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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has noticed a gradual decrease in hearing on her left side over the past six months. She also reports difficulty walking and a tendency to lean towards the left side. Upon referral to the ENT Department, the Consultant observes nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia, as well as sensorineural loss in her left ear. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Plain computerised tomography (CT) scan

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acoustic Neuroma: An Overview

      Acoustic neuroma is a type of tumor that affects the vestibular nerve and can cause symptoms such as unilateral hearing loss and unsteady gait. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the most reliable test for detecting acoustic neuroma, as it can detect tumors as small as 1-1.3 mm. MRI with gadolinium contrast is recommended in cases where brainstem testing is abnormal or there is a high suspicion of vestibular schwannoma.

      Plain computerized tomography (CT) scan can provide prognostic information on post-operative hearing loss, but it cannot detect all cases of acoustic neuroma. Otoscopy is of limited or no value in cases of sensorineural deafness.

      Pure tone audiometry (PTA) is the best initial screening test for acoustic neuroma, as only 5% of patients will have a normal test. Brainstem-evoked response audiometry can be used as a further screening measure in patients with unexplained asymmetries on standard audiometric testing.

      Vestibular testing has limited utility as a screening test for acoustic neuroma, but a decreased or absent caloric response on the affected side may be seen in some cases. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose acoustic neuroma and guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on 50...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on 50 aspirin tablets at 10:15 following an argument with his partner. He has a history of anxiety, depression, and self-harm, with multiple hospital admissions due to intentional overdose. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.5ºC, heart rate is 120 bpm, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute. The current time is 11:00. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: IV bicarbonate

      Correct Answer: Activated charcoal

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a suitable treatment option for aspirin overdose within an hour of ingestion. It can adsorb the salicylate in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its absorption. In this case, since the patient has presented within 50 minutes of the overdose, activated charcoal can be offered. Haemodialysis is not necessary at this point as the patient does not exhibit severe poisoning symptoms. IV acetylcysteine is not applicable in aspirin overdose cases as it is used for paracetamol overdose management.

      Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - These results were obtained on a 30-year-old male who has presented with tiredness:
    Free...

    Incorrect

    • These results were obtained on a 30-year-old male who has presented with tiredness:
      Free T4 9.3 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
      TSH 49.31 mU/L (0.35-5.50)
      What signs might be expected in this case?

      Your Answer: Palmar erythema

      Correct Answer: Slow relaxation of biceps reflex

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Symptoms of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is diagnosed through blood tests that show low levels of T4 and elevated levels of TSH. Physical examination may reveal slow relaxation of tendon jerks, bradycardia, and goitre. A bruit over a goitre is associated with Graves’ thyrotoxicosis, while palmar erythema and fine tremor occur in thyrotoxicosis. In addition to these common symptoms, hypothyroidism may also present with rarer features such as cerebellar features, compression neuropathies, hypothermia, and macrocytic anaemia. It is important to diagnose and treat hypothyroidism promptly to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 71-year-old man attends the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old man attends the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of a warm, red, tender right lower leg. He thinks it is the result of banging his leg against a wooden stool at home. He has a past medical history of diabetes. He is unable to recall his drug history and is unsure of his allergies, although he recalls having ‘a serious reaction’ to an antibiotic as a child.
      You diagnose cellulitis and prescribe an initial dose of flucloxacillin, which is shortly administered. Several minutes later, the nurse asks for an urgent review of the patient since the patient has become very anxious and has developed a hoarse voice. You attend the patient and note swelling of the tongue and lips. As you take the patient’s wrist to feel the rapid pulse, you also note cool fingers. A wheeze is audible on auscultation of the chest and patchy erythema is visible. You ask the nurse for observations and she informs you the respiratory rate is 29 and systolic blood pressure 90 mmHg. You treat the patient for an anaphylactic reaction, administering high-flow oxygen, intravenous (iv) fluid, adrenaline, hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine.
      What is the dose of adrenaline you would use?

      Your Answer: 1 ml of 1 in 10 000 im

      Correct Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 in 1000 intramuscular (im)

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis and the ABCDE Approach

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate medical attention. It is characterized by respiratory and circulatory compromise, skin and mucosal changes, and can be triggered by various agents such as foods and drugs. In the case of anaphylaxis, the ABCDE approach should be used to assess the patient. Adrenaline is the most important drug in the treatment of anaphylaxis and should be administered at a dose of 0.5 mg (0.5 ml of 1 in 1000) intramuscularly. The response to adrenaline should be monitored, and further boluses may be required depending on the patient’s response. Other medications that should be given include chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone, as well as intravenous fluids. It is crucial to recognize and treat anaphylaxis promptly to prevent severe complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old male presents with a blood pressure reading of 170/100 mmHg. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male presents with a blood pressure reading of 170/100 mmHg. Upon examination, he exhibits a prominent aortic ejection click and murmurs are heard over the ribs anteriorly and over the back. Additionally, he reports experiencing mild claudication with exertion and has feeble pulses in his lower extremities. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the Aorta: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Coarctation of the aorta is a condition that can present with various symptoms. These may include headaches, nosebleeds, cold extremities, and claudication. However, hypertension is the most typical symptom. A mid-systolic murmur may also be present over the anterior part of the chest, back, spinous process, and a continuous murmur may also be heard.

