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  • Question 1 - A 14-month-old baby boy receives his first MMR vaccine. If any side-effects occur,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old baby boy receives his first MMR vaccine. If any side-effects occur, what are the most probable symptoms?

      Your Answer: Malaise, fever and rash: occurs after 2-3 days and lasts around 1-2 days

      Correct Answer: Malaise, fever and rash: occurs after 5-10 days and lasts around 2-3 days

      Explanation:

      MMR Vaccine: Information on Administration, Contraindications, and Adverse Effects

      The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule for children.

      However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.

      While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, some adverse effects may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to note that the benefits of the MMR vaccine far outweigh the risks, as it protects against serious and potentially life-threatening diseases.

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  • Question 2 - You are contacted about an otherwise well 9-year-old child who is a patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are contacted about an otherwise well 9-year-old child who is a patient of yours. His primary school has flagged to you that he is often absent from class, appears withdrawn and is keen to cover up areas of his limbs, which he says is due to eczema, when he is doing sport.

      The school nurse has contacted you because he has extensive bruising to his buttocks with evidence of grip marks. You are concerned about non-accidental injury.

      What is first line recommended management?

      Your Answer: Advise the nurse to obtain the opinion of another member of staff in the first instance

      Correct Answer: You should arrange for the child to be referred to a paediatrician or social services immediately

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for GPs on Suspected Child Abuse Cases

      Department of Health guidelines state that only a paediatrician is qualified to diagnose physical or sexual abuse, not a GP. It is important for GPs to maintain links with the family as they will have to continue a relationship with them in the future. If a child is in imminent danger, they should be removed to a place of safety. GPs are not responsible for confronting the parents themselves as it is possible for another factor, such as bullying, to be responsible for the signs and symptoms seen. If hospital admission or urgent paediatric review is not necessary, the child should be flagged to social services.

      To summarize, GPs should be cautious when dealing with suspected child abuse cases and follow the guidelines set by the Department of Health. It is important to prioritize the safety of the child and maintain a professional relationship with the family.

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  • Question 3 - A 15-year-old girl came to the clinic with her older sister, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl came to the clinic with her older sister, complaining of foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Upon taking a detailed medical history, it was revealed that the discharge started three weeks ago, after she returned from a trip to Sudan where she had a celebration to mark her transition into womanhood. Initially hesitant to undergo a vaginal examination, she eventually agreed after her sister's persuasion. During the examination, you observe indications that suggest female genital mutilation (FGM). You discover that she has a younger sister at home. What would be the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer: Advise the child to call the police

      Correct Answer: Call the police to make a report, refer all children urgently to social services and treat the infection

      Explanation:

      If you come across a case of Female Genital Mutilation (FGM) in a female under the age of 18, it is important to report it to the police immediately. FGM is considered a form of child abuse and violence, and is illegal in England and Wales. This can be reported either by the child themselves or through physical examination.

      It is crucial to take action as doing nothing is not an option when it comes to child abuse and the safety of other children. A safeguarding alert alone is not sufficient, as there is a mandatory reporting duty for healthcare professionals who encounter a confirmed case of FGM.

      There is no need to contact the parents for further information as physical evidence has already been observed. It is also not appropriate to advise the child to call the police, as they are vulnerable and it is the duty of healthcare professionals to provide assistance.

      Understanding Female Genital Mutilation

      Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a practice that involves the partial or total removal of the external female genitalia or other forms of injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. This practice is classified into four types by the World Health Organization (WHO). Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while Type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.

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  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old boy has developed a maculopapular rash. His mother wants to know...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy has developed a maculopapular rash. His mother wants to know what condition he has developed.
      Which of the following features is most suggestive of a diagnosis of rubella rather than measles?

      Your Answer: Suboccipital and post-auricular lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Identifying Rubella and Measles: Common Symptoms and Differences

      Since the introduction of the MMR vaccine, cases of rubella and measles have become rare. However, it is still important to be able to identify the symptoms of these illnesses. While rubella can be difficult to diagnose due to its fleeting symptoms, cervical, suboccipital, and post-auricular lymphadenopathy are characteristic of the illness and may precede the rash.

      Contrary to popular belief, both rubella and measles have a prodromal phase of lassitude, fever, headache, conjunctivitis, anorexia, and rhinorrhoea, which can be mistaken for a cold. However, symptoms are typically more severe in measles. Additionally, while the rash in rubella is pink and lasts about three days, the rash in measles is darker and fades in three to four days, often leaving a brown discoloration. Both rashes start on the face before spreading.

      It is important to note that patients with measles commonly have a high fever, which is not mentioned in this scenario. Furthermore, Koplik’s spots, small red spots with a white dot in the center, are often found on the mucosa inside the cheek opposite the second molar teeth during the prodromal illness in measles.

      In summary, being able to identify the common symptoms and differences between rubella and measles can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 5 - A child of 14 weeks is scheduled for vaccination. What would be a...

    Correct

    • A child of 14 weeks is scheduled for vaccination. What would be a contraindication to immunization?

      Your Answer: Existing febrile illness

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Contraindications

      Vaccinations are generally safe and effective in preventing infectious diseases. However, certain conditions may raise concerns about the safety of immunisation. It is important to note that febrile convulsions, congenital heart disease, epilepsy in a sibling or first degree relative, and cystic fibrosis are not contraindications to vaccination.

      Nevertheless, appropriate measures should be taken to prevent fever from occurring at the time of immunisation. Any concurrent febrile illness, on the other hand, contraindicates vaccination. It is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for individuals with underlying medical conditions before receiving any vaccines. By doing so, we can ensure that everyone receives the necessary protection against preventable diseases.

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  • Question 6 - A 14-month-old girl presents with rash and high fever.

    A diagnosis of measles is...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old girl presents with rash and high fever.

      A diagnosis of measles is suspected.

      Which one of the following statements is true concerning measles infection?

      Your Answer: Koplik spots are pathognomonic

      Correct Answer: The erythematous maculopapular rash usually starts on the hands

      Explanation:

      Measles: Key Points to Remember

      – Prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles.
      – Koplik spots are a unique symptom of measles.
      – Erythromycin doesn’t reduce the duration of measles.
      – The MMR vaccine is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age.
      – The rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious complications, particularly in young children. It is important to remember that prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles, and erythromycin doesn’t shorten the duration of the illness. One unique symptom of measles is the presence of Koplik spots, which are small white spots that appear on the inside of the mouth. The MMR vaccine is the most effective way to prevent measles and is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age. Finally, it is important to note that the rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.

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  • Question 7 - You see a 10-year-old child in afternoon surgery. He presents with pain over...

    Correct

    • You see a 10-year-old child in afternoon surgery. He presents with pain over his left tibia. Although he plays football with his friends regularly, there is no history of significant injury.

      Which one of the following would be a red-flag prompting early referral?

      Your Answer: History of a bruise over the site

      Explanation:

      Bone Tumours and Osteochondrosis: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Rest pain, back pain, and unexplained limp may indicate the presence of a bone tumour and require immediate attention from a paediatrician. In such cases, referral or x-ray may be necessary to determine the cause of the symptoms. Osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercles, previously known as Osgood-Schlatters syndrome, typically presents with bilateral tibial tuberosity pain that subsides with rest.

      Bone tumours are most commonly found in the limbs, particularly around the knee in the case of osteosarcoma. If persistent localised bone pain and/or swelling is present, an x-ray should be taken to rule out the possibility of a bone tumour. If a bone tumour is suspected, an urgent referral should be made.

      It is important to note that a history of injury should not be assumed to exclude the possibility of a bone sarcoma.

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  • Question 8 - In the case of diaper rash in an infant, what skin care advice...

    Correct

    • In the case of diaper rash in an infant, what skin care advice would be suitable to provide?

      Your Answer: Bath the child daily

      Explanation:

      To prevent nappy rash, it is recommended to leave the nappies off for as long as possible and use water or fragrance-free and alcohol-free baby wipes for cleaning. After cleaning, it is important to dry the area gently without rubbing vigorously. Bathing the child daily is also recommended, but excessive bathing (more than twice a day) should be avoided as it may dry out the skin. It is advised not to use soap, bubble bath, or lotions. Additionally, using nappies with high absorbency, such as disposable gel matrix nappies, and changing the child as soon as possible after wetting or soiling can also help prevent nappy rash.

      Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them

      Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.

      To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.

      It is important to note that napkin rash can be uncomfortable for babies and young children, so it is essential to manage it promptly. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and manage napkin rashes effectively.

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  • Question 9 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain, fever, and...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain, fever, and feeling tired. He was seen in the clinic two weeks ago for a sore throat. During the examination, he has a sinus tachycardia, a pink rash in the form of rings on his trunk, and a systolic murmur.
      What is the best diagnosis and treatment plan?

      Your Answer: She has rheumatic fever and should be admitted for appropriate treatment

      Explanation:

      Misdiagnosis of a Heart Murmur: Understanding the Differences between Rheumatic Fever, Lyme Disease, HSP, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, and Scarlet Fever

      A heart murmur can be a concerning symptom, but it is important to correctly diagnose the underlying condition. Rheumatic fever, Lyme disease, Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), juvenile idiopathic arthritis, and scarlet fever can all present with a heart murmur, but each has distinct features that can help differentiate them.

      Rheumatic fever requires the presence of recent streptococcal infection and the fulfilment of Jones criteria, which include major criteria such as carditis, arthritis, Sydenham’s chorea, subcutaneous nodules, and erythema marginatum, as well as minor criteria such as fever, arthralgia, raised ESR or CRP, and prolonged PR interval on an electrocardiogram.

      Lyme disease presents with erythema migrans, arthralgia, and other symptoms depending on the stage of the disease, but a heart murmur is not a typical feature.

      HSP is characterised by purpura, arthritis, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, orchitis, and nephritis.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is chronic arthritis occurring before the age of 16 years that lasts for at least six weeks in the absence of any other cause, and may involve few or many joints, with additional features in some subsets, but it should not present with a heart murmur.

      Scarlet fever is characterised by a widespread red rash, fever, tachycardia, myalgia, and circumoral pallor, rather than joint pain.

      In summary, a heart murmur can be a symptom of various conditions, but a thorough evaluation of other symptoms and criteria is necessary to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 10 - A 6-month-old boy is scheduled for his routine immunisations. He has received all...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old boy is scheduled for his routine immunisations. He has received all previous immunisations according to the routine schedule and has no medical history. What vaccinations should he receive during this visit?

      Your Answer: '6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) + Men B

      Explanation:

      PCV in addition to the 6-1 vaccine (which includes protection against diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib, and hepatitis B).

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

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  • Question 11 - For which children is it necessary to defer their polio vaccination and refer...

    Incorrect

    • For which children is it necessary to defer their polio vaccination and refer them to a child specialist for additional guidance?

      Your Answer: A child with spina bifida

      Correct Answer: A child with uncontrolled epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Polio Vaccination and Neurological Conditions

      The Department of Health’s ‘Green Book’ provides guidelines for polio vaccination and neurological conditions. According to the book, stable pre-existing neurological conditions such as spina bifida and congenital brain abnormalities do not prevent polio vaccination. However, if a child has an unstable or deteriorating neurological condition, vaccination should be deferred, and the child should be referred to a specialist for further assessment and advice. This includes children with uncontrolled epilepsy.

      It is important to note that a family history of seizures or epilepsy doesn’t prevent immunization. However, if there is a personal or family history of febrile seizures, there is an increased risk of these occurring after any fever, including post-immunization. In such cases, immunization should proceed as recommended, with advice on the prevention and management of fever beforehand.

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  • Question 12 - A 2-year-old boy is brought to an urgent GP appointment with an acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy is brought to an urgent GP appointment with an acute limp. He is coryzal but apyrexial. There is no history of trauma. He is able to weight bear.

      What is the appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Watchful waiting with safety netting advice

      Correct Answer: Urgent specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      Urgent specialist assessment is needed for a child < 3 years with an acute limp, as septic arthritis is more common than transient synovitis in this age group. Routine paediatric referral, urgent x-ray, and urgent hip ultrasound scan are not appropriate. Causes of Limping in Children Vary by Age When a child is limping, the cause can vary depending on their age. For younger children, transient synovitis is a common cause. This condition has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections, but the child is usually well or has a mild fever. It is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis is a more serious condition that causes a high fever and an unwell child. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis can also cause a limp, which may be painless. Trauma is usually the cause of a limp in children, and the history of the injury can often diagnose the issue. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease is more common in children aged 4-8 years and is caused by avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that occurs in children aged 10-15 years and is caused by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. Understanding the potential causes of a limp in children can help parents and healthcare providers identify and treat the issue promptly.

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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant contacts you to ask for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant contacts you to ask for information about the newborn hearing screening programme. She is concerned about potential harm to her baby's ears and is uncertain about giving consent for this screening.

      What is the screening test that is provided to all newborn infants as part of this programme?

