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  • Question 1 - A 12-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia, an autosomal recessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia, an autosomal recessive genetic disease that causes difficulty walking, a loss of sensation in the arms and legs and impaired speech that worsens over time. What condition should this patient be screened for as a result of having this disease?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of aorta

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Friedreich’s ataxia is a genetic disorder caused by a deficiency of the frataxin protein, which can lead to cardiac neuropathy and hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. This condition is not associated with haemophilia, coarctation of the aorta, streptococcal pharyngitis, Kawasaki disease, or coronary artery aneurysm. However, Group A streptococcal infections can cause acute rheumatic fever and chronic rheumatic heart disease, which are autoimmune diseases that affect the heart.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to the acute medical ward after experiencing a...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to the acute medical ward after experiencing a myocardial infarction. During examination, it is discovered that his heart rate is 40 beats per minute. The consultant explains that this is due to damage to the conduction pathways between the sinoatrial and atrioventricular (AV) node, resulting in the AV node pacing his ventricles exclusively.

      In most patients, what is the blood supply to the AV node?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The AV node is typically supplied by the right coronary artery in right-dominant hearts, while in left-dominant hearts it is supplied by the left circumflex artery. The left circumflex artery also supplies the left atrium and some of the left ventricle, while the right marginal artery supplies the right ventricle, the posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum, and the left anterior descending artery supplies the left ventricle.

      The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 22-year-old male student is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male student is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance. He is unconscious, hypotensive, and tachycardic. According to his friend, he started feeling unwell after being stung by a bee in the park. The medical team suspects anaphylactic shock and begins resuscitation. While anaphylactic shock causes widespread vasodilation, which mediator is responsible for arteriole constriction?

      Your Answer: Parasympathetic nervous input

      Correct Answer: Endothelin

      Explanation:

      Arteriolar constriction is facilitated by various mediators such as noradrenaline from the sympathetic nervous system, circulating catecholamines, angiotensin-2, and locally released endothelin peptide by endothelial cells. Endothelin primarily acts on ET(A) receptors to cause constriction, but it can also cause dilation by acting on ET(B) receptors.

      On the other hand, the parasympathetic nervous system, nitric oxide, and prostacyclin are all responsible for facilitating arteriolar dilation, rather than constriction.

      Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases

      Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.

      In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 79-year-old man has just noticed that his heart is beating irregularly. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man has just noticed that his heart is beating irregularly. Upon examination, his pulse is found to be irregularly irregular with a rate of 56 bpm. What ECG findings would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Regular P waves but not associated with QRS complexes

      Correct Answer: No P wave preceding each QRS complex

      Explanation:

      Atrial Fibrillation and its Causes

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition characterized by irregular heartbeats due to the constant activity of the atria. This can lead to the absence of distinct P waves, making it difficult to diagnose. AF can be caused by various factors such as hyperthyroidism, alcohol excess, mitral stenosis, and fibrous degeneration. The primary risks associated with AF are strokes and cardiac failure. Blood clots can form in the atria due to the lack of atrial movement, which can then be distributed into the systemic circulation, leading to strokes. High rates of AF can also cause syncopal episodes and cardiac failure.

      The treatment of AF can be divided into controlling the rate or rhythm. If the rhythm cannot be controlled reliably, long-term anticoagulation with warfarin may be necessary to reduce the risk of stroke, depending on other risk factors. Bifid P waves are associated with hypertrophy of the left atrium, while regular P waves with no relation to QRS complexes are seen in complete heart block. Small P waves can be seen in hypokalaemia.

      In cases of AF with shock, immediate medical attention is necessary, and emergency drug or electronic cardioversion may be needed. the causes and risks associated with AF is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old woman came in with an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG revealed...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman came in with an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG revealed ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is the most probable to be blocked?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Localisation of Myocardial Infarction

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a medical emergency that occurs when there is a blockage in the blood flow to the heart muscle. The location of the blockage determines the type of MI and the treatment required. An inferior MI is caused by the occlusion of the right coronary artery, which supplies blood to the bottom of the heart. This type of MI can cause symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea. It is important to identify the location of the MI quickly to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Proper diagnosis and management can improve the patient’s chances of survival and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old woman has been prescribed amiodarone. She has been advised to take...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman has been prescribed amiodarone. She has been advised to take higher doses initially and then switch to a lower maintenance dose for long-term use.