      One important radiographic finding in coarctation of the aorta is notching of the ribs. This is due to erosion by collaterals. It is important to diagnose coarctation of the aorta early on, as it can lead to serious complications such as heart failure, stroke, and aortic rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss over the past 6 months. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and has suffered from indigestion symptoms for some years. On examination, his body mass index is 18 and he looks thin. He has epigastric tenderness and a suspicion of a mass on examination of the abdomen.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Faecal occult blood (FOB) Positive
      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy Yellowish coloured, ulcerating
      submucosal mass within the
      stomach
      Histology Extensive lymphocytes within the biopsy
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Histological Diagnoses of Gastric Conditions

      Gastric lymphoma is often caused by chronic infection with H. pylori, and eradicating the infection can be curative. If not, chemotherapy is the first-line treatment. Other risk factors include HIV infection and long-term immunosuppressive therapy. In contrast, H. pylori gastritis is diagnosed through histological examination, which reveals lymphocytes and may indicate gastric lymphoma. Gastric ulcers are characterized by inflammation, necrosis, fibrinoid tissue, or granulation tissue on histology. Gastric carcinoma is identified through adenocarcinoma of diffuse or intestinal type, with higher grades exhibiting poorly formed tubules, intracellular mucous, and signet ring cells. Finally, alcoholic gastritis is diagnosed through histology as neutrophils in the epithelium above the basement membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A study is conducted to investigate the relationship between age and development of...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to investigate the relationship between age and development of heart failure. Age was categorized as ‘under 50’ or ‘50 and over’. The outcome measure was development of heart failure. 2000 individuals were included in the study, of which 300 have heart failure. A total of 60 with heart failure are under 50 years old; 40 without heart failure are under 50 years old. What is the odds ratio of getting heart failure in those under 50 years old versus those who are 50 and over?

      Your Answer: 4.8

      Correct Answer: 10.4

      Explanation:

      Calculating Odds Ratio in a Contingency Table

      Interpreting data presented in a contingency table can be useful in determining the odds ratio of a particular condition. The odds ratio is calculated by dividing the odds of contracting the condition in the exposed group by the odds of contracting the condition in the unexposed group. For example, if the contingency table shows that 30 cases of heart failure occurred in smokers and 120 cases occurred in non-smokers, while 20 controls were smokers and 830 controls were non-smokers, the odds ratio would be (30/20) / (120/830), which equals 10.4. This means that patients who smoke are over ten times more likely to develop heart failure compared to non-smokers. Other odds ratios can be calculated in a similar manner for different conditions and exposures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with his wife, complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with his wife, complaining of feeling excessively tired during the day. He has been prescribed donepezil for Alzheimer's disease (AD), and he has observed some improvement in his cognitive abilities with this medication. However, his wife reports that he struggles to sleep at night and is becoming increasingly lethargic during the day.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alzheimer’s Disease: Choosing the Right Treatment

      Alzheimer’s Disease (AD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. Patients with AD often experience sleeping difficulties due to changes in circadian rhythms and medication side-effects. Trazodone, an atypical antidepressant, is often used as adjunctive treatment in patients with AD to manage insomnia. Along with sleep hygiene measures, such as avoidance of naps, daytime activity, and frequent exercise, trazodone is likely to help this patient’s sleeping problems.

      Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, is used to manage the psychotic manifestations of AD. However, the clinical scenario has not provided any evidence that the patient is suffering from psychosis. Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is unlikely to benefit the patient who is already taking a similar medication.

      Memantine, an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, can be used as adjunctive treatment or monotherapy in patients who do not tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors. However, this patient is experiencing sleeping difficulty and is more likely to benefit from a medication that specifically targets this clinical problem.

      Tacrine, a centrally acting anticholinesterase inhibitor medication, was previously used for the management of AD. However, due to its potent side-effect profile of fatal hepatotoxicity, it is now rarely used. Additionally, tacrine is unlikely to help this patient’s insomnia.