      Your Answer: Auditory brainstem response test

      Correct Answer: Automated otoacoustic emission test

      Explanation:

      The automated otoacoustic emission test is utilized for screening hearing problems in newborns. This test involves inserting a small soft-tipped earpiece in the outer part of a baby’s ear to send clicking sounds down the ear. A healthy cochlea is indicated by the presence of a soft echo.

      The auditory brainstem response test is an incorrect answer. It may be conducted by an audiologist if a baby is not found to have satisfactory hearing during newborn screening with the automated otoacoustic emission test. This test involves placing small sensors on the baby, playing sounds of different frequencies into their ears, and recording the response using a computer.

      Play audiometry is also an incorrect answer. It is suitable for children between two and five years old and not for newborns as the child is required to perform a simple task when they hear a sound.

      Pure tone audiometry is another incorrect answer. It is used in older children (school age) and adults and is not suitable for use in newborns as the patient must respond when they hear a noise by pressing a button.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests using similar-sounding objects like the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test may be used. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? This questionnaire can help identify any potential hearing issues in children. Overall, hearing tests are an important part of ensuring that children are developing normally and can help identify any issues early on.

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  • Question 14 - A mother brings a 7-week-old girl to the practice for a routine 6–8-week...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings a 7-week-old girl to the practice for a routine 6–8-week physical examination.
      Which is the SINGLE option that would normally be carried out at that examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Auscultation of the heart

      Explanation:

      Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns

      Newborns undergo several tests to ensure their health and development. These tests include auscultation of the heart, examination for developmental dysplasia of the hip, congenital cataracts, and undescended testicles. However, some heart murmurs may not be detected until the ductus arteriosus closes early in life. A hearing test, specifically the automated otoacoustic emission test, is often performed before discharge from the hospital or during the first 4-5 weeks of life. The cover test for squint is not usually done during the newborn stage as it requires the child to fixate on an object held away from the eyes. Blood-spot screening for conditions such as congenital hypothyroidism, phenylketonuria, cystic fibrosis, and sickle cell disease is ideally carried out at five days. A urine test is a diagnostic test rather than a screening test at this age and is usually done if a urinary infection is suspected.

      Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns

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  • Question 15 - A mother of a 9-month-old seeks guidance. Initially, she opted out of the...

    Incorrect

    • A mother of a 9-month-old seeks guidance. Initially, she opted out of the oral rotavirus vaccine for her child to limit the number of immunisations. However, due to an outbreak at her baby's daycare, she now desires the vaccine. What should she do?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explain that is no longer safe to give the vaccine to her child

      Explanation:

      The oral rotavirus vaccine must be administered before 15 weeks for the first dose.

      The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Mortality

      Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. The vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.

      The vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%, and is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70%. Additionally, the vaccine provides long-term protection against rotavirus. The introduction of the rotavirus vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood mortality and reducing the burden of rotavirus-related illness.

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  • Question 16 - As part of the UK immunisation schedule, which immunisation is administered to a...

    Incorrect

    • As part of the UK immunisation schedule, which immunisation is administered to a 65-year-old who is in good health?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal

      Explanation:

      Pneumococcal Vaccines

      There are two types of pneumococcal vaccines available – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with a booster at 1 year old. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, particularly those who are 65 years old and above.

      Moreover, individuals with certain medical conditions are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. These include those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, cochlear implants, chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic neurological conditions, diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4/5, chronic liver disease, immunosuppression due to disease or treatment, and complement disorders (including those receiving complement inhibitor treatment).

      Getting vaccinated against pneumococcal disease is important in preventing serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate vaccine and schedule for each individual.

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  • Question 17 - In your morning clinic, a 5-year-old child comes in with her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • In your morning clinic, a 5-year-old child comes in with her mother. She has a rash that has been present for two days on her face and arms. She is otherwise healthy but has mild eczema. The mother reports that the child started with red 'sores' around her mouth, which turned into blisters and then burst. The child was finding the lesions very itchy. The rash then spread to the patches of eczema she had on the dorsal aspects of her wrists.

      Upon examination, the child appears well and her vital signs are normal. She has a red rash around her mouth with a few small blisters and a golden crust. The rash on the dorsal aspects of her hands looks similar.

      You diagnose impetigo and prescribe oral antibiotics. The mother asks if her child needs to stay away from school. What is your advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be excluded until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment

      Explanation:

      To prevent the spread of impetigo, a child should not attend school until their lesions have crusted and healed or until 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment. It is crucial to educate both the child and adults on the importance of hand hygiene, avoiding sharing towels, facecloths, or utensils, and ensuring that toys and play equipment are thoroughly cleaned.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

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  • Question 18 - A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his father. His father reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his father. His father reports that he has been eating less and refusing food for the past few weeks. Despite this his father has noticed that his abdomen is distended and he has developed a 'beer belly'. For the past year he has opened his bowels around once every other day, passing a stool of 'normal' consistency. There are no urinary symptoms. On examination he is on the 50th centile for height and weight. His abdomen is soft but slightly distended and a non-tender ballotable mass can be felt on the left side. His father has tried lactulose but there has no significant improvement. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speak to a local paediatrician

      Explanation:

      The evidence for the history of constipation is not very compelling. It is considered normal for a child to have a bowel movement of normal consistency every other day. However, the crucial aspect of this situation is identifying the abnormal examination finding – a palpable mass accompanied by abdominal distension. While an adult with such a red flag symptom would be expedited, it is more appropriate to consult with a pediatrician to determine the most appropriate referral pathway, which would likely involve a clinic review within the same week.

      Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy

      Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.

      If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.

      Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.

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  • Question 19 - A 4-year-old boy’s mother is worried about his foreskin not retracting. Ballooning of...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy’s mother is worried about his foreskin not retracting. Ballooning of the foreskin occurs during urination, but the penis appears normal. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physiological phimosis

      Explanation:

      Common Male Genital Conditions

      Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis. Physiological phimosis is normal in newborns and usually resolves by 10 years of age. Treatment for pathological phimosis may include topical medication or circumcision if recurrent infections occur. Balanoposthitis is inflammation of the glans and foreskin, often caused by infection or inflammation. Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral opening is on the underside of the penis, and the foreskin may be underdeveloped. Posterior urethral valves are membranes in the posterior urethra that can cause obstruction and frequent infections in boys.

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  • Question 20 - A 6-year-old girl presents with a 4-day history of genital itching, redness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents with a 4-day history of genital itching, redness, and discomfort that worsens during urination. She is asymptomatic otherwise and has normal vital signs. What is the best initial approach to managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hygiene advice

      Explanation:

      For pre-pubertal girls with vulvovaginitis and no red flags, general measures should be attempted before further investigations. The most appropriate measure is providing hygiene advice, which includes wiping from front to back, maintaining hand hygiene, wearing loose cotton underwear, and avoiding irritants such as soaps, bubble baths, and laundry detergents. Vinegar baths and barrier creams may also be helpful. Clotrimazole pessary, oral metronidazole, and oral trimethoprim are not recommended for this age group and scenario. It is important to note that vulvovaginitis in young girls often resolves on its own as they grow older.

      Gynaecological Problems in Children: Vulvovaginitis

      In children, gynaecological problems are not uncommon, and vulvovaginitis is the most prevalent disorder. This condition is often caused by poor hygiene, tight clothing, lack of labial fat pads protecting the vaginal orifice, and lack of protective acid secretion found in the reproductive years. Bacterial or fungal organisms may be responsible for the infection, and in rare cases, sexual abuse may present as vulvovaginitis. If there is a bloody discharge, it is essential to consider a foreign body.

      It is not recommended to perform vaginal examinations or vaginal swabs on children. Instead, referral to a paediatric gynaecologist is appropriate for persistent problems. Most newborn girls have some mucoid white vaginal discharge, which usually disappears by three months of age.

      The management of vulvovaginitis includes advising the child about hygiene, using soothing creams, and applying topical antibiotics or antifungals. In resistant cases, oestrogen cream may be necessary. It is crucial to seek medical attention if the symptoms persist or worsen.

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  • Question 21 - A worried father brings his 14 month old child into the clinic, concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A worried father brings his 14 month old child into the clinic, concerned that he is not walking. He says that many other children his age in his playgroup are already walking but his child is still crawling.

      At what age would you consider referring a child who is not yet walking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18 months

      Explanation:

      Further assessment should be sought if a child is unable to walk without support by the age of 18 months.

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor developmental milestones refer to the physical abilities that a child acquires as they grow and develop. These milestones are important indicators of a child’s overall development and can help parents and healthcare professionals identify any potential delays or concerns. The table below summarizes the major gross motor developmental milestones from 3 months to 4 years of age.

      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a sitting position and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to crawl and pull themselves to a standing position. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. Finally, at 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. By monitoring a child’s gross motor developmental milestones, parents and healthcare professionals can ensure that they are meeting their developmental goals and identify any potential concerns early on.

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  • Question 22 - Liam is a 6-year-old boy who visits you with his father complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 6-year-old boy who visits you with his father complaining of dysuria, frequency, and fever. During the urine dip test, nitrites and leukocytes are detected. Liam has no known allergies and is in good health otherwise. You decide to prescribe trimethoprim (50 mg/5ml). His current weight is 20 kg. According to the BNF, the recommended dosage is 4 mg/kg trimethoprim twice daily. What volume will you instruct his father to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.5mls BD

      Explanation:

      Sam should be prescribed antibiotics for her lower UTI symptoms. According to the BNF, the recommended treatment dosage is 4 mg/kg twice a day. Since Sam weighs 18.8 kg, her dosage would be 75 mg twice a day. If the solution contains 50 mg of trimethoprim in 5mls, then Sam’s dosage would be 7.5mls of solution twice a day.

      Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.

      According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.

      Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

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  • Question 23 - Under what circumstances is it safe to administer the MMR (measles, mumps, and...

    Incorrect

    • Under what circumstances is it safe to administer the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Child with congenital heart disease

      Explanation:

      Circumstances When MMR Vaccination is Contraindicated

      1. Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to Gelatin:
        • Contraindication: The MMR vaccine contains gelatin as a stabilizer. Individuals with a previous confirmed anaphylactic reaction to gelatin should not receive the MMR vaccine due to the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
      2. Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to MMR Vaccination:
        • Contraindication: If a person has had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the MMR vaccine, it is contraindicated to administer the vaccine again. An alternative plan should be discussed with an allergist or immunologist.
      3. Pregnant Woman:
        • Contraindication: The MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the potential risk to the developing fetus. Women are advised to wait at least one month after receiving the MMR vaccine before becoming pregnant.
      4. Severely Immunosuppressed Individual:
        • Contraindication: Individuals who are severely immunosuppressed (e.g., due to chemotherapy, high-dose corticosteroids, or advanced HIV/AIDS) should not receive the MMR vaccine. The live attenuated viruses in the vaccine could potentially cause disease in these individuals.

      Circumstances When MMR Vaccination is Safe

      1. Child with Congenital Heart Disease:
        • Safe to Administer: Children with congenital heart disease can safely receive the MMR vaccine. Congenital heart disease itself is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine, and these children should be protected from measles, mumps, and rubella, which could potentially be more severe if contracted.

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  • Question 24 - A 6-year-old girl has been suffering from constipation and soiling for many months...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl has been suffering from constipation and soiling for many months and her mother feels that something needs to be done now that she is starting school. She was born after a normal delivery and had no problems until the age of three. On physical examination, the only obvious abnormality is a loaded colon.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check for related symptoms of systemic disease

      Explanation:

      Approach to Constipation in Children: Consider Systemic Disease and Avoid Stimulant Laxatives and Enemas

      Constipation in children can have various organic causes, such as anorectal malformations, but when a systemic disease is the underlying issue, other symptoms of that disease are likely to be present. Therefore, it is important to check for related symptoms of systemic disease. For instance, hypothyroidism may cause constipation along with a goitre, slow growth, weight gain, and intolerance to cold. Diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus may cause constipation due to associated polyuria.

      Stimulant laxatives may be necessary in some cases, but macrogols should be the first-line treatment for constipation in children. Hirschsprung’s disease is a possible cause of chronic constipation, but it usually presents early in life, and functional constipation is more common. Reassuring parents that their child will grow out of constipation is not advisable, as prompt treatment can help resolve symptoms sooner.

      Enemas should be avoided if possible, as they can cause emotional and physical trauma. If necessary, the child should be admitted to the hospital for this procedure. Overall, a thorough evaluation of the child’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the best approach to managing constipation.

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  • Question 25 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the walk-in-clinic by his mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the walk-in-clinic by his mother due to feeling unwell for the past week. The mother reports that her son has been very tired, appears to have lost weight, and has been bruising easily. Upon reviewing his medical records, you discover that he has had multiple chest infections in the last 2 months. During the examination, you observe that he is breathless, has a fever, and has a purplish skin rash on his limbs. He looks extremely ill. You decide to admit him directly to the paediatric assessment unit. What is the most likely condition he is suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The cure rate for acute lymphoblastic leukemia is high, with most patients achieving complete remission. Symptoms typically start off gradually but can quickly become severe, causing the child to feel extremely unwell. Common symptoms include fatigue, shortness of breath, weakness, fever, swollen lymph nodes, possible enlargement of organs, and a rash characterized by purple spots.

      Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.

      Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.

      Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.

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  • Question 26 - A 10-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma treatment. She is currently using salbutamol inhaler as needed and Symbicort 100/6 (budesonide 100 micrograms/formoterol 6 micrograms) two puffs twice a day. She has been using these inhalers for the past six months. Before that, she was using salbutamol as needed and budesonide 200 micrograms twice a day. The Symbicort was added to her regimen to include a long-acting beta2 agonist as she was using her salbutamol once or twice a day. Despite the addition of the long-acting beta2 agonist, she still experiences occasional tightness in her chest and nighttime coughing. She uses her salbutamol inhaler an average of three to four times a week. Her parents confirm that she is compliant with her inhalers and her inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate management plan for her current asthma treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add in a leukotriene receptor antagonist to her current treatment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Ladder for Asthma in a 9-Year-Old Child

      Here we have a 9-year-old child with asthma who is currently on a regular inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) + long acting beta2 agonist (LABA) combination inhaler and salbutamol as needed. Despite some improvement with the regular inhaled ICS+LABA, the child is still requiring salbutamol quite frequently.

      To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the best recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step would be to trial a leukotriene receptor antagonist. If the addition of the LABA had not yielded any clinical benefit, then it should be stopped. However, since it has proved to be somewhat helpful, it should be continued.

      In summary, the treatment ladder for asthma in a 9-year-old child involves gradually increasing the level of medication until symptoms are controlled. The addition of a leukotriene receptor antagonist may be the next step in this process.

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  • Question 27 - Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with the exception of inherited ataxias. On the other hand, structural conditions are often inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, although there are exceptions such as Gilbert’s syndrome and hyperlipidemia type II.

      Autosomal recessive conditions are often referred to as metabolic conditions, while autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural. However, there are notable exceptions to this rule. For example, some metabolic conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD are X-linked recessive, while some structural conditions like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia are autosomal recessive.

      Autosomal recessive conditions occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. Some examples of autosomal recessive conditions include albinism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and Wilson’s disease. These conditions can affect various systems in the body, including metabolism, blood, and the nervous system. It is important to note that some conditions, such as Gilbert’s syndrome, are still a matter of debate and may be listed as autosomal dominant in some textbooks.

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  • Question 28 - Rohan is a 9-month-old baby who is brought in by his dad. He...

    Incorrect

    • Rohan is a 9-month-old baby who is brought in by his dad. He has developed an eczema type rash on his body and has more loose stools. His dad noticed these changes after he started weaning. Prior to this he was exclusively breastfed. On examination he is well, except for mild eczema. You suspect a diagnosis of cow's milk protein allergy.

      Which of the following milks could Rohan also be intolerant of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Soya milk

      Explanation:

      Babies with cow’s milk protein allergy may also have an intolerance to soya milk. The primary milk alternatives used for such babies are extensively hydrolysed formula and alpha amino acid formula. Oat and almond milk are not advised for babies with this allergy, although there is no evidence of any adverse reactions to them.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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  • Question 29 - You see a 4-year-old boy with his mother. She reported that he slipped...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 4-year-old boy with his mother. She reported that he slipped while being bathed and hit his head on the side of the bathtub. She reports he cried afterwards but returned to normal soon after. He had no other symptoms such as vomiting, loss of consciousness, or drowsiness. The examination was normal.

      Which of the following features would alert you most to the possibility of child maltreatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A delayed presentation to healthcare services

      Explanation:

      Signs of Child Maltreatment in Healthcare Settings

      Young children may exhibit shyness and clinginess to their parents during consultations, which is a normal behavior. However, excessive clinginess may be a sign of child maltreatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this possibility and to observe the child’s behavior during consultations.

      Children may also be difficult to console during illness or after an injury, which is not necessarily an indicator of maltreatment. However, healthcare providers should be alert to any unusual patterns of presentation, such as frequent attendance or unusually late presentations, which may suggest the possibility of maltreatment.

      Head injuries are common in children due to their high activity levels and poor sense of danger. Healthcare providers should be aware of the possibility of maltreatment if the child presents with repeated head injuries.

      Finally, failure to ensure access to appropriate medical care, such as missing hospital appointments or not giving essential medications, should also raise suspicion of maltreatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be vigilant and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities.

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  • Question 30 - A newly pregnant, but otherwise healthy, patient asks about immunisations required during pregnancy.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A newly pregnant, but otherwise healthy, patient asks about immunisations required during pregnancy.
      Which of the following immunisations are specifically recommended from 20 weeks gestation - to be administered at any time of year?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcus

      Explanation:

      Immunisations in Pregnancy

      Pregnant women are advised to get immunised against influenza and pertussis, but there are some differences to note. The influenza vaccine is recommended during flu season and can be taken at any stage of pregnancy. On the other hand, the pertussis vaccine is recommended from 16 weeks and can be taken at any time of the year.

      It is important for candidates to understand these differences and advise their patients accordingly. While there is no specific recommendation to immunise healthy pregnant women against HPV, MenACWY or pneumococcus, it is always best to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for each individual case. By staying informed and up-to-date on immunisation recommendations, candidates can provide the best care for their patients during pregnancy.

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  • Question 31 - At the 4-month baby check, a mother who has been exclusively breastfeeding tells...

    Incorrect

    • At the 4-month baby check, a mother who has been exclusively breastfeeding tells you that she thinks she will find bottle feeding more convenient. She is thinking of stopping breastfeeding. However, there are several medical advantages for breastfed children over those who are not breastfed, and you wish to inform her of these benefits.
      Which condition on this list does the evidence suggest that breastfeeding has the STRONGEST protective effect against?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding and its Effects on Infant Health: A Comprehensive Overview

      Breastfeeding has numerous benefits for infant health, including protection against sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), many infections, childhood obesity, and future type 1 and 2 diabetes. While exclusive breastfeeding has the strongest protective effect against SIDS, any amount of breastfeeding can confer some protection. However, there is no evidence that exclusive breastfeeding protects against atopic eczema.

      Breastfeeding may also affect neonatal jaundice. Breastfeeding jaundice, which occurs before the mother’s milk supply is fully developed, can make physiological jaundice appear worse. Breastmilk jaundice, on the other hand, is different and typically peaks between days 5 and 15 before becoming normal after week 3. It may persist up to age 3 months, and its cause is unclear.

      Breastfeeding may also have implications for maternal bacterial infections, including tuberculosis. If the mother develops tuberculosis, temporarily stopping breastfeeding may be appropriate, but anti-tuberculosis drugs are safe for use with breastfeeding. Breastmilk is also low in vitamin D, so breastfed infants may need to receive vitamin D drops from 1 month of age if their mother has not taken supplements during pregnancy. This is particularly important for mothers at high risk of vitamin D deficiency.

      Overall, breastfeeding has numerous benefits for infant health, but it is important to be aware of its potential implications for certain conditions.

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  • Question 32 - A 6-month-old is brought to your clinic with suspected reflux. The parents report...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old is brought to your clinic with suspected reflux. The parents report that the baby has been experiencing regurgitation after feeds and becomes very distressed. The baby is fully formula-fed and has been difficult to feed. However, the baby is gaining weight well and is otherwise healthy. There is a family history of reflux, with the baby's older sibling having had reflux in infancy. Upon examination, the baby doesn't have tongue-tie, has a normal suck-reflex, and the abdominal examination is reassuring. What steps should be taken to address the suspected reflux?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of alginate added to the formula

      Explanation:

      While positional management of gastro-oesophageal reflux may seem logical, it is important to note that infants should always sleep on their backs to minimize the risk of cot death. Although there are no concerning symptoms, it is advisable to provide treatment for the child’s distress. It is not recommended to increase the volume of feeds as this may exacerbate reflux. Instead, smaller and more frequent feeds could be considered. Diluting the feeds will not improve symptoms and may actually increase the volume in the stomach.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

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  • Question 33 - A father brings his 3-month-old baby to the pediatrician's office, reporting that the...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 3-month-old baby to the pediatrician's office, reporting that the infant has been vomiting and regurgitating after every feeding with a cow's milk-based formula. The vomiting is not forceful, and there is no unusual coloration with blood or bile. The baby doesn't appear to be in significant distress, but the father has also noticed that the child has persistent diarrhea. The father had to switch to formula as the mother was unable to produce enough breast milk. He tried a soy milk-based formula on the advice of a friend, but it did not make any difference.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extensive hydrolysed formula milk

      Explanation:

      Soya milk may not be a suitable alternative for infants with cow’s milk protein allergy as many of them are also intolerant to it. Amino acid-based formula is the recommended management for severe cases or when extensive hydrolysed formula milk is ineffective.

      Breastfeeding is encouraged if the mother eliminates cows milk proteins from her diet, but it may not be practical if she cannot produce enough milk for the child. For infants with mild to moderate cows milk protein allergy who are formula-fed, extensive hydrolysed milk formula is the first-line management.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD) may be managed with omeprazole or ranitidine, but only after a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy. However, if the infant presents with persistent diarrhoea, cow’s milk protein allergy is a more likely diagnosis than GORD.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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  • Question 34 - A woman presents with her child who has a congenital heart disease and...

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents with her child who has a congenital heart disease and was born prematurely at 34 weeks.

      Which of these statements is true in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Live vaccines can be given at the same time

      Explanation:

      Vaccination for Children with Congenital Heart Diseases

      Children with congenital heart diseases should be vaccinated in most situations. There is no contraindication to vaccination unless the child is actively febrile, and vaccination should not be deferred. Even if a child is born prematurely and not adjusted to the predicted date of birth, they should still be vaccinated per the normal schedule. Live vaccines, such as the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR), are given together and do not seem to reduce the immune response. However, single component vaccines for the MMR are not available through the NHS. It is important to prioritize vaccination for children with congenital heart diseases to protect them from preventable diseases.

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  • Question 35 - A parent inquires about the likelihood of their 3-year-old child experiencing another febrile...

    Incorrect

    • A parent inquires about the likelihood of their 3-year-old child experiencing another febrile convulsion after being admitted for one.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ºC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

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  • Question 36 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father complaining of bedwetting...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father complaining of bedwetting at night. He is wetting the bed almost every night. Despite trying to use the toilet before bedtime, limiting fluid intake before bedtime, and implementing a reward system for dry nights, there has been no improvement. What should be the next course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If lifestyle measures and a reward chart have not helped with nocturnal enuresis in a child over the age of 5, the next step would be to consider an enuresis alarm or desmopressin. As the child in this scenario is 6 years-old, the first-line treatment would be to try an enuresis alarm before considering other options. Desmopressin may be used first-line for children over the age of 7 who do not wish to use an enuresis alarm or if a short term solution is needed.

      Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.

      The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 37 - You see a 6-week old baby boy who has infantile colic. His dad...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-week old baby boy who has infantile colic. His dad describes episodes where he cries without any obvious trigger and he is unable to console him. The episodes last about 30 minutes and can occur up to approximately 12 times in 24 hours. He is otherwise very well. He is breastfed with formula top ups feeds in the evening and is gaining weight without any concerns.

      Examination of the infant is normal.

      Which statement below is true regarding infantile colic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infantile colic normally resolves around 6 months of age

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infantile Colic

      Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.

      Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.

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  • Question 38 - Jane, age 14, comes to morning surgery requesting the contraceptive pill. She looks...

    Incorrect

    • Jane, age 14, comes to morning surgery requesting the contraceptive pill. She looks a lot older than her age. You have to decide whether to prescribe or not.

      The Sexual Offences Act 2003 considers children under what age as too young to give consent to sexual activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Under 13 years

      Explanation:

      Child Protection and Sexual Offences

      The Sexual Offences Act 2003 states that children under the age of 13 are not capable of giving consent to sexual activity. Any sexual offence involving a child under 13 should be treated with utmost seriousness. Health professionals should consider referring such cases to social services under the Child Protection Procedures. It is advisable to seek advice from designated child protection professionals in the first instance.

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  • Question 39 - A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Her parents have...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Her parents have attempted a reward system, but there has been no notable progress. What is the best initial approach to management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment for nocturnal enuresis. It is not advisable to limit fluid intake. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, children should consume approximately eight drinks per day, evenly distributed throughout the day, with the last one consumed approximately one hour before bedtime.

      Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.

      The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 40 - A 6-month-old child is brought to see you with a nappy rash.

    On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old child is brought to see you with a nappy rash.

      On examination, the baby has a well defined erythematous rash around the perianal skin and in the skin creases. A few satellite lesions are also noted. The child is otherwise well but has a coated, white tongue.