      What is the rationale behind this initial dosing regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slow metabolism of amiodarone due to extensive lipid binding

      Explanation:

      A loading dose is necessary for amiodarone to achieve therapeutic levels quickly before transitioning to a maintenance dose. This is because a 50mg once daily maintenance dose would take a long time to reach the required 1000mg for therapeutic effect. The fast metabolism of amiodarone due to extensive protein binding, extensive hepatic P450 breakdown, and slow absorption via the enteral route are not the reasons for a loading regime.

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain and vomiting blood. The patient has been taking naproxen for Achilles tendinopathy. Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachycardic with a pulse of 110 and has a blood pressure of 95/60. An urgent endoscopy is performed, revealing a bleeding peptic ulcer. To stop the bleeding definitively, the patient is sent for embolisation of the left gastric artery via angiogram.

      During the angiogram, what vertebral level can be used as a radiological marker for the origin of the artery supplying the left gastric artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      In cases where initial treatment for upper GI bleeds is ineffective, angiography may be necessary to embolize the affected vessel and halt the bleeding. To perform an angiogram, the radiologist will access the aorta through the femoral artery, ascend to the 12th vertebrae, and then enter the left gastric artery via the coeliac trunk.

      Peptic ulcers in otherwise healthy patients are often caused by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      The coeliac trunk is not located at any vertebral level other than the 12th. The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm with the vagal trunk at the T10 level, while the T11 level has no significant associated structures. The superior mesenteric artery and left renal artery branch off the abdominal aorta at the L1 level.

      The aorta is a major blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. At different levels along the aorta, there are branches that supply blood to specific organs and regions. These branches include the coeliac trunk at the level of T12, which supplies blood to the stomach, liver, and spleen. The left renal artery, at the level of L1, supplies blood to the left kidney. The testicular or ovarian arteries, at the level of L2, supply blood to the reproductive organs. The inferior mesenteric artery, at the level of L3, supplies blood to the lower part of the large intestine. Finally, at the level of L4, the abdominal aorta bifurcates, or splits into two branches, which supply blood to the legs and pelvis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
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  • Question 8 - As the physician in charge of the health of a 70-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • As the physician in charge of the health of a 70-year-old man who came in for his yearly check-up, you discover that he smokes 15 cigarettes daily and has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. During the examination, you hear a left-sided carotid bruit while auscultating. A recent duplex ultrasound showed that the left internal carotid artery has a 50% stenosis. What is the final step in the pathogenesis of this man's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth muscle proliferation and migration into the tunica intima

      Explanation:

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old man is experiencing symptoms of mesenteric ischemia. During his diagnostic evaluation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is experiencing symptoms of mesenteric ischemia. During his diagnostic evaluation, a radiologist is attempting to cannulate the coeliac axis from the aorta. Typically, at which vertebral level does this artery originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The coeliac trunk is a major artery that arises from the aorta and gives off three branches on the left-hand side: the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries.

      The Coeliac Axis and its Branches

      The coeliac axis is a major artery that supplies blood to the upper abdominal organs. It has three main branches: the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries. The hepatic artery further branches into the right gastric, gastroduodenal, right gastroepiploic, superior pancreaticoduodenal, and cystic arteries. Meanwhile, the splenic artery gives off the pancreatic, short gastric, and left gastroepiploic arteries. Occasionally, the coeliac axis also gives off one of the inferior phrenic arteries.

      The coeliac axis is located anteriorly to the lesser omentum and is related to the right and left coeliac ganglia, as well as the caudate process of the liver and the gastric cardia. Inferiorly, it is in close proximity to the upper border of the pancreas and the renal vein.