      Choosing the right medication for AD requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and potential side-effects. Trazodone may be a suitable option for managing insomnia in patients with AD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Who sets the rules on treatment and investigation of 16-year olds who lack...

    Incorrect

    • Who sets the rules on treatment and investigation of 16-year olds who lack capacity to consent in Scotland?

      Your Answer: The decision regarding young person’s competence in R v Gillick

      Correct Answer: Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000

      Explanation:

      Overview of Scottish Legislation and Guidance for Capacity and Welfare

      In Scotland, there are several pieces of legislation and guidance in place to safeguard the welfare and manage the finances of individuals who lack capacity due to mental disorder or inability to communicate. The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 provides the framework for this, while the Age of Legal Capacity (Scotland) Act 1991 presumes that all individuals aged 16 and over have the capacity to consent to treatment unless there is evidence to the contrary.

      The Children’s Act (Scotland) 1995 sets out the duties and powers available to public authorities to support children and their families and intervene when a child’s welfare requires it. The Scotland’s Commissioner for Children and Young People guidance explains the rights of young people under the age of 18.

      In addition, the decision regarding young person’s competence in R v Gillick established the concept of Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines, which are used to assess whether a child has the maturity to make their own decisions and understand the implications of those decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 48-year old teacher is found to have a raised fasting glucose and...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year old teacher is found to have a raised fasting glucose and abnormal cholesterol results following routine blood testing as a part of her NHS health check. She is noted to have a BMI of 32. She is also hypertensive. The reviewing physician suspects that the patient has metabolic syndrome.
      Which of the following statements is true about the metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer: High serum high-density lipoprotein (HDL) is typical

      Correct Answer: Patients usually have high circulating insulin levels

      Explanation:

      Understanding Metabolic Syndrome and its Associated Features

      Metabolic syndrome is a condition characterized by three or more of the following: increased waist circumference, BMI >30 kg/m2, raised triglycerides, reduced HDL cholesterol, hypertension, and raised fasting glucose. It typically occurs in individuals with central obesity and insulin resistance, leading to elevated circulating insulin and C-peptide levels. However, significant weight loss can reverse insulin resistance and resolve the features of metabolic syndrome.

      Contrary to what one might expect, high serum HDL is typical in metabolic syndrome, while low serum HDL is a diagnostic criteria. Additionally, metabolic syndrome is a key risk factor for non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), which is fairly common in these patients. Hyperuricaemia is also common in metabolic syndrome, rather than hypouricaemia.

      Finally, while metabolic syndrome incidence does increase with age, it does not necessarily peak in the fifth decade of life. Understanding these features can aid in the diagnosis and management of metabolic syndrome and its associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old professional footballer comes to the Dermatology Clinic with a lesion on...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old professional footballer comes to the Dermatology Clinic with a lesion on his leg. The lesion started as a small cut he got during a match, but it has progressed over the past few weeks, becoming a large, painful ulcer.
      During the examination, the doctor finds that the lesion is 50 mm × 75 mm and ulcerated with a necrotic centre. The patient has no medical history, but his general practitioner (GP) recently investigated him for a change in bowel habit, including bloody stools, and fatigue.
      The patient's anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody test comes back positive, and no organisms grow from the wound swab. The doctor prescribes systemic steroids, and the patient experiences rapid improvement.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Cutaneous Ulcer in a Patient with IBD Symptoms

      When presented with a painful cutaneous ulcer, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient is experiencing fatigue and change in bowel habit, which could be indicative of underlying inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). One possible diagnosis is pyoderma gangrenosum, which is commonly associated with IBD, rheumatoid arthritis, or hepatitis. This condition presents with a rapidly progressing, painful, necrolytic cutaneous ulcer that responds well to systemic steroids. Livedo reticularis, erythema nodosum, and lupus pernio are other possible diagnoses, but they do not typically present with ulceration in this pattern or are not associated with IBD. While squamous cell carcinoma should be considered, it is unlikely in this case due to the patient’s young age and the rapid deterioration of the ulcer. Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition causing the cutaneous ulcer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 14-year-old boy with thalassaemia major, receiving regular blood transfusions, has been added...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy with thalassaemia major, receiving regular blood transfusions, has been added to the transplant waiting list for chronic heart failure. What is the probable reason for his heart failure?

      Your Answer: Transfusion-related bacterial endocarditis

      Correct Answer: Transfusion haemosiderosis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Blood Transfusions: Understanding the Risks

      Blood transfusions are a common medical intervention used to treat a variety of conditions, from severe bleeding to anaemia. While they can be life-saving, they also carry certain risks and potential complications. Here are some of the most common complications associated with blood transfusions:

      Transfusion haemosiderosis: Repeated blood transfusions can lead to the accumulation of iron in the body’s organs, particularly the heart and endocrine system. This can cause irreversible heart failure if left untreated.