      What treatment should be prescribed for the nappy rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zinc and castor oil ointment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Candidal Nappy Rash

      Nappy rash is a common problem that affects babies and young children. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the rash to ensure accurate treatment. In the case of candidal nappy rash, the rash is caused by a candidal infection. This type of rash is characterized by well-defined, marginated erythema and the presence of satellite lesions. Papules and pustules may also be present. If the child has oral candidiasis, the chances of developing candidal nappy rash are increased. Understanding the symptoms and causes of candidal nappy rash can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate treatment and prevent further discomfort for the child.

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  • Question 41 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to surgery by his father.
    He has symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to surgery by his father.
      He has symptoms of a moderate depression and has been recommended pharmacological therapy by another health professional. You refer him to the local young people's mental health service for further treatment. His father asks about medication, as he is on citalopram himself for depression.
      What is the recommended first line antidepressant medication for adolescents with moderate depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Children and Young People with Depression

      Children and young people who present with moderate to severe depression should be assessed by a CAMHS team. The first-line treatment for depression in this population is fluoxetine, as it is the only antidepressant for which the benefits outweigh the risks. According to NICE NG134, combined therapy with fluoxetine and psychological therapy should be considered as an alternative to psychological therapy followed by combined therapy for initial treatment of moderate to severe depression in young people aged 12-18 years. Patients taking St John’s wort should be advised to discontinue it when starting antidepressants. Tricyclics should not be used, and citalopram and sertraline are considered suitable second-line treatments.

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  • Question 42 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with Chickenpox. Her father wants...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with Chickenpox. Her father wants to know if she should stay home from school. What is the best advice to give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Should be excluded until all lesions have crusted over

      Explanation:

      Students with Chickenpox must stay out of school until all their lesions have dried up and formed crusts, typically around 5 days after the rash first appears.

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.

      One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.

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  • Question 43 - A 7-month-old girl presents with diarrhoea and vomiting. She has vomited twice and...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old girl presents with diarrhoea and vomiting. She has vomited twice and had about four diarrhoea stools in the previous 24 h. There is no obvious sign of dehydration. She was born at 37 weeks’ gestation with a low birthweight but has gained weight adequately since then.
      What is the most appropriate next management choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral rehydration salt solution should be given

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastroenteritis in Children: Importance of Oral Rehydration Salt Solution

      Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, which can lead to dehydration if not managed properly. While most children do not show signs of dehydration, those at increased risk should be given oral rehydration salt solution as supplemental fluid. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), children at increased risk include infants younger than one year, those who have passed more than five loose stools or vomited more than twice in the previous 24 hours, and those with signs of malnutrition.

      It is important to note that feeding with formula or breast milk should continue if the child can tolerate it. Solid food should not be given, and fruit juices or carbonated drinks should be avoided due to their high osmolarity. While extra fluid intake should generally be encouraged, it may not be enough for children with multiple risk factors for dehydration. Therefore, oral rehydration salt solution should be given as recommended by healthcare professionals.

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  • Question 44 - A father brings in his seven-month-old daughter who has been fussy lately and...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings in his seven-month-old daughter who has been fussy lately and he suspects she may be teething. He has been using over-the-counter pain relief and giving her teething rings to chew on, but he is worried that she may need additional treatment.

      Upon examination, the baby is found to have normal vital signs and no fever, and the diagnosis of teething is confirmed.

      What would be the best course of action at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother and tell her to continue existing treatments

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to prescribe oral choline salicylate gels to teething children as it may increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. However, in this case, reassurance is appropriate as the child’s symptoms are mild and self-limiting. Simple measures such as allowing the child to bite on a cool, clean object and administering paracetamol/ibuprofen suspension for those aged three months and older can be helpful. It is not recommended to use topical anaesthetics or herbal teething powders as they may have adverse effects.

      Teething: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options

      Teething is the process of primary tooth eruption in infants, which typically begins around 6 months of age and is usually complete by 30 months of age. It is characterized by a subacute onset of symptoms, including gingival irritation, parent-reported irritability, and excessive drooling. These symptoms occur in approximately 70% of all children and are equally prevalent in boys and girls, although girls tend to develop their teeth sooner than boys.

      During examination, teeth can typically be felt below the surface of the gums prior to breaking through, and gingival erythema will be noted around the site of early tooth eruption. Treatment options include chewable teething rings and simple analgesia with paracetamol or ibuprofen. However, topical analgesics or numbing agents are not recommended, and oral choline salicylate gels should not be prescribed due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome.

      It is important to note that teething doesn’t cause systemic symptoms such as fevers or diarrhea, and these symptoms should be treated as warning signs of other systemic illness. Additionally, teething necklaces made from amber beads on a cord are a common naturopathic treatment for teething symptoms but represent a significant strangulation and choking hazard. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid their use.

      In conclusion, teething is a clinical diagnosis that can be managed with simple interventions. However, it is essential to be aware of potential hazards and to seek medical attention if systemic symptoms are present.

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  • Question 45 - A mother is worried about the white reflection in her 11-month-old son's eye....

    Incorrect

    • A mother is worried about the white reflection in her 11-month-old son's eye. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE test to detect retinoblastoma in a child? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red reflex test

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Eye Examinations: Tests and Their Significance

      Pediatric eye examinations are crucial for detecting eye diseases and disorders in children. Here are some common tests and their significance:

      Red Reflex Test: This test involves shining a light source from an ophthalmoscope about 50 cm away from the child’s eyes. A bright and equal red reflex should be seen from each pupil. An abnormal red reflex could indicate serious eye diseases such as cataract or retinoblastoma.

      Cover Test: This test is used to detect squint. The child focuses on a near object while a cover is placed briefly over one eye and then removed. The squinting eye will deviate inwards or outwards.

      Corneal Light Reflex Test: This test involves the reflection of a light source off the cornea. In people with normal fixation, its position will be symmetrical in each eye. It is used in an examination for squint.

      Eye Movements: Eye movement testing is used to assess ocular motor function, particularly cranial nerve palsies.

      Visual Acuity: In babies, the ability to follow objects is a guide to visual acuity. In a child with retinoblastoma, visual acuity in the affected eye(s) may be reduced. However, there are other reasons for reduced vision.

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  • Question 46 - A new mother brings her 14-day-old boy to see you and you carry...

    Incorrect

    • A new mother brings her 14-day-old boy to see you and you carry out a clinical examination. She wants to know if there are any indications that her child may have an underlying condition.
      What feature in this boy would be most suggestive of a high risk of a serious underlying problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unilateral Moro reflex

      Explanation:

      Common Infant Characteristics and Abnormalities

      The following are common characteristics and abnormalities that may be observed in infants:

      Unilateral Moro Reflex: A response to something that startles the infant, such as a loud noise or a sudden loss of support. Absence may indicate a profound disorder of the motor system, while persistence beyond four or five months of age occurs in infants with severe neurological defects.

      Scattered Red Marks with Papules and Pustules on the Face and Trunk: This is toxic erythema of the newborn, a common finding in neonates. It doesn’t cause the child discomfort and usually lasts several days.

      Fall in Weight from Birth Weight: Most babies lose about 10% of their birth weight after birth, but they usually regain this weight after about two weeks.

      Pink Moist Granuloma in the Umbilicus: An overgrowth of granulation tissue that occurs after the cord has fallen off. The discharge from an umbilical granuloma may irritate the surrounding skin.

      Single Palmar Crease: About 5% of newborns have a single palmar crease on at least one hand, frequently inherited as a familial trait. It is sometimes associated with Down and other syndromes, although other signs would point to these conditions.

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  • Question 47 - A 30-year-old woman brings her 4-year-old daughter to the surgery. According to both...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman brings her 4-year-old daughter to the surgery. According to both the family and the nursery she attends for day care, her left eye has become increasingly amblyopic, and she has developed a divergent squint. It appears also that she has become increasingly clumsy and has difficulty using stereoscopic vision to play with her lego.

      She was born two months premature but has achieved normal milestones since and has had all of her planned vaccinations.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check for red reflex

      Explanation:

      Importance of Red Reflex Assessment in Diagnosing Retinoblastoma

      In cases where a patient presents with loss of the red reflex, it is crucial to rule out the development of a retinoblastoma. This is because retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular malignancy of childhood, and delay in diagnosis can have negative prognostic implications. Therefore, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary.

      Diagnosis of retinoblastoma is typically confirmed through indirect dilated ophthalmoscopy under anaesthetic. Referral to a community optician or non-urgent referral to an ophthalmologist can result in significant delays in diagnosis, making both options inappropriate. While referral to an optician may seem like a viable option, testing the red reflex is a quick and easy procedure that a GP can perform themselves.

      Re-examining the patient in six weeks is not a suitable course of action as it will only delay diagnosis. In situations where loss of the red reflex is present, reassurance is not appropriate, and urgent referral for further assessment is necessary. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize red reflex assessment in diagnosing retinoblastoma.

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  • Question 48 - A mother brings her 20-month-old son for review following a recent admission after...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 20-month-old son for review following a recent admission after a febrile convulsion. Which one of the following statements regarding febrile convulsions is not correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giving antipyretics promptly can reduce the chance of further seizures

      Explanation:

      There is no proof that administering antipyretics to a child with a fever can prevent febrile convulsions.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ºC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

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  • Question 49 - You are assessing a 16-month-old boy with croup. What sign should indicate the...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 16-month-old boy with croup. What sign should indicate the need for referral to a hospital for further evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Audible stridor at rest

      Explanation:

      Admission is recommended for patients with croup who exhibit audible stridor at rest. For further information, please refer to the guidelines provided by Clinical Knowledge Summaries.

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.

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  • Question 50 - A 5-year-old child is evaluated for recurrent chest infections, the most recent accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is evaluated for recurrent chest infections, the most recent accompanied by green sputum. The child's mother is opposed to vaccination and claims that the child had whooping cough approximately one year ago. What is the probable root cause of the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post whooping cough bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Recurrent Respiratory Tract Infection

      In the presence of a positive history of whooping cough, the most likely diagnosis is bronchiectasis with possible pseudomonas colonisation. This could be a result of untreated or poorly treated whooping cough infection. However, IgA deficiency, cystic fibrosis, and ciliary dysmotility are also possible causes of recurrent respiratory tract infection, but less likely to be the cause here.

      It is recommended that the patient be referred to a paediatric respiratory specialist for further advice. A sweat test to exclude cystic fibrosis will certainly be part of the workup. It is important to identify the underlying cause of recurrent respiratory tract infection to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 51 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father who reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father who reports that he has been experiencing nocturnal coughing for the past three months. The father has observed that his son frequently wakes up at night due to coughing fits. Despite two previous rounds of antibiotics, the cough has not improved. The child is generally healthy, has a good appetite, and has met all developmental milestones for his age. On examination, there are no notable findings. What would be your plan of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitored initiation of metered dose inhaler (short acting beta agonist ) with spacer

      Explanation:

      Managing Suspected Asthma in Children

      Asthma is a possible diagnosis in children with a family history of atopy. If a child cannot perform spirometry, management options depend on their symptoms. Asymptomatic children may be monitored, while symptomatic children may be offered a carefully monitored trial of treatment. Oral bronchodilators and cough suppressants are not effective, and further antibiotics are futile. Nebulised bronchodilators are only appropriate during an acute attack. A trial of inhaled bronchodilators (MDI with spacer) may be justified, but establishing the diagnosis should be the top priority. It is unlikely that a four-year-old child would be able to perform spirometry successfully with reversibility.

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  • Question 52 - An anxious mother has called the clinic because she suspects that her unimmunised...

    Incorrect

    • An anxious mother has called the clinic because she suspects that her unimmunised 4-year-old has measles. The child has been feeling unwell for a few days and has now developed a red rash. The mother is worried about the likelihood of measles. Typically, where does the rash begin with measles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Head and neck

      Explanation:

      Understanding Measles

      Measles is a highly contagious disease that is characterized by a rash with maculopapular lesions. The onset of the disease is marked by a prodromal phase, which includes symptoms such as fever, malaise, loss of appetite, cough, rhinorrhea, and conjunctivitis. This phase typically lasts for one to four days before the rash appears.

      The rash usually starts on the head and then spreads to the trunk and extremities over a few days. The fever usually subsides once the rash appears. The rash itself lasts for at least three days and then fades in the order of appearance. In some cases, it can leave behind a brownish discoloration and may become confluent over the buttocks.

      It is important to note that measles is a serious disease that can lead to complications such as pneumonia, encephalitis, and even death. Vaccination is the best way to prevent measles and its complications.

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  • Question 53 - A 4-month-old boy presents with a temperature of 39oC. He attends a morning...

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    • A 4-month-old boy presents with a temperature of 39oC. He attends a morning surgery. The mother reports improvement with paracetamol, but this has worn off and he is miserable again. He looks flushed, but there are no focal symptoms or signs. He is not dehydrated, and there are no other worrying features.
      What is the most appropriate management option at this time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antipyretic drugs and review at the evening surgery

      Explanation:

      Antipyretic Drugs and Safety-Netting for Fever in Children: A Review at the Evening Surgery

      Fever in children can be a cause for concern, and it is important to provide appropriate safety-netting to parents or carers. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that a temperature of 39°C or more in a child aged 3–6 months is an amber (intermediate) risk sign, and in a child aged 0–3 months, 38°C or more is red (high risk). If any ‘amber’ features are present and no diagnosis has been reached, it is important to provide a safety net or refer the child to specialist paediatric care for further assessment.

