Finasteride: This medication shrinks the prostate, but the benefit is seen over weeks to months.

      Prostate biopsy: This should be considered in the investigation of prostate cancer, but is not necessary in this patient with normal PSA and examination findings.

      Saw palmetto: This herbal remedy is not more effective than placebo and is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 196 - A 25-year-old lady comes to the clinic with a complaint of sticky, painless,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old lady comes to the clinic with a complaint of sticky, painless, red right eye, accompanied by yellowish-green ocular discharge that has been present for three weeks. Despite using topical antibiotics, there has been no improvement. Upon examination, follicular tarsal conjunctivitis is observed, along with right pre-auricular lymphadenopathy. Her visual acuity is 6/6 on Snellen chart in both eyes. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her urgently to an ophthalmologist

      Explanation:

      Chlamydial Conjunctivitis: A Case for Prompt Referral

      The presented case of a young patient with non-responsive conjunctivitis, ocular discharge, and pre-auricular lymphadenopathy should raise suspicion for chlamydial conjunctivitis. Therefore, a prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for further examination, investigation, and treatment is necessary. Once confirmed, management can be done jointly with a genito-urinary medicine specialist (GUM).

      It is crucial to identify and treat chlamydial conjunctivitis promptly to prevent complications such as corneal scarring and vision loss. Therefore, clinicians should have a high index of suspicion for this condition, especially in sexually active individuals. Referral to an ophthalmologist and GUM specialist can ensure comprehensive management and prevent further spread of the infection. Proper education and counseling on safe sex practices should also be provided to prevent future occurrences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 197 - What is the purpose of a study that examines the knowledge and attitudes...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of a study that examines the knowledge and attitudes of general practitioners in the north east of England (35 GPs from five practices) towards impaired glucose tolerance, as evidenced by quotes such as I think we all probably fight shy of diagnosing too many people with impaired glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Results of this sort of research are presented as themes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Attitudes: An Example of Qualitative Research

      Qualitative research is a valuable tool for exploring attitudes. Researchers conduct semi-structured interviews with individuals and focus groups to identify themes that emerge from the data. The number of participants needed is determined by the point at which no new themes arise. In this study, the researchers found 35 subjects to be sufficient. Selection bias is not a concern in qualitative research, as participants are chosen based on their interest in the topic. While generalizability may be limited, the north east of England is similar enough to the rest of the UK to draw meaningful conclusions. Unlike quantitative research, statistics are not used in qualitative research. However, the themes that emerge can be used to create variables for a formal survey, which can be used to further test the findings with numerical data. Overall, qualitative research provides a rich understanding of attitudes and can serve as a foundation for more quantitative studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 198 - A 23-year-old female presents with severe right-sided ear pain, muffled hearing, and watery...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents with severe right-sided ear pain, muffled hearing, and watery discharge for the past 3 days. The patient also reports intense itching in the affected ear. Upon examination, the tympanic membrane is intact, but the external auditory canal is inflamed, red, and swollen with purulent debris and wax. Pulling the pinna causes the patient significant pain. The mastoid process is normal and not tender to palpation. Rinne's and Weber's tests confirm conductive hearing loss. What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotic + a topical steroid for 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management

      Otitis externa is a prevalent condition that often prompts primary care visits in the UK. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and can be caused by bacterial or fungal infections, seborrhoeic dermatitis, or contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger for otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal may appear red, swollen, or eczematous.

      The recommended initial management for otitis externa is the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. If there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, and if the canal is extensively swollen, an ear wick may be inserted. Second-line options include taking a swab inside the ear canal, considering contact dermatitis secondary to neomycin, or using oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin if the infection is spreading. Empirical use of an antifungal agent may also be considered.

      It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, they should be referred to an ENT specialist. Malignant otitis externa is a more severe form of the condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics. While some ENT doctors disagree, concerns about ototoxicity may arise with the use of aminoglycosides in patients with perforated tympanic membranes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 199 - A 70-year-old man presents with faecal incontinence and diarrhoea, which he finds embarrassing....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with faecal incontinence and diarrhoea, which he finds embarrassing. He has a history of irregular bowel movements but has never experienced this before. He was recently prescribed codeine for knee osteoarthritis. What is the most probable cause of his faecal incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation with overflow

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Faecal Incontinence

      Faecal incontinence, or the inability to control bowel movements, can have various underlying causes. One of the strongest predictors of faecal incontinence is chronic diarrhoea, which can be caused by conditions such as irritable bowel syndrome, inflammatory bowel disease, lactose intolerance, and others. Another possible cause is constipation with overflow, where the patient is prone to constipation and may experience incontinence due to the addition of certain medications like codeine.

      Laxative abuse, although it can lead to diarrhoea, is not necessarily a direct cause of faecal incontinence. Cerebrovascular disease may also contribute to incontinence, but there is no indication of this in the given scenario. Haemorrhoids, which can result from chronic constipation, typically cause rectal bleeding and pain but are not commonly associated with faecal incontinence. Prostatic disease may contribute to constipation but is less likely to cause faecal incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 200 - What is the single correct statement concerning essential tremor from the list provided?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement concerning essential tremor from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tremor may be worsened by medication

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tremors: Causes and Treatment Options

      Tremors can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication such as lithium, tricyclic antidepressants, metoclopramide, and bronchodilators. However, the most common type of tremor seen in general practice is essential tremor, which is worsened by posture and movement but relieved by rest. This type of tremor can affect various parts of the body, including the head, neck, jaw, and voice.

      In contrast, Parkinsonian tremor is present at rest. When it comes to treating essential tremor, β blockers are typically the first-line option. If these are not suitable, primidone may be tried, although it can cause sedation. Unfortunately, up to half of patients do not respond to these treatments or cannot tolerate them. In such cases, topiramate may be a viable alternative for long-term management.

      Occasionally, short-term treatment with alprazolam or clonazepam may be used to alleviate tremors caused by tension or anxiety. However, these medications can cause sedation and may be habit-forming. Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for tremors can help patients manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
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