      High-output cardiac failure: While anaemia on its own may not be enough to cause heart failure, it can exacerbate the condition in those with reduced left ventricular systolic dysfunction.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction: This occurs when there is a mismatch between the major histocompatibility antigens on blood cells, such as the ABO system. It can cause severe intravascular haemolysis, disseminated intravascular coagulation, renal failure, and shock, and has a high mortality rate if not recognized and treated quickly.

      Pulmonary oedema: While rare in patients with normal left ventricular systolic function, blood transfusions can cause fluid overload and pulmonary oedema, which can exacerbate chronic heart failure.

      Transfusion-related bacterial endocarditis: While rare, bacterial infections can occur from blood transfusions. Platelet pools, which are stored at room temperature, have a slightly higher risk of bacterial contamination that can cause fulminant sepsis.

      Understanding the potential complications of blood transfusions is important for both patients and healthcare providers. By recognizing and addressing these risks, we can ensure that blood transfusions remain a safe and effective treatment option for those who need them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain and bright red blood in his vomit. He has a long history of heavy alcohol consumption. On examination, he has guarding over the epigastric region and cool extremities. He also has a distended abdomen with ascites and spider naevi on his neck and cheek. The patient is unstable hemodynamically, and fluid resuscitation is initiated. What is the most crucial medication to begin given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Oesophageal Variceal Bleeds

      Oesophageal variceal bleeds are a serious medical emergency that require prompt treatment. The most important medication to administer in this situation is terlipressin, which reduces bleeding by constricting the mesenteric arterial circulation and decreasing portal venous inflow. Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet medication, should not be used as it may worsen bleeding. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can be used prophylactically to prevent variceal bleeding but is not the most important medication to start in an acute setting. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is not recommended before endoscopy in the latest guidelines but is often used in hospital protocols. Tranexamic acid can aid in the treatment of acute bleeding but is not indicated for oesophageal variceal bleeds. Following terlipressin administration, band ligation should be performed, and if bleeding persists, TIPS should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 6-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric clinic for failure to thrive....

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric clinic for failure to thrive. She has failed to maintain her weight and suffers from diarrhoea and frequent respiratory tract infections. A sweat test is performed and the chloride content of the sweat is 68 mmol/l.
      Which of the following modes of inheritance fits best with this condition?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Genetic Inheritance Patterns and Abnormalities

      Genetic inheritance patterns play a crucial role in the development of various diseases and abnormalities. Autosomal recessive inheritance is seen in conditions like cystic fibrosis, where mutations in the CFTR gene cause defective chloride transport and excessive viscous mucous secretions. Diagnosis is made through the sweat test, which measures chloride levels. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in conditions like Marfan syndrome and familial hypercholesterolaemia. Sex-linked inheritance is seen in conditions like Duchenne muscular dystrophy and haemophilia. Chromosomal non-disjunction occurs when homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, leading to aneuploidy zygotes like in Down syndrome. Chromosomal translocation occurs when non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts, leading to fusion chromosomes like in chronic myelogenous leukaemia. Understanding these inheritance patterns and abnormalities is crucial in the diagnosis and management of various genetic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 64-year-old computer programmer reported experiencing frequent headaches to his GP. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old computer programmer reported experiencing frequent headaches to his GP. Upon examination, the GP observed papilloedema and pupillary dilation and referred the patient for further radiological studies and to a neurologist. The results of the radiological studies revealed a mass causing non-communicating hydrocephalus. Where is the most likely location of the tumour?

      Your Answer: Lateral geniculate nucleus

      Correct Answer: Pineal gland

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Non-Communicating Hydrocephalus

      Non-communicating hydrocephalus can be caused by various factors, including a pinealoma, which is a slow-growing tumor of the pineal gland. This type of tumor can compress the midbrain cerebral aqueduct, leading to a blockage in the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the lateral and third ventricles to the fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space. To address this issue, surgical placement of a shunt may be necessary.

      Another possible cause of non-communicating hydrocephalus is a midbrain tumor, such as a pinealoma, which can compress the Edinger-Westphal nuclei. This can result in mydriasis or dilation of the pupil due to the lack of parasympathetic input from the Edinger-Westphal nuclei to the oculomotor muscles.

      It is important to note that a cerebellar lesion is unlikely to cause non-communicating hydrocephalus, as it is associated with defects in coordination and changes in gait. Similarly, an optic nerve lesion is also unlikely to cause this condition, as afferent fibers from the retina pass through the optic nerve to the hypothalamic lateral geniculate nucleus. A lesion in the lateral geniculate nucleus is more likely to cause visual symptoms rather than non-communicating hydrocephalus.