      Reviewing the child later in the day is appropriate safety-netting and is preferred to immediate admission. The cause of the fever may be viral and self-limiting, and antipyretic drugs such as paracetamol and ibuprofen may be the only treatment needed. It is also important to provide advice on the most likely course of the illness and symptoms to look out for if the child’s condition worsens.

      However, admitting the child to the hospital is only necessary if there is any suggestion of an immediately life-threatening illness or if the child had any ‘red flag’ features. Intramuscular penicillin and admission to the hospital are not indicated unless there are symptoms or signs to suggest meningococcal disease in the patient.

      Prescribing amoxicillin is also not necessary unless a bacterial cause for the infection has been found on examination. Instead, it is important to provide appropriate safety-netting and review the child in a timely manner to ensure their well-being.

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  • Question 54 - A 6-year-old boy presents with swelling under his arm. He was well until...

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    • A 6-year-old boy presents with swelling under his arm. He was well until six days before, when he developed mild fever and malaise. Immunisations are up-to-date. No family history of note. The family have a pet kitten and there were visible scratches on his arm.

      On examination the temperature is 37.8°C. He has a 2.5 cm smooth enlargement of a node in the right axilla. This is slightly red but not fluctuant. Otherwise there are no abnormalities to find.

      What is the single most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin and incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      Cat-Scratch Disease: A Brief Overview

      The patient’s medical history suggests subacute regional gland enlargement due to inflammation. This is a common symptom of cat-scratch disease, which is caused by the bacteria Bartonella henselae. The incubation period for this disease is typically 3-30 days, and small erythematous lesions may be found along the scratch marks. After 1-4 weeks, regional adenopathy develops.

      In most cases, patients who are not immunocompromised do not require specific antibiotic treatment for cat-scratch disease. However, those with severe symptoms or compromised immune systems may benefit from treatment with either azithromycin or ciprofloxacin. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications from this disease.

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  • Question 55 - A 10-week-old boy has not opened his bowels for five days. The mother...

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    • A 10-week-old boy has not opened his bowels for five days. The mother reports that he is exclusively breastfed. The baby appears healthy, and examination findings are unremarkable. Meconium was passed within the first 24 hours after birth. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the parents that this is usually normal in a breastfed infant

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infant Bowel Movements: Breastfed Babies and Constipation

      Breastfed infants tend to have more frequent bowel movements than formula-fed babies, but there is a wide range of normal variation. It is common for breastfed babies to have frequent bowel movements up to six weeks of age due to the gastro-colic reflex. However, it is also normal for breastfed babies to go several days without a bowel movement, sometimes up to 7-10 days. When a bowel movement does occur after a longer period of time, it may be a blow-out of normal consistency and should not cause concern as long as it appears painless.

      It is important to note that simple straining to pass stool is also normal and doesn’t necessarily indicate constipation. However, if there are worrying signs such as difficulty with feeding, failure to gain weight, or signs of discomfort, medical attention should be sought.

      It is not necessary to give a macrogol laxative unless a diagnosis of constipation is made. Additionally, introducing baby food containing fruit and vegetables is not appropriate for exclusively breastfed infants. Prune juice may help with constipation, but it is not recommended for infants until they are weaned at 4-6 months.

      Overall, as long as the baby is well and examination is normal, there is no need for urgent referral to hospital. However, if constipation appears during the first few weeks of life, it may be a sign of a more serious condition such as Hirschsprung’s disease, which requires medical attention.

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  • Question 56 - A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty...

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    • A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty as she has not yet started her menstrual cycle. She reports feeling generally well and has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, it is noted that she has a slender build and underdeveloped breasts. There is no pubic hair growth. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, but there are small lumps in her groin area on both sides.

      What is the probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity

      Explanation:

      The classic presentation of androgen insensitivity is primary amenorrhoea, which is accompanied by groin swellings and absence of pubic hair. These symptoms suggest that the patient has undescended testes and is genetically male (46 XY) but phenotypically female due to increased oestradiol levels. Breast development is a common result of this condition, previously known as testicular feminisation syndrome.

      While non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma could also cause groin swellings, it is less likely to be the cause of delayed puberty and would typically present with systemic symptoms.

      Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of gonadotrophins and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this condition often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia, which increases their risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.

      Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallman’s syndrome, is a cause of delayed puberty due to low levels of sex hormones. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with this condition may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, anosmia, and low sex hormone levels. However, their LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. They are typically of normal or above-average height, but may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46 XY) having a female phenotype. This condition is also known as complete androgen insensitivity syndrome or testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this condition may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46 XY genotype. Management involves counselling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.

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  • Question 57 - As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance....

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    • As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance. Due to a recent outbreak of roseola infantum at her son's daycare, she is curious about the duration of time her child should stay away from the facility. Despite being healthy and showing no symptoms, what recommendation would you provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is no school exclusion

      Explanation:

      No need for school exclusion with roseola infantum as it is a self-limiting condition.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.

      The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.

      While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.

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  • Question 58 - A 3-month-old baby girl has been brought into the GP by her father....

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    • A 3-month-old baby girl has been brought into the GP by her father. They visited three weeks ago because the baby was experiencing vomiting and regurgitation after feeds. They were given alginate suspension at the time but this has not helped. Today, the baby is still experiencing troublesome symptoms and is now refusing feeds.

      What would be the next appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4-week trial of omeprazole suspension

      Explanation:

      If an infant with GORD is experiencing troublesome symptoms even after a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy, the recommended course of action is to prescribe a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor. This is in line with NICE guidelines.

      Opting for a 2-week trial of omeprazole is not advisable as it may not be sufficient to alleviate the symptoms.

      Continuing with alginate suspension alone is not appropriate as the symptoms have worsened since starting the treatment.

      Ranitidine is no longer recommended due to the presence of small amounts of the carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NMDA) in formulations from multiple manufacturers. Nitrosamines, which are carcinogens commonly found in smoked fish, are linked to high rates of oesophageal and gastric cancer in East Asian countries.

      If metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is used, it should be done so with caution and under the supervision of a specialist.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

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  • Question 59 - A 4-year-old girl is brought in by her mother who is worried about...

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    • A 4-year-old girl is brought in by her mother who is worried about her occasional wheezing. The child is not experiencing any symptoms at the moment and her wheezing seems to only occur during upper respiratory tract infections. There is no history of atopy in the family or the child's medical history. The girl was previously seen by another doctor 4 months ago and was given salbutamol to use as needed, but her mother reports that it doesn't seem to help. What should be the next appropriate step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and plan a review

      Explanation:

      The father has reported that the child experiences wheezing only during upper respiratory tract infections and not at any other time. This suggests that the child may not have asthma and instead may be experiencing viral-induced wheezing, which is common in children of this age.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.

      For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.

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  • Question 60 - The parents of a 6-year-old girl with asthma are worried about potential side-effects...

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    • The parents of a 6-year-old girl with asthma are worried about potential side-effects from asthma treatment. Upon examination, you notice that her asthma has been poorly managed for the past six months and she has been frequently visiting the nurse-led asthma clinic. She is currently taking 100 micrograms of beclomethasone twice daily, but her asthma remains uncontrolled. What is the best course of action for managing this child's asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A leukotriene receptor antagonist should be added to the current beclomethasone regimen

      Explanation:

      Management of Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old: Adding a Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist to the Current Regimen

      The British Guidelines on the Management of Asthma and The Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommend prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid for prophylaxis of asthma in children under five years old when they require a beta-2 agonist more than twice a week, experience symptoms that disturb sleep at least once a week, or have suffered an exacerbation in the last two years requiring a systemic corticosteroid. However, long-term use of high doses of inhaled corticosteroids can cause adrenal suppression, and growth impairment may occur. Therefore, it is important to monitor height and weight.

      If a child’s asthma remains poorly controlled despite receiving the recommended very low dose of beclomethasone (100 µg twice a day), a leukotriene receptor antagonist (e.g. montelukast) should be added before considering an increase in corticosteroid dosage. Both NICE and SIGN guidelines agree on this approach.

      It is important to note that a long acting beta-agonist is not the preferred add-on treatment for children under five years old, as recommended for children aged five years and older. Referral to a respiratory paediatrician is also not necessary in this case, as NICE recommends referral for investigation and further management by an asthma expert only if control is not achieved with a low dose of inhaled corticosteroid and a leukotriene receptor antagonist as maintenance therapy.

      In summary, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist to the current beclomethasone regimen is the appropriate next step in managing asthma in children under five years old.

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  • Question 61 - A mother has noticed that her 2-year-old daughter takes little interest in other...

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    • A mother has noticed that her 2-year-old daughter takes little interest in other children. She comes to clinic concerned the child may have autism.
      Which of the following features is most suggestive of a diagnosis of autistic spectrum disorder in a child of this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lack of gestures (eg pointing, waving goodbye)

      Explanation:

      Identifying Early Signs of Autism Spectrum Disorder

      Autism spectrum disorder is a complex developmental condition that affects social interactions and restricts interests. Early identification is crucial for effective intervention. Here are some important indicators that should lead to further evaluation in a young child:

      – Lack of gestures (e.g. pointing, waving goodbye) by 12 months
      – No use of single words by 16 months
      – No use of two-word phrases by 24 months
      – Regression of language or social skills at any time
      – Reduced or missing ‘make-believe’ play

      It’s important to note that not all children with autism will display these signs, and some may develop typically before showing symptoms. However, if you have concerns about your child’s development, it’s always best to seek professional advice.

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  • Question 62 - You have diagnosed measles in a 7-year-old child who did not receive the...

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    • You have diagnosed measles in a 7-year-old child who did not receive the MMR vaccine when younger.

      The child's father has called the clinic to inquire about when his child can return to school because he needs to plan for childcare arrangements and it is affecting his work schedule.

      What is the recommended duration for a measles case to stay away from school or work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 days after the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      Measles Exclusion Guidelines for Schools and Workplaces

      Measles is a highly infectious disease that spreads through airborne or droplet transmission. To prevent the spread of the disease, individuals who have contracted measles should be excluded from school or work for four days after the onset of the rash. This exclusion period is outlined in the infection control guidelines published by Public Health England for schools and other childcare settings.

      It is important to note that individuals are infectious from the beginning of the prodromal period, when the first symptoms appear, until four days after the onset of the rash. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the exclusion guidelines to prevent the spread of measles in schools and workplaces. By doing so, we can protect the health and well-being of everyone in the community.

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  • Question 63 - A young woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes to you with an...

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    • A young woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes to you with an erythematous rash, mild fever and enlarged glands in her neck. You suggest taking a blood test to check if she is immune to rubella since there is no record of her being immunised. She asks about the potential risk to her baby if she does have rubella. What is the percentage of infants that may develop congenital rubella syndrome and potential birth defects if a woman contracts rubella at ten weeks gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Up to 90%

      Explanation:

      Maternal Rubella Infection in Pregnancy

      Maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to fetal loss or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). CRS is characterized by various abnormalities such as cataracts, deafness, cardiac defects, microcephaly, retardation of intrauterine growth, and inflammatory lesions in the brain, liver, lungs, and bone marrow.

      If the infection occurs within the first eight to ten weeks of pregnancy, up to 90% of surviving infants may experience damage, often with multiple defects. However, the risk of damage decreases to about 10-20% if the infection occurs between 11 and 16 weeks of gestation. Infections after 16 weeks of pregnancy are rare and typically only result in deafness, with no other fetal damage reported up to 20 weeks of pregnancy.

      Overall, maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can have severe consequences for the developing fetus, highlighting the importance of vaccination and prevention measures.

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  • Question 64 - A father brings his 4-year-old son to see you in the surgery. He...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old son to see you in the surgery. He has had a fever for 24 hours, vomited once and complains of abdominal discomfort and pain when passing urine. He is drinking plenty of fluids. He has been potty trained for one year, but had several urinary accidents in the past couple of days. There is nothing of note in his past medical history.

      On examination there are no recessions, his chest is clear, abdomen is soft with mild lower abdominal tenderness and no loin tenderness. He has a normal ENT examination. He is well hydrated and has no rash. His urine dipstick is positive for leukocytes and protein, but negative for nitrate and blood. His temperature is 38°C, HR 120, RR 28, and CR <2 sec.

      According to the NICE 'traffic light' system what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to paediatrics as child is at high risk of serious illness

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of UTIs in Children

      This child doesn’t exhibit any immediately life-threatening symptoms, but a UTI is the most likely diagnosis based on their clinical history. Early detection and treatment of UTIs can prevent the development of renal scarring and end-stage renal failure. Dipstick tests for leukocyte esterase and nitrite can be used to diagnose UTIs in children aged 2 years and older. However, a urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture to confirm the diagnosis.