      In summary, understanding the possible causes of non-communicating hydrocephalus can help in identifying and addressing the underlying issue. A thorough evaluation and diagnosis by a medical professional is necessary for proper treatment and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 76-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of difficulty speaking, swallowing, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of difficulty speaking, swallowing, and experiencing sudden emotional outbursts of laughter or tears. Upon examination, the doctor observes a spastic tongue, an exaggerated jaw jerk, normal gag reflex, and bilateral upper motor neuron signs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulbar palsy

      Correct Answer: Pseudobulbar palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pseudobulbar Palsy: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis

      Pseudobulbar palsy is a neurological condition that results from lesions in the corticobulbar pathways connecting the cortex to the brainstem. This article aims to provide a comprehensive understanding of pseudobulbar palsy, including its symptoms, causes, and differential diagnosis.

      Symptoms of Pseudobulbar Palsy
      Patients with pseudobulbar palsy may experience emotional lability, difficulty swallowing, and spastic dysarthria, which can cause a husky or gravelly voice. On examination, patients may exhibit an exaggerated jaw jerk, weak muscles of mastication, a spastic immobile tongue, and bilateral upper motor neuron signs.

      Causes of Pseudobulbar Palsy
      Pseudobulbar palsy can occur due to demyelination, such as in multiple sclerosis, motor neuron disease, and bilateral cerebrovascular disease. Other causes include traumatic brain injury, brain tumors, and infections.

      Differential Diagnosis
      It is important to differentiate pseudobulbar palsy from other neurological conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, a frontal lobe tumor can cause emotional lability and personality changes, but it would not explain the bilateral upper motor neuron signs and voice changes seen in pseudobulbar palsy. Bulbar palsy, on the other hand, is caused by lower motor neuron disturbance and presents with nasal speech and tongue fasciculations, absent gag reflex, and lower motor neuron signs. Cerebellar infarcts and Huntington’s disease can also present with speech and motor impairments, but they have distinct clinical features that differentiate them from pseudobulbar palsy.

      Conclusion
      Pseudobulbar palsy is a neurological condition that can cause emotional lability, difficulty swallowing, and spastic dysarthria. It is important to consider this diagnosis in patients presenting with these symptoms and to differentiate it from other neurological conditions that may have similar presentations. Early diagnosis and management can improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman has come to her doctor for a medication review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has come to her doctor for a medication review. She was diagnosed with bipolar disorder 10 months ago and has been taking olanzapine 10 mg once daily and lithium carbonate 600mg twice daily. While her psychological symptoms have improved, she has been feeling more fatigued in the past few weeks. Additionally, she has noticed a decrease in appetite and has experienced bouts of constipation. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism due to olanzapine toxicity

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism due to lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      Chronic lithium toxicity is the leading cause of hypothyroidism, which is the most common endocrine disorder. The onset of this condition typically occurs within 6 to 18 months of starting lithium treatment, although the exact mechanism by which lithium inhibits thyroid hormone release is not well understood. While olanzapine does not cause hypothyroidism or hypercalcemia, lithium is not associated with hypoadrenalism. Although undertreatment of bipolar disorder can lead to a depressive episode, the patient in this case has experienced an improvement in mood and the emergence of new somatic symptoms, making hypothyroidism due to lithium toxicity a more probable diagnosis.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old woman was admitted 3 days ago with small bowel obstruction. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman was admitted 3 days ago with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and she began 2 litres of intravenous (IV) fluids daily. She reports feeling short of breath and, on examination has widespread fine crackles on auscultation of her chest and pitting sacral oedema. Her notes show that she weighs 48 kg. You're-calculate her daily fluid intake.
      What is her required daily fluid intake?

      Your Answer: 2000–2500 ml

      Correct Answer: 1000–1500 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculating Maintenance Fluids for a Patient in Fluid Overload

      When a patient is in fluid overload and experiencing pulmonary edema, it is important to carefully calculate their maintenance fluid requirements to avoid worsening their condition. The recommended calculation is 25-30 ml/kg/day. For a patient weighing 48 kg, this equates to a fluid requirement of 1200-1440 ml per day.

      If the patient is currently receiving 2 liters of fluid per day, it is likely that this was necessary initially to replace fluid loss. However, once this has been achieved, it is important to step down to normal maintenance levels to avoid exacerbating the fluid overload. Giving 1500-2000 ml or more would only worsen the patient’s condition.

      Therefore, it is important to carefully monitor a patient’s fluid intake and adjust as necessary to maintain a safe balance and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      28.6
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  • Question 19 - A concerned mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy who has been experiencing recurrent...

    Correct

    • A concerned mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy who has been experiencing recurrent eye problems. The baby has been having persistent sticky discharge and the mother has tried various drops and cleaning methods without success. Upon examination, the baby's pupils are equal and reactive, the conjunctiva shows no signs of inflammation, the sclera is white, and the eyelids appear healthy. The baby has a normal gaze, a normal red reflex, and tracks objects in their visual field appropriately.
      Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the best advice to offer the mother?

      Your Answer: The condition usually self-resolves by 1 year

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants

      Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that affects around 10% of infants at one month of age. It is characterized by a persistent watery eye caused by an imperforate membrane, usually located at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. Fortunately, symptoms usually resolve on their own by the age of one year in 95% of cases.

      To manage this condition, parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct to help clear any blockages. However, if symptoms persist beyond one year, it is recommended to seek the advice of an ophthalmologist. In such cases, probing may be considered, which is a procedure done under a light general anaesthetic. By understanding the causes and management of nasolacrimal duct obstruction, parents can take the necessary steps to ensure their child’s eye health and comfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 48-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest tightness. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest tightness. His blood pressure is 200/105 mmHg and heart rate is 70 bpm. His femoral pulses cannot be felt. Echocardiography reveals cardiomegaly and a left-ventricular ejection fraction of 34%. The patient also has a N-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) of 25,000 pg/mL. As a result of the patient’s hypertension and high levels of NT-proBNP, he undergoes coronary angiography to exclude cardiac ischaemia. There is no evidence of myocardial ischaemia, but there are significant arterial findings.
      Which of the following is most likely to be seen on coronary angiography of this patient?

      Your Answer: Calcified arteries

      Correct Answer: Stenotic arteries

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Arterial Conditions: Understanding the Symptoms and Causes

      When it comes to arterial conditions, it is important to understand the symptoms and causes in order to make an accurate diagnosis. Here, we will explore several potential conditions and how they may present in a patient.

      Stenotic Arteries:
      Coarctation of the aorta is a potential condition to consider in younger adults with poorly controlled hypertension. Symptoms may include weak or absent femoral pulses, heart failure, and left-ventricular hypertrophy. Angiography may reveal stenosis in the middle and proximal segments of the left anterior descending artery, as well as in the left circumflex artery.

      Thickened Arteries:
      Atherosclerosis, or the build-up of plaque in the arteries, is a risk factor for heart attacks and stroke. However, it is unlikely to explain persistently high blood pressure or an absent femoral pulse.

      Aortic Aneurysm:
      While chronic high blood pressure can increase the risk of an aortic aneurysm, sudden, intense chest or back pain is a more common symptom. Additionally, a patient with an aneurysm would likely have low blood pressure and an elevated heart rate, which is inconsistent with the vitals seen in this presentation.

      Calcified Arteries:
      Calcification of arteries is caused by elevated lipid content and increases with age. While it can increase the risk of heart attack and stroke, it would not explain the absence of a femoral pulse or extremely high blood pressure.

      Patent Foramen Ovale:
      This condition, which predisposes patients to paradoxical emboli, is typically diagnosed on an echocardiogram and is unlikely to cause hypertension. It should be considered in patients who have had a stroke before the age of 50.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and causes of arterial conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23.5
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  • Question 21 - A 78-year-old man with known dementia is admitted to hospital for treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with known dementia is admitted to hospital for treatment of a community acquired pneumonia. Unfortunately, he was not accompanied by a family member and the history provided by the patient seems confused. Upon arrival of the daughter, she confirms that her father has been confusing real events with those from his imagination. Through this process he appears to be able to maintain a superficial conversation despite significant cognitive impairment.
      Which of the following describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Confabulation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Confabulation, Delusions, and Other Psychiatric Phenomena

      Confabulation, delusions, and other psychiatric phenomena can be confusing and difficult to differentiate. Confabulation is a phenomenon where patients fabricate imaginary experiences due to memory loss, often seen in patients with cognitive impairment. Delusions, on the other hand, are beliefs held with strong conviction despite evidence to the contrary, commonly seen in conditions such as schizophrenia. Flight of ideas, pressure of speech, and hallucinations are other psychiatric phenomena that can be seen in different conditions. Understanding the differences between these phenomena is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old male with sickle cell disease complains of severe abdominal pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male with sickle cell disease complains of severe abdominal pain. He has a blood pressure of 105/80 mmHg, heart rate of 110 bpm, and temperature of 38.0°C. What would be your initial step?