      The following table outlines urine-testing strategies for children aged 3 years and older:

      Leukocyte+ Nitrite+ – Antibiotic treatment should be started, and a urine sample should be sent for culture if the child has a high or intermediate risk of serious illness or a history of previous UTIs.

      Leukocyte- Nitrite+ – Antibiotic treatment should be started if the urine test was carried out on a fresh sample of urine. A urine sample should be sent for culture, and management will depend on the results.

      Leukocyte+ Nitrite- – A urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture. Antibiotic treatment should not be started unless there is clear clinical evidence of a UTI.

      Leukocyte- Nitrite- – Antibiotics should not be started, and a urine sample should not be sent for culture. Other potential causes of illness should be explored.

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  • Question 65 - In a typical UK pediatric population, which childhood cancer type is most frequently...

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    • In a typical UK pediatric population, which childhood cancer type is most frequently observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Childhood Cancer Statistics

      Brain and central nervous system tumours account for 21% of all childhood cancers, followed by lymphoma at 10%, neuroblastoma at 7%, and Wilms’ tumours at 5%. Leukaemia is the most common childhood cancer, making up 31% of all cases. These statistics highlight the need for continued research and funding to improve treatment options and outcomes for children with cancer.

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  • Question 66 - A 6 week-old infant is presented to your clinic as the mother has...

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    • A 6 week-old infant is presented to your clinic as the mother has observed a white spot in the baby's mouth. Upon examination, a small white papule of around 1 mm size is visible on the lower gum. The baby is being breastfed and feeding without any issues. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein's pearl

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epstein’s Pearl

      Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums. Parents may mistake it for a tooth that is about to erupt. However, there is no need for concern as it tends to resolve on its own within a few weeks. Treatment is not usually required.

      In summary, Epstein’s pearl is a harmless cyst that is commonly found in the mouth of newborns. It is important for parents to be aware of its presence and not mistake it for a dental issue. With time, it will naturally disappear without any intervention.

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  • Question 67 - You see a 13-year-old boy who has burns on his hands. Three months...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 13-year-old boy who has burns on his hands. Three months ago he had a fractured radius.

      You talk to him and he reveals that his father has been causing the injuries. You inform him that you will be referring him to child protection services, but he pleads with you not to. He comprehends the situation and the role of the child protection team, but he expresses his love for his family and doesn't want to be separated from them. You are familiar with his father and his grandfather, as they are all patients of yours.

      What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her to the child protection team

      Explanation:

      Referring Child Abuse Cases: A Doctor’s Responsibility

      As a doctor, it is your responsibility to protect children and young people from abuse. In cases where there is ongoing risk of serious abuse, it is important to refer the child in a timely manner, even if it goes against their wishes. This is because the safety of the child should always be the top priority.

      According to the General Medical Council (UK), doctors have a duty to protect children and young people from harm. Referring cases of abuse is a crucial step in ensuring their safety. It is important to act quickly and make the necessary referrals to safeguard the child’s well-being. Even if the child expresses reluctance or resistance to the referral, it is important to prioritize their safety and take appropriate action. By doing so, doctors can fulfill their responsibility to protect vulnerable children and young people from harm.

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  • Question 68 - A young mother with a 4-month-old boy presents to your practice. Her sister...

    Incorrect

    • A young mother with a 4-month-old boy presents to your practice. Her sister has recently lost a baby due to sudden-infant-death syndrome (SIDS). She asks for the current advice on minimising the risk of SIDS in her own family.
      Which of the following pieces of advice is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The baby should not be exposed to secondhand smoke in the room

      Explanation:

      Common Myths and Facts about Safe Sleeping for Babies

      There are many misconceptions about safe sleeping for babies that can put them at risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Here are some common myths and facts to help parents ensure their baby is sleeping safely.

      Myth: It’s okay to smoke around the baby.
      Fact: Smoking during and after pregnancy increases the risk of SIDS. Passive smoking also significantly increases the risk of SIDS, and the risk increases further when both parents smoke.

      Myth: The ideal room temperature for a baby is 20-24°C.
      Fact: This temperature might be uncomfortably warm; the ideal room temperature is 16–20 °C.

      Myth: Babies should sleep in the same room as their parents for the first year of life.
      Fact: Infants should share the same room, but not the same bed, as their parents for the first six months to decrease the risk of SIDS.

      Myth: Place the baby on their front to sleep.
      Fact: Babies should be placed on their backs to sleep, with feet touching the end of the cot, so that they cannot slip under the covers. The use of pillows is not recommended.

      Myth: The use of pacifiers is not recommended.
      Fact: The use of pacifiers while settling the baby to sleep reduces the risk of cot death.

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  • Question 69 - A woman aged 52 brings her five-year-old foster child for a medical examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A woman aged 52 brings her five-year-old foster child for a medical examination, six months after the last one. She informs the doctor that she intends to foster another child, as she lives with her husband and three foster children. However, she has a well-controlled diagnosis of epilepsy and her husband is a smoker. What is the reason for her inability to proceed with her plans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Already fostering three children

      Explanation:

      This family cannot foster another child because they are already fostering three children, which is the maximum allowed per family. However, if a group of more than three siblings needs to be fostered together, an exception can be made. Age over 50 is not a disqualifying factor for fostering, as the minimum age requirement is 18 (although most organizations prefer 21). While a diagnosis of epilepsy may be a concern if the condition is not well-controlled and the foster parent would be the sole caregiver for a young child, there is no indication in the question that this is the case. Finally, foster children are required to have medical examinations every six months, and failing to bring them to these appointments would be a cause for concern, but the consequences would depend on the outcome of an investigation into why the appointments were missed.

      Foster care is a system in which children who cannot live with their birth families are placed with foster families who provide them with a safe and nurturing environment. According to Schedule 7 of the Children Act 1989, there is a limit of three foster children per family. Additionally, all children in long-term foster care require a medical examination every six months to ensure their physical and emotional well-being. This system aims to provide children with stability and support while their birth families work towards resolving any issues that led to their placement in foster care.

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  • Question 70 - A 7-year-old child comes to the clinic after visiting a petting zoo about...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child comes to the clinic after visiting a petting zoo about 2 weeks ago. The child complains of watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and a low-grade fever. The mother reports that the child is still able to eat and drink normally and is urinating normally. Upon examination, the child appears pale, and the abdomen is slightly tender but soft. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Explanation:

      Differentials for Gastrointestinal Illness

      Differentials for a gastrointestinal illness include Cryptosporidium, Escherichia coli O157, and S. aureus. S. aureus food poisoning, which is usually caused by dairy products, results in vomiting shortly after ingestion. On the other hand, Escherichia coli O157 usually presents with non-bloody diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting three to four days after exposure. The diarrhea may become bloody after two to three days, and only a small percentage of patients develop haemolytic uraemic syndrome. In contrast, Cryptosporidium results in a chronic watery diarrheal illness that begins around ten days after exposure.

      By understanding the different symptoms and timelines associated with these illnesses, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with gastrointestinal illnesses. It is important to note that proper hygiene and food safety practices can help prevent the spread of these illnesses.

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  • Question 71 - A four-year-old child presents with a rash. The child has a history of...

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    • A four-year-old child presents with a rash. The child has a history of atopic eczema that has been challenging to manage. Upon examination, the child has multiple umbilicated papules primarily on the neck and trunk. When compressed, the lesions discharge a cheesy substance.

      What would be your plan of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No specific treatment necessary

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: A Common Skin Condition in Children

      Molluscum contagiosum is a skin condition caused by a DNA pox virus that is more common in children with atopic eczema. It is characterized by dome-shaped papules, usually a few millimeters in diameter, with a central punctum that is often described as umbilicated. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy material.

      While no specific treatment is needed, the lesions may take 12-18 months to disappear. However, if patients are concerned about the unsightly appearance of the rash, they can be shown how to squeeze the lesions to express the central plug out of each Molluscum. This can speed up the resolution process.

      In summary, Molluscum contagiosum is a common skin condition in children that can be managed with simple techniques. It is important to reassure patients that the lesions will eventually disappear on their own and that treatment is only necessary for cosmetic reasons.

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  • Question 72 - You take a telephone call at the end of surgery from a childminder...

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    • You take a telephone call at the end of surgery from a childminder who is looking after a 5-year-old boy who she feels has suspicious injuries.

      She says that when she commented on the injuries to his mother, when he was dropped off earlier in the morning, she gave an unconvincing account of what might have happened to him. She suspects non-accidental injury and from the history given, you do too, but are not sure. You arrange to see the child with his mother later that same day.

      When should you make notes about this first consultation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Importance of Timely and Accurate Note-Taking in Medical Practice

      Making notes immediately after a consultation with a patient is crucial in medical practice. It is equally important to make further contemporaneous notes whenever you see the patient again. This ensures that all relevant information is recorded accurately and in a timely manner.

      It is easy to forget or omit making notes about telephone consultations, which can lead to repeat prescribing of the wrong drug in the future. Therefore, it is essential to record all encounters with patients, including telephone consultations, in the clinical record.

      Cases involving child protection are particularly important, and it is good practice to record the contents of the consultation immediately, even if the eventual diagnosis is uncertain. This ensures that all relevant information is documented and can be used to inform future decisions.

      In summary, timely and accurate note-taking is essential in medical practice to ensure that all relevant information is recorded and can be used to inform future decisions.

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  • Question 73 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her worried parent who has observed...

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    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her worried parent who has observed a significant space between her ankles and is anxious as her knees seem to be close together while standing. The parent mentions that the girl has a balanced diet and gets enough exposure to sunlight and is healthy otherwise.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the parent that knock knees are a usual variant and usually resolve by the age of 8 years

      Explanation:

      Genu valgum, commonly known as knock knees, is a typical condition that typically resolves on its own by the age of 8 years. As such, there is no need to refer the patient to an orthopaedic clinic or provide specific physiotherapy. Supportive shoes or leg braces are not recommended.

      Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children

      Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.

      One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.

      Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.

      In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.

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  • Question 74 - Sophie is a 13-year-old girl who arrives at the paediatric emergency department with...

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    • Sophie is a 13-year-old girl who arrives at the paediatric emergency department with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. During the examination, she exhibits plastral wheezing when auscultated. Sophie's respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and her oxygen saturation level on air is 91%. Additionally, her peak flow is only 40% of her usual peak flow.

      As per NICE guidelines, which of the above criteria indicates that Sophie's asthma exacerbation is life-threatening?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Saturations of 91%

      Explanation:

      Assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children is crucial for effective management. The 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines provide criteria for assessing the severity of asthma in general practice. These criteria include measuring SpO2 levels, PEF (peak expiratory flow) rates, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other symptoms such as breathlessness, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      A severe asthma attack is characterized by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates between 33-50% of the best or predicted, being too breathless to talk or feed, and a high heart and respiratory rate. On the other hand, a life-threatening asthma attack is indicated by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates below 33% of the best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, use of accessory neck muscles, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with these criteria to ensure prompt and appropriate management of asthma attacks in children. Early recognition of the severity of an asthma attack can help prevent complications and reduce the risk of hospitalization or death.

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  • Question 75 - You receive a call from the mother of a 2-year-old boy who has...

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    • You receive a call from the mother of a 2-year-old boy who has been suffering from a suspected viral upper respiratory tract infection for the past few days. The mother reports that the child has just had a seizure, and three months ago, he had a confirmed febrile convulsion after a similar illness. You schedule an appointment to see the child that morning. What factor should indicate the need for referral to paediatrics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The child still being drowsy 2 hours after the seizure

      Explanation:

      If a child remains drowsy for more than an hour, it is unlikely that they are experiencing a ‘simple’ febrile convulsion. A tonic-clonic seizure is a common occurrence and should not cause concern. Additionally, the presence of a confirmed infection focus, such as otitis media, should provide reassurance rather than necessitating hospitalization.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ºC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

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  • Question 76 - Which patient among these needs diagnostic evaluation? ...

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    • Which patient among these needs diagnostic evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 15-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea who has normal secondary sexual characteristics

      Explanation:

      Puberty and Menarche

      Puberty typically starts around the age of 10, with menarche occurring between 11 and 15 years old. If there are no signs of secondary sexual characteristic development by the age of 14, it may be necessary to investigate. However, if other secondary sexual characteristics are developing normally, it is reasonable to wait until the age of 16 before considering further investigation.

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  • Question 77 - A 6-month-old girl is brought to clinic by her father, who complains she...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl is brought to clinic by her father, who complains she is ‘having difficulty breathing’. A harsh inspiratory stridor is heard. You suspect that she may have tracheomalacia.
      Which of the following would support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stridor which worsens when the child is supine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Laryngomalacia: A Common Condition in Young Babies

      Laryngomalacia, also known as congenital laryngeal stridor, is a condition that affects many young babies. It is caused by delayed maturation of the cartilage in the larynx, which leads to collapse of the supraglottic larynx during inspiration. This results in a noisy respiration and an inspiratory stridor, which is typically more noticeable when the baby is in a supine position, feeding, crying, sleeping, or during intercurrent illness.