      Your Answer: IV benzylpenicillin 2.4 g

      Correct Answer: IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Sickle Cell Crisis in Septic Patients Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 8-10% of the African population. When a patient with sickle cell disease presents with sepsis and tachycardia, the first step in management is to administer a fluid bolus. Intravenous fluids and analgesia, usually with opiates, are the mainstay of treatment for sickle cell crisis. However, analgesia should be managed in a step-wise manner. In addition to fluid and pain management, antibiotics should be considered to cover potential infections such as Haemophilus influenzae type b, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and Pneumococcus. Ceftriaxone, erythromycin, and cefuroxime are examples of antibiotics that can be used. It is important to note that patients with sickle cell disease may also develop appendicitis, like any other young patient. Therefore, a surgical consult may be necessary. Despite the severity of sickle cell disease, the prognosis is good. Approximately 50% of patients survive beyond the fifth decade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      11.4
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  • Question 23 - A 20-year-old male patient comes to you with a fever and rash one...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male patient comes to you with a fever and rash one week after returning from a trip to Puerto Rico. He reports that his fever began five days ago and was followed by the appearance of a rash. Additionally, he has noticed bleeding gums while brushing his teeth and has experienced two nosebleeds since returning from his vacation. During the examination, you observe multiple mosquito bites on his legs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Leptospirosis

      Correct Answer: Dengue fever

      Explanation:

      Dengue Fever

      Dengue fever is a viral infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected Aedes mosquito. It is prevalent in tropical countries, with an estimated 100 million people being infected annually. The symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, skin rash, and mild bleeding. However, it cannot be spread from person to person.

      The high-risk areas for dengue fever include the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, Pacific Islands, Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central and South America. Diagnosis is made through a blood test to identify the virus, and treatment is supportive with symptom control. Unfortunately, there are currently no vaccines available to prevent dengue fever.

      The best way to prevent infection is to avoid mosquito bites. This can be done by wearing protective clothing, using mosquito repellent, and staying in air-conditioned or screened areas. the symptoms and risk factors of dengue fever can help individuals take necessary precautions to protect themselves from this potentially serious illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 41-year-old female with a history of Leber's optic atrophy visits her doctor....

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old female with a history of Leber's optic atrophy visits her doctor. She and her husband are planning to have children and she wants to know the likelihood of passing on her condition. She vaguely remembers her geneticist mentioning something about mitochondria but can't recall the specifics of the inheritance pattern. Assuming her husband does not carry the same gene defect, what is the chance that their child will inherit the condition?

      Your Answer: 100%

      Correct Answer: 0%

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial disorders encompass a range of conditions, such as leigh syndrome, mitochondrial diabetes, MELAS syndrome, and MERFF syndrome.

      Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.

      Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      29.6
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old male with a history of diabetes mellitus for five years presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a history of diabetes mellitus for five years presents with restricted myocardial dysfunction and skin pigmentation. His ALT level is elevated at 153 IU/L. What is the most suitable investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Serum copper content

      Correct Answer: Serum ferritin and transferrin saturation

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic condition that results in excessive absorption of iron from the gut, leading to the accumulation of iron in various organs such as the liver, pancreas, heart, endocrine glands, and joints. This condition is characterized by extremely high levels of ferritin (>500) and transferrin saturation. The transferrin saturation test measures the amount of iron bound to the protein that carries iron in the blood, while the total iron binding capacity (TIBC) test determines how well the blood can transport iron. The serum ferritin test, on the other hand, shows the level of iron in the liver.

      To confirm the diagnosis of haemochromatosis, a test to detect the HFE mutation is usually conducted. If the mutation is not present, then hereditary haemochromatosis is not the cause of the iron build-up. It is important to note that other conditions such as Wilson’s disease, hepatitis B infection, and autoimmune hepatitis may also cause raised ferritin levels, but they do not result in myocardial dysfunction or skin pigmentation.

      In summary, haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes excessive absorption of iron from the gut, leading to the accumulation of iron in various organs. Diagnosis is usually confirmed through a combination of tests, including the HFE mutation test, transferrin saturation test, TIBC test, and serum ferritin test. It is important to differentiate haemochromatosis from other conditions that may cause similar symptoms but require different treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.1
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that has worsened in the last 6 hours. She has vomited twice and recently had a sore throat. Her general practitioner has been treating her with a topical anti-fungal cream for vaginal thrush. On examination, she is photophobic and has moderate neck stiffness. The Glasgow Coma Score is 15/15, and she has no focal neurological signs. Her temperature is 38.5 °C. A computed tomography (CT) brain scan is reported as ‘Normal intracranial appearances’. A lumbar puncture is performed and CSF results are as follows: CSF protein 0.6 g/l (<0.45), cell count 98 white cells/mm3, mainly lymphocytes (<5), CSF glucose 2.8 mmol/l (2.5 – 4.4 mmol/l), and blood glucose 4.3 mmol/l (3-6 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute bacterial meningitis

      Correct Answer: Acute viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Acute Viral Meningitis from Other Neurological Disorders

      Acute viral meningitis is characterized by mild elevation of protein, a mainly lymphocytic cellular reaction, and a CSF: blood glucose ratio of >50%. In contrast, bacterial meningitis presents with a polymorph leukocytosis, lower relative glucose level, and more severe signs of meningism. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents subacutely with very high CSF protein and very low CSF glucose. Fungal meningitis is rare and mainly occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Guillain–Barré syndrome, an autoimmune peripheral nerve disorder causing ascending paralysis, is often triggered by a recent viral illness but presents with focal neurological signs, which are absent in viral meningitis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 54-year-old woman presents with thickened skin on her face and below her...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with thickened skin on her face and below her elbows, while the skin above her elbows appears normal. She has a known history of Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Correct Answer: Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is a form of systemic sclerosis where the skin hardening is limited to the face and distal limbs, below the elbows. In contrast, diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs. Sclerodactyly specifically refers to skin hardening of the fingers or toes. Dermatomyositis and systemic lupus erythematosus are inflammatory conditions that do not typically cause skin hardening. Psoriasis is a skin condition characterized by red, scaly patches of skin covered with silvery scales.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.1
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man is worried about several recent incidents related to his sleep....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is worried about several recent incidents related to his sleep. He reports experiencing paralysis upon waking up and occasionally when falling asleep, accompanied by what he describes as 'hallucinations' such as seeing another person in the room. These episodes are causing him increasing anxiety. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: Sleep paralysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sleep Paralysis

      Sleep paralysis is a condition that affects many people and is characterized by a temporary inability to move the skeletal muscles when waking up or falling asleep. It is believed to be linked to the natural paralysis that occurs during REM sleep. This phenomenon is recognized in various cultures and is often accompanied by hallucinations or vivid images.

      The paralysis occurs either before falling asleep or after waking up, and it can be a frightening experience for those who are not familiar with it. However, it is a relatively harmless condition that does not require medical attention in most cases. If the symptoms are particularly bothersome, medication such as clonazepam may be prescribed to alleviate the symptoms.

      In summary, sleep paralysis is a common occurrence that affects many people. It is characterized by temporary paralysis of the skeletal muscles and is often accompanied by hallucinations. While it can be a frightening experience, it is generally harmless and does not require medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      15.6
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  • Question 29 - A 22-year-old woman brings her 8-week-old baby to an emergency GP appointment. The...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman brings her 8-week-old baby to an emergency GP appointment. The mother reports that her baby is extremely fussy in the evenings, crying incessantly and pulling up their legs. The baby was delivered vaginally at full term and is exclusively breastfed. The baby's weight is normal and there are no other health concerns. Upon examination, everything appears to be normal. What course of action would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Reassurance and support

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infantile Colic

      Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, which is often worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.

      Despite its prevalence, there is no known cure for infantile colic. However, there are some remedies that parents can try to alleviate the symptoms. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries advise against the use of simethicone or lactase drops, such as Infacol® and Colief®, respectively. These remedies have not been proven to be effective in treating infantile colic.

      Parents can try other methods to soothe their baby, such as holding them close, rocking them gently, or using a pacifier. Some parents also find that white noise or music can help calm their baby. It is important to remember that infantile colic is a temporary condition that usually resolves on its own by the time the baby is three to four months old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      25.3
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  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old woman visited her GP complaining of discomfort and pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman visited her GP complaining of discomfort and pain in her shoulder. The doctor conducted a thorough examination of her shoulder and observed that she was unable to abduct her shoulder while standing with her arm flat against her body. However, the doctor was able to passively abduct her shoulder during the first 20 degrees, and she was able to fully abduct it. Which muscle is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The shoulder joint is stabilized by a group of muscles known as the rotator cuffs. To remember them, you can use the following order: Subscapularis, which is located on the front of your chest and assists with internal rotation of the shoulder; Supraspinatus, which runs parallel to your deltoid on top of your shoulder and is necessary for the first 20° of shoulder abduction before the deltoid takes over; and Infraspinatus, which is located on the upper back and helps with external rotation of the shoulder.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles include the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis. Each muscle has a specific function that contributes to the overall movement of the shoulder.

      The supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is also the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each rotator cuff muscle is important in preventing injuries and maintaining shoulder health. By strengthening these muscles through targeted exercises, individuals can improve their shoulder stability and reduce the risk of injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
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Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
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Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
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Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
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