      While there may be gastro-oesophageal reflux, the child is otherwise well and there is no associated upper respiratory discharge. However, infants with laryngomalacia may have difficulty coordinating the ‘suck-swallow-breathe’ sequence needed for feeding due to their airway obstruction.

      It is important to note that respiratory distress is uncommon, and if there is tachypnoea, it is only mild and there is no reduction in oxygen saturation. Additionally, a barking cough is not a typical symptom of laryngomalacia. The classic symptom is inspiratory stridor, which may be increased when the child has an upper respiratory infection.

      While symptoms may initially worsen, they typically resolve by 18-24 months without the need for treatment. However, if the stridor is worsening, other diagnoses should be considered. Overall, understanding laryngomalacia can help parents and caregivers better recognize and manage this common condition in young babies.

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  • Question 78 - Oliver is an 8-year-old boy brought in by his mother with a 2...

    Incorrect

    • Oliver is an 8-year-old boy brought in by his mother with a 2 day history of fever and sore throat. Today he has developed a rash on his torso. He is eating and drinking well, but has not been to school for the last 2 days and has been feeling tired.

      On examination, Oliver is alert, smiling and playful. He has a temperature of 37.8°C. His throat appears red with petechiae on the hard and soft palate and his tongue is covered with a white coat through which red papillae are visible. There is a blanching rash present on his trunk which is red and punctate with a rough, sandpaper-like texture.

      What is the appropriate time for Oliver to return to school based on the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hours after commencing antibiotics

      Explanation:

      If a child has scarlet fever, they can go back to school after 24 hours of starting antibiotics. The symptoms described are typical of scarlet fever, including a strawberry tongue and a rough-textured rash with small red spots on the palate called Forchheimer spots. Charlotte doesn’t need to be hospitalized but should take a 10-day course of phenoxymethylpenicillin. According to NICE, the child should stay away from school, nursery, or work for at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics. It is also important to advise parents to take measures to prevent cross-infection, such as frequent handwashing, avoiding sharing utensils and towels, and disposing of tissues promptly.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

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  • Question 79 - A 6-week-old girl has had vomiting that has been increasing in frequency over...

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    • A 6-week-old girl has had vomiting that has been increasing in frequency over several days. Now when she vomits, the gastric contents are ejected with great force. She is ravenously hungry after each vomit. She is otherwise well but has started to lose weight.
      Which is the SINGLE MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Vomiting in Infants: Symptoms and Descriptions

      Projectile vomiting is a common symptom in infants, but it can be caused by various conditions. One of the most common causes is infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, which is characterized by forceful vomiting after feeding. This condition is caused by the narrowing of the pyloric canal due to the hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the smooth muscle of the antrum of the stomach and pylorus. It usually occurs in infants aged 2-8 weeks and can be treated by pyloromyotomy.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is another cause of vomiting in infants, which is characterized by non-forceful regurgitation of milk due to the functional immaturity of the lower oesophageal sphincter. This condition is most common in the first weeks of life and usually resolves by 12-18 months.

      Duodenal atresia is a condition that causes hydramnios during pregnancy and intestinal obstruction in the newborn. About 30% of cases have Down syndrome and 30% have cardiovascular abnormalities.

      Gastroenteritis is an acute illness that can cause vomiting and loose stools. However, the vomiting is not usually projectile, and the baby would not appear hungry straight after vomiting. These are typical symptoms of pyloric stenosis in this age group.

      Lactose intolerance is a condition that develops in people with low lactase levels. Symptoms include bloating, nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and flatulence. Although babies and children can be affected, primary lactose intolerance most commonly appears between 20 and 40 years.

      Understanding the Causes of Vomiting in Infants

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  • Question 80 - A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic with her 10-year-old daughter. She discloses...

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    • A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic with her 10-year-old daughter. She discloses that she has familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH), with her most recent LDL cholesterol reading at 15. She is worried about the impact of this on her daughter and wants to know if there is a way to test her for the condition. The child's father doesn't have the illness.

      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a FH specialist for diagnostic testing and advice on further management

      Explanation:

      If a parent has familial hypercholesterolaemia, it is recommended to arrange for their children to be tested by the age of 10. NICE guidelines emphasize that even if there are no clinical signs, children can develop cardiovascular disease. Therefore, it is important to refer them to a specialist clinic for diagnostic testing and tailored therapy if necessary. It is crucial to refer the child before they reach the age of 10.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

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  • Question 81 - A 12-month-old boy has a history of recurrent chest infections requiring antibiotics. In...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old boy has a history of recurrent chest infections requiring antibiotics. In addition, his weight gain is poor, dropping from 50th centile at birth to 5th currently. His mother reports that his stools are always loose. His mother and father are well and he has no siblings.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis (CF)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis and Other Possible Causes of Recurrent Infections in Children

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects the secretion and absorption of sodium and chloride, leading to problems in the respiratory, gastrointestinal, pancreatic, and reproductive systems. While CF is the most common lethal genetic disorder affecting Caucasian children, it can present at any age and is now often detected through newborn screening. Frequent antibiotic use can lead to the development of resistant bacterial strains, but it is unlikely to be the sole cause of recurrent symptoms in a child. Other possible causes include Crohn’s disease, immunodeficiency, and, rarely, sarcoidosis. It is important to maintain a high index of suspicion and seek medical attention for children with frequent infections and other concerning symptoms.

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  • Question 82 - A 6-year-old boy presents to the paediatric department with a 5-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents to the paediatric department with a 5-day history of fever and bilateral red eyes. He also has a widespread raised red rash and peeling of his toes. During the examination, his temperature is 37.8ºC. The skin on his feet is peeling. He has cervical lymphadenopathy. He is alert and energetic. His pulse is 92 beats per minute. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki Disease Criteria:

      • Fever for at least 5 days.
      • Plus four out of the five following features:
        1. Bilateral non-exudative conjunctivitis.
        2. Polymorphous rash.
        3. Cervical lymphadenopathy (usually unilateral).
        4. Oral mucosal changes (e.g., strawberry tongue, cracked lips).
        5. Extremity changes (e.g., edema, erythema, peeling).

      This clinical presentation aligns closely with Kawasaki disease, making it the most likely diagnosis given the symptoms described.

      Kawasaki disease is indicated by a high fever lasting more than five days, along with red palms that peel and a tongue that looks like a strawberry. It is important to diagnose this systemic vasculitis promptly, as it can lead to cardiovascular complications.

      Conjunctivitis typically involves discharge and is not associated with rash, fever, lymphadenopathy, or peeling of the skin.

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that causes a low-grade fever, sore throat, cough, abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and a rash on the mouth, hands, and feet.

      Meningitis should be suspected in children with a headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, fever, nausea, and lethargy.

      Roseola infantum typically occurs in younger children (6 months to 2 years) and is characterized by high fever followed by a rash once the fever subsides, without conjunctivitis or skin peeling.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days, which is resistant to antipyretics. Other features include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms instead of angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease include coronary artery aneurysm, which can be life-threatening. Early recognition and treatment of Kawasaki disease can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

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  • Question 83 - A worried 30-year-old mother expresses concern about a lump that has emerged on...

    Incorrect

    • A worried 30-year-old mother expresses concern about a lump that has emerged on her infant's head, stating with certainty that it was not present at birth and was only noticed 45 minutes ago. The baby was delivered vaginally with forceps 10 hours ago at 39 weeks gestation.

      Upon examination, there is a clearly defined, fluid-filled bump that doesn't cross suture lines and is located on the parietal bone. The baby appears to be in good health otherwise, with normal skin color and tone, as well as regular vital signs.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cephalhaematoma

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the newborn baby’s well-demarcated, fluctuant swelling that appeared two days after birth is cephalohaematoma. This is a haemorrhage between the skull and periosteum that occurs when blood vessels crossing the periosteum rupture. The swelling is subperiosteal and limited by individual bones, and typically appears 2-3 days after birth, taking months to resolve. It is more common in prolonged and/or instrumental deliveries. Caput succedaneum, a fluid collection caused by pressure of the presenting part of the scalp against the cervix during delivery, is less likely as it would cross suture lines and is present at birth. A chignon, a swelling caused by ventouse suction cup delivery, would be apparent immediately and disappear quickly. Normal skull shape is inconsistent with the examination findings. A subgaleal haemorrhage, bleeding in the potential space between the skull periosteum and scalp galea aponeurosis, is less likely as it develops gradually and may cause periorbital ecchymosis and haemorrhagic shock, which are not present in this case.

      Understanding the Difference between Caput Succedaneum and Cephalohaematoma

      Caput succedaneum and cephalohaematoma are two common conditions that can occur in newborns. Caput succedaneum is a swelling that appears on the baby’s scalp during delivery. It is caused by the pressure of the baby’s head against the mother’s cervix during labor. The swelling usually disappears within a few days without any treatment.

      On the other hand, cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on the newborn’s head several hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the periosteum and skull. The most common site affected is the parietal region. Unlike caput succedaneum, cephalohaematoma can take up to 3 months to resolve.

      One of the complications of cephalohaematoma is jaundice, which can occur due to the breakdown of red blood cells. It is important to monitor the baby’s condition and seek medical attention if necessary. Understanding the difference between caput succedaneum and cephalohaematoma can help parents and caregivers identify any potential issues and seek appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 84 - At what age would a typical toddler develop the capability to squat down...

    Incorrect

    • At what age would a typical toddler develop the capability to squat down and retrieve a toy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18 months

      Explanation:

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor developmental milestones refer to the physical abilities that a child acquires as they grow and develop. These milestones are important indicators of a child’s overall development and can help parents and healthcare professionals identify any potential delays or concerns. The table below summarizes the major gross motor developmental milestones from 3 months to 4 years of age.

      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a sitting position and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to crawl and pull themselves to a standing position. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. Finally, at 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. By monitoring a child’s gross motor developmental milestones, parents and healthcare professionals can ensure that they are meeting their developmental goals and identify any potential concerns early on.

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  • Question 85 - You see a 6-year-old girl who has not received the MMR. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-year-old girl who has not received the MMR. She has a sore throat, conjunctivitis and feels generally unwell. There is an outbreak of rubella locally and you are concerned that she may have the disease.
      Which one of the following signs/findings on investigation would point you towards the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of Koplik's spots

      Explanation:

      Rubella: Symptoms and Associated Conditions

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that is characterized by a tender posterior auricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy. The onset of the rash is preceded by a sore throat, conjunctivitis, and eye pain on upward and lateral movement, which typically appears about three days before the rash. The rash itself is a rose pink maculopapular rash that lasts for around three to four days before beginning to fade.

      It is important to note that orchitis is associated with mumps infection, while Koplik’s spots are associated with measles. Rubella, on the other hand, is characterized by the symptoms mentioned above.

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  • Question 86 - When should the pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) vaccine be given to a healthy individual...

    Incorrect

    • When should the pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) vaccine be given to a healthy individual based on the UK immunisation schedule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 weeks and 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Pneumococcal Vaccine

      The pneumococcal vaccine is an important immunization that helps protect against pneumococcal disease, which can cause serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. However, it’s important to note that there are two types of pneumococcal vaccines – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV).

      The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with a booster at 1 year old. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, particularly those who are 65 years old and above. It’s important to know which vaccine to administer, as the immune response to each vaccine is different.

      Aside from the recommended age groups, individuals with certain medical conditions are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. These include those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, cochlear implants, chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic neurological conditions, diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4/5, chronic liver disease, immunosuppression due to disease or treatment, and complement disorders.

      In summary, understanding the pneumococcal vaccine and its different types and recommended age groups is crucial in ensuring proper administration and protection against pneumococcal disease.

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  • Question 87 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner by his mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner by his mother. She reports that 1-2 hours after he has gone to sleep, she frequently finds him sat up in bed screaming and with his eyes open. He doesn't seem to recognise her, is confused and unable to communicate. After about five minutes he settles down to sleep. He is unable to remember anything about this the next day. On the day after it has happened he is more tired than usual.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Night terror

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sleep Disorders in Children

      Sleep disorders in children can be distressing for both the child and their parents. It is important to identify the specific type of sleep disorder in order to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some common sleep disorders in children:

      Night Terrors: These are different from nightmares and can affect children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. Symptoms include sudden arousal from non-REM sleep, fear-related behavior, confusion upon waking, and amnesia regarding the event.

      Sleepwalking: Similar to night terrors, sleepwalking involves getting up and moving around while asleep. It is important to ensure the child’s safety during these episodes.

      Nocturnal Epilepsy: Seizures occur only during sleep in this type of epilepsy. It may be difficult to diagnose, but symptoms include involuntary movements during sleep and changes upon awakening.

      Nightmares: These are vivid and frightening dreams that most children experience occasionally. Comforting the child can help them get back to sleep.

      Panic Attacks: Unlike other sleep disorders, panic attacks occur while the child is awake and can be very distressing.

      Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: Bad dreams about a traumatic event and sleep disturbance are features of PTSD and can be similar to nightmares.

      Understanding these sleep disorders can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for children experiencing sleep disturbances.

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  • Question 88 - A 10-month old baby is brought in for a developmental review by his...

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    • A 10-month old baby is brought in for a developmental review by his parents. He is able to sit without support, crawl, and pull himself up to stand. He shows a preference for using his left hand for most activities. He has a weak pincer grip and can point at objects.

      However, he is unable to walk without support, even with one hand. He has not yet said mama or dada but does understand the word no. He also doesn't respond to his own name.

      Which of these findings is the most concerning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left-handedness

      Explanation:

      Having a hand preference before the age of 12 months is not normal and could be a sign of cerebral palsy. The child’s left-handedness is not a concern, but their early hand preference is. By 12 months, children should be able to walk with support from one parent and respond to their name. They should only be able to walk independently between 13-15 months. While 9-month old babies can typically say mama and dada, it is too early to worry about this in the child’s case.

      Common Developmental Problems and Their Causes

      Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points, fine motor skill problems, gross motor problems, and speech and language problems. Referral points may include a lack of smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and inability to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may be indicated by abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could be a sign of cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, but other causes may include environmental deprivation and general developmental delay. It is important to identify and address these developmental problems early on to ensure the best possible outcomes for the child’s future.

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  • Question 89 - A neonate presents with a cleft palate and posterior displacement of the tongue....

    Incorrect

    • A neonate presents with a cleft palate and posterior displacement of the tongue. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pierre-Robin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Pierre-Robin syndrome is diagnosed in a baby who has micrognathia and a cleft palate. The baby is positioned in a prone position to alleviate upper airway obstruction. There is no familial history of similar conditions.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that presents with microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, or trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is a condition that causes learning difficulties, macrocephaly, a long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome presents with a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome presents with hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, a friendly and extroverted personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Finally, Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, presents with a characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly, micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Pierre-Robin syndrome has many similarities with Treacher-Collins syndrome, but the latter is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

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  • Question 90 - A mother brings a 4-year-old girl to see you because she has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings a 4-year-old girl to see you because she has noticed that the vagina seems to have sealed together over the past few days. The girl is in no discomfort with this. There is no vaginal discharge. The girl doesn't appear to be in discomfort when urinating.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labial adhesions

      Explanation:

      Labial adhesions or fusion is a common occurrence in pre-pubertal females, often caused by a lack of oestrogen. However, it typically resolves on its own and treatment is not usually necessary. Symptoms of contact dermatitis include dry, irritated skin and itching. Imperforate hymen is a congenital disorder that obstructs the vagina. Lichen sclerosus is a skin disorder characterized by itching and white patches on the affected skin. Vulvovaginitis in girls causes discomfort and soreness during urination, and may also result in discharge.

      Labial Adhesions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.

      Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.

      Conservative management is usually appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.

      In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can cause problems with urination. While conservative management is usually effective, medical intervention may be necessary in some cases.

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  • Question 91 - A 16-year-old male with a history of cystic fibrosis comes for his yearly...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male with a history of cystic fibrosis comes for his yearly check-up. What is the most suitable recommendation for his diet?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal

      Explanation:

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat CF patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This combination increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      In summary, managing cystic fibrosis requires a comprehensive approach that involves a range of healthcare professionals. Regular chest physiotherapy, a high-calorie diet, and vitamin and enzyme supplementation are essential components of CF management. Patients with CF should also take steps to minimize contact with others with the condition to prevent cross-infection. Finally, the use of medications such as Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor can help improve outcomes for patients with CF.

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  • Question 92 - A concerned mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see you as she has...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see you as she has not had a wet diaper for the past 12 hours. Her mother suspects a lump in her tummy. Additionally, she has been refusing to walk for the past 36 hours and has been crying excessively. What type of cancer is most likely to present with these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephroblastoma

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Symptoms of Neuroblastoma in Children

      Neuroblastoma is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children under the age of 5. It can be difficult to detect in primary care due to its rarity and vague symptoms. The most common symptom is a lump in the abdomen, which may cause swelling or pain. However, children with neuroblastoma may also experience general symptoms of metastatic disease, such as malaise, bone pain, and respiratory issues. Other concerning symptoms include proptosis, unexplained back pain, leg weakness, and urinary retention. These symptoms may indicate that the tumour is pressing on the spinal cord or adjacent to the adrenal glands. Excessive catecholamine release can also cause tachycardia, flushing, sweating, weight loss, and watery diarrhoea. If a child presents with symptoms that could be explained by neuroblastoma, an abdominal examination and urgent abdominal ultrasound should be performed, along with a chest x-ray and full blood count. Any identified mass should prompt an urgent referral. Knowing the age at peak incidence can also aid in diagnosis.

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  • Question 93 - A 10-year-old boy is presented by his father with a widespread skin rash....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is presented by his father with a widespread skin rash. The itching started 3 days ago and he has been experiencing fevers. Upon examination, the rash is composed of macules, papules, crusted lesions, and vesicles that are present on most of his body. The father has been administering ibuprofen to alleviate his son's fever and discomfort.

      What is the probable diagnosis and why is ibuprofen not advisable in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The increased risk of necrotising fasciitis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with Chickenpox, as evidenced by the presence of lesions at different stages of healing, fever, and itching. However, it should be noted that the use of NSAIDs can increase the risk of necrotising fasciitis in these patients.

      While ibuprofen is an NSAID that can be used in patients of any age, it is not the best option for this patient.

      Aspirin should be avoided in children with Chickenpox due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. In this case, ibuprofen is a safer alternative.

      When used for short periods during acute febrile illnesses, the risk of gastrointestinal side effects from this medication is minimal.

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.

      One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.

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  • Question 94 - You see a 6-month-old baby girl who has been crying and pulling her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-month-old baby girl who has been crying and pulling her legs up as if she is in pain. She has had some loose stools and has vomited twice today.
      Her mother says that the last stool looked rather red as if there was blood in it. She looks pale and distressed.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception: A Common Cause of Intestinal Obstruction in Children

      Intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in children aged 5 months to 3 years, accounting for up to 25% of abdominal emergencies in children up to age 5. It occurs when one segment of the bowel invaginates into another just distal to it, leading to obstruction. This condition is more common in boys than girls, with a ratio of approximately 3:2, and two-thirds of patients are under 1-year-old, with the peak age being between 5-10 months.

      The clinical features of intussusception include sudden onset of paroxysms of colicky abdominal pain, which may be more insidious in older children. The pain occurs about every 10-20 minutes and is often accompanied by crying. Patients may appear well between paroxysms initially, but early vomiting can rapidly become bile-stained. Neurological symptoms such as lethargy, hypotonia, or sudden alterations of consciousness can also occur.

      Other features of intussusception include a palpable ‘sausage-shaped’ mass, often in the right upper quadrant, and absence of bowel in the right lower quadrant (Dance’s sign). Patients may also experience dehydration, pallor, shock, irritability, sweating, and later mucoid and bloody ‘red currant stools’. Late pyrexia may also occur.

      In summary, intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in children, with a range of clinical features that can help diagnose the condition. Early recognition and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 95 - A 12-year-old girl presents with complaints of right knee pain and a limp....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with complaints of right knee pain and a limp. Her parents report that over the last two to three days she has been experiencing pain in the right knee, which they thought would settle but as things have persisted, they wanted her to be reviewed. There is no history of trauma or injury. There is no current systemic unwellness and no recent illness is reported. Her past medical history includes asthma and left slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) which required operative fixation about 18 months ago. On examination, she is systemically well and there is no obvious swelling, erythema or heat affecting the right knee which has a full range of movement.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise anti-inflammatory use, ice, and elevation of the knee

      Explanation:

      Importance of Examining Adjacent Joints in Orthopaedic Cases

      It is crucial to examine the joints above and below when an orthopaedic problem presents. This principle applies to all age groups, including paediatric cases. For instance, when a child presents with right knee pain, the clinician should also consider hip and ankle pathology.

      In cases where the patient has a history of left slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) and no signs of knee pathology, the clinician should pay particular attention to adjacent joints, especially the hip. According to NICE CKS, urgent assessment is necessary if a child over nine years old experiences painful or restricted hip movements, especially internal rotation, to exclude slipped upper femoral epiphysis. This condition is more common in this age group and requires immediate investigation, including AP and lateral X-rays of the hips.

      In summary, examining adjacent joints is crucial in orthopaedic cases, and clinicians should pay attention to any relevant history and symptoms to ensure prompt and accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 96 - A 15-month old girl is brought to you by her father, concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month old girl is brought to you by her father, concerned about her fine motor skills development. She was born at term without any complications during pregnancy or delivery. Her father feels that she is not progressing in the same way as her older siblings did at this age.

      At 12 months old, she was able to pick up small objects using her thumb and index finger. What is the next fine motor developmental milestone that you would expect this child to have achieved by now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pincer grip

      Explanation:

      The fully formed pincer grip is the latest fine motor development that can be expected at 12 months old. While finger pointing typically develops around 9 months old, there is no indication that the child in question has achieved this milestone yet. The palmar grasp, which is typically present at 6 months old, was only achieved at 9 months old, suggesting a potential developmental delay. Passing an object from one hand to another should be present at 6 months old but was only achieved at 12 months old. Reaching for an object is expected at 3 months old in normal development.

      Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones

      Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.

      In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.

      It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.

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  • Question 97 - When is it suitable to give a pertussis vaccine? ...

    Incorrect

    • When is it suitable to give a pertussis vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To a child who is HIV positive

      Explanation:

      Reasons to Withhold Vaccination

      Vaccination is an important aspect of healthcare, but there are certain situations where it may be necessary to withhold it. For example, pertussis immunisation should not be given to individuals with a history of prolonged seizures and encephalopathy within seven days of the first vaccine. However, a history of convulsions or a family history of epilepsy doesn’t warrant withholding immunisation. It is important to seek specialist opinion if an individual has an evolving neurological condition or poorly controlled epilepsy.

      In general, any vaccination should be postponed if an individual is suffering from a significant acute illness with fever or systemic upset. However, HIV-infected infants should still receive all appropriate killed vaccines according to the usual schedule. They should also receive polio, measles, mumps, and rubella vaccines, as the risk of these infections outweighs the risks of immunisation. The inactivated polio vaccine may be preferable in this case.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these reasons to withhold vaccination to avoid unnecessary missed opportunities for vaccination and to ensure the safety and effectiveness of immunisation.

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  • Question 98 - A child of 6 years is suspected to have Giardiasis.

    Which one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A child of 6 years is suspected to have Giardiasis.

      Which one of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Giardia lamblia is a parasite that can cause malabsorption and non-bloody diarrhea. The condition can be acquired locally, and stool microscopy may not always detect it. However, the good news is that it can be treated with metronidazole. Once treated, malabsorption typically resolves. If you experience symptoms of giardia lamblia, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 99 - An apprehensive mother has called the clinic to report that her family had...

    Incorrect

    • An apprehensive mother has called the clinic to report that her family had significant contact with a confirmed case of measles yesterday. Her husband believes he had measles when he was younger, but their three children, aged 6 months, 5 years, and 11 years, have not received the MMR vaccine. You are contemplating administering post-exposure prophylaxis with the MMR vaccine.

      What is the minimum age requirement for the MMR vaccine to be effective as post-exposure prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      MMR Vaccine Administration Guidelines

      The MMR vaccine can be administered at any age, but it is recommended to consult with your local Health Protection Team if the child is under 1 year of age. In case of exposure to measles, mumps, or rubella, most individuals can receive post-exposure prophylaxis with the MMR vaccine within three days, provided that the vaccine is not contraindicated. However, the response to MMR vaccine in infants under 6 months of age is not optimal, and it is not recommended as post-exposure prophylaxis in this age group.

      For children under 6 months of age, pregnant women, and immunocompromised individuals, human normal immunoglobulin should be considered if the MMR vaccine cannot be given. It is important to follow the recommended guidelines for MMR vaccine administration to ensure the best protection against these diseases.

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  • Question 100 - A 12-week-old baby is brought to the clinic with persistent regurgitation that causes...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-week-old baby is brought to the clinic with persistent regurgitation that causes significant distress. The infant is exclusively breastfed and appears otherwise healthy. The baby was born a week before the due date through a normal vaginal delivery. The mother experienced significant blood loss during delivery and required overnight observation. She was found to be slightly anemic and was given ferrous sulfate supplementation. What initial treatment would you suggest for this baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alginate therapy

      Explanation:

      When breastfed infants display symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux, it is important for a qualified individual to conduct a breastfeeding assessment. Simply observing the infant without providing any treatment is not appropriate, as the reported distress of the infant must be taken into consideration. While a proton pump inhibitor is a viable treatment option, an alginate is preferred due to its lower risk of side effects, provided it is effective. Alginates can be administered to breastfed infants by mixing them with cooled boiled water or expressed breast milk.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

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