      Understanding the anatomy and branches of the coeliac axis is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper abdominal organs, such as pancreatic cancer or gastric ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old arrives at the emergency department with a stab wound to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old arrives at the emergency department with a stab wound to the femoral artery. He has a history of intravenous drug use.

      Due to poor vein quality, peripheral cannulation under ultrasound guidance is not feasible. Intraosseous access has been established, but additional access is required to administer large volume transfusions.

      To obtain access to a vessel that runs anterior to the medial malleolus, the consultant has decided to perform a venous cutdown.

      Which vessel will be accessed through this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the long saphenous vein, which passes in front of the medial malleolus and is commonly used for venous cutdown procedures. This vein is the largest vessel in the superficial venous system and is formed from the dorsal venous arch of the foot. During a venous cutdown, the skin is opened up to expose the vessel, allowing for cannulation under direct vision.

      The anterior tibial vein, fibular vein, and posterior tibial vein are all incorrect answers. The anterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system and arises from the dorsal venous arch, while the fibular vein forms from the plantar veins of the foot and drains into the posterior tibial vein. The posterior tibial vein also arises from the plantar veins of the foot but ascends posterior to the medial malleolus.

      The Anatomy of Saphenous Veins

      The human body has two saphenous veins: the long saphenous vein and the short saphenous vein. The long saphenous vein is often used for bypass surgery or removed as a treatment for varicose veins. It originates at the first digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot and runs up the medial side of the leg. At the knee, it runs over the posterior border of the medial epicondyle of the femur bone before passing laterally to lie on the anterior surface of the thigh. It then enters an opening in the fascia lata called the saphenous opening and joins with the femoral vein in the region of the femoral triangle at the saphenofemoral junction. The long saphenous vein has several tributaries, including the medial marginal, superficial epigastric, superficial iliac circumflex, and superficial external pudendal veins.

      On the other hand, the short saphenous vein originates at the fifth digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot, which attaches to the great saphenous vein. It passes around the lateral aspect of the foot and runs along the posterior aspect of the leg with the sural nerve. It then passes between the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle and drains into the popliteal vein, approximately at or above the level of the knee joint.

      Understanding the anatomy of saphenous veins is crucial for medical professionals who perform surgeries or treatments involving these veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 78-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of chest discomfort and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of chest discomfort and shortness of breath. He had a history of ST-elevation myocardial infarction 10 days ago, which was treated with thrombolysis. During the examination, a high-pitch holosystolic murmur is heard at the apex. The ECG shows widespread ST elevation. Unfortunately, the patient experiences cardiac arrest and passes away. What is the probable histological finding in his heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophages and granulation tissue at margins

      Explanation:

      The histology findings of a myocardial infarction (MI) vary depending on the time elapsed since the event. Within the first 24 hours, there is evidence of early coagulative necrosis, neutrophils, wavy fibers, and hypercontraction of myofibrils. This stage is associated with a high risk of ventricular arrhythmia, heart failure, and cardiogenic shock.

      Between 1-3 days post-MI, there is extensive coagulative necrosis and an influx of neutrophils, which can lead to fibrinous pericarditis. From 3-14 days post-MI, macrophages and granulation tissue are present at the margins, and there is a high risk of complications such as free wall rupture (which can cause mitral regurgitation), papillary muscle rupture, and left ventricular pseudoaneurysm.

      After 2 weeks to several months, the scar tissue has contracted and is complete. This stage is associated with Dressler syndrome, heart failure, arrhythmias, and mural thrombus. It is important to note that the risk of complications decreases as time passes, but long-term management and monitoring are still necessary for patients who have experienced an MI.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old male with ankylosing spondylitis presents to his GP for examination. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male with ankylosing spondylitis presents to his GP for examination. During palpation of the carotid pulse, the GP observes a pulse that quickly rises and falls. Upon auscultation of the heart, the GP detects a high-pitched early diastolic murmur that is decrescendo in nature. What cardiac abnormality is indicated by these examination findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Aortic regurgitation results in an early diastolic murmur, which is caused by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle through an incompetent aortic valve. This condition also leads to a rapid rise in the carotid pulse due to the forceful ejection of blood from an overloaded left ventricle, followed by a rapid fall due to the backflow of blood into the left ventricle. Patients with aortic regurgitation may also experience an ejection murmur, which is caused by the turbulent ejection of blood from the overloaded left ventricle. Aortic regurgitation can be caused by various factors, including aortic root dilation associated with ankylosing spondylitis, Marfan syndrome, or aortic dissection, as well as aortic valve leaflet disease resulting from calcific degeneration, congenital bicuspid aortic valve, rheumatic heart disease, or infective endocarditis.

      Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. The most common causes of AR due to valve disease include rheumatic fever, calcific valve disease, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, AR due to aortic root disease can be caused by conditions such as aortic dissection, hypertension, and connective tissue diseases like Marfan and Ehler-Danlos syndrome.

      The features of AR include an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. In severe cases, a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur may also be present. Suspected AR should be investigated with echocardiography.

      Management of AR involves medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery in symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old man is scheduled for cardiac catheterisation to repair a possible atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is scheduled for cardiac catheterisation to repair a possible atrial septal defect. What is the typical oxygen saturation level in the right atrium for a person in good health?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oxygen Saturation Levels in Cardiac Catheterisation

      Cardiac catheterisation and oxygen saturation levels can be confusing, but with a few basic rules and logical deduction, it can be easily understood. Deoxygenated blood returns to the right side of the heart through the superior and inferior vena cava with an oxygen saturation level of around 70%. The right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary artery also have oxygen saturation levels of around 70%. The lungs oxygenate the blood to a level of around 98-100%, resulting in the left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta having oxygen saturation levels of 98-100%.

      Different scenarios can affect oxygen saturation levels. For instance, in an atrial septal defect (ASD), the oxygenated blood in the left atrium mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right atrium, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right atrium onwards. In a ventricular septal defect (VSD), the oxygenated blood in the left ventricle mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right ventricle, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right ventricle onwards. In a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), the higher pressure aorta connects with the lower pressure pulmonary artery, resulting in only the pulmonary artery having intermediate oxygenation levels.

      Understanding the expected oxygen saturation levels in different scenarios can help in diagnosing and treating cardiac conditions. The table above shows the oxygen saturation levels that would be expected in different diagnoses, including VSD with Eisenmenger’s and ASD with Eisenmenger’s. By understanding these levels, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 14 - A 75-year-old collapses at home and is rushed to the Emergency Room but...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old collapses at home and is rushed to the Emergency Room but dies despite resuscitation efforts. He had a myocardial infarction five weeks prior. What histological findings would be expected in his heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contracted scar

      Explanation:

      The histology findings of a myocardial infarction (MI) vary depending on the time elapsed since the event. Within the first 24 hours, early coagulative necrosis, neutrophils, wavy fibres, and hypercontraction of myofibrils are observed, which increase the risk of ventricular arrhythmia, heart failure, and cardiogenic shock. Between 1-3 days post-MI, extensive coagulative necrosis and neutrophils are present, which can lead to fibrinous pericarditis. From 3-14 days post-MI, macrophages and granulation tissue are seen at the margins, and there is a high risk of complications such as free wall rupture (resulting in mitral regurgitation), papillary muscle rupture, and left ventricular pseudoaneurysm. Finally, from 2 weeks to several months post-MI, a contracted scar is formed, which is associated with Dressler syndrome, heart failure, arrhythmias, and mural thrombus.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 15 - A 78-year-old woman with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining of constipation that has lasted for 5 days. Upon further inquiry, she mentions feeling weaker than usual this week and experiencing regular muscle cramps. During the examination, you observe reduced tone and hyporeflexia in both her upper and lower limbs. You suspect that her symptoms may be caused by hypokalaemia, which could be related to the diuretics she takes to manage her heart failure. Which of the following diuretics is known to be associated with hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia is a potential side effect of loop diuretics such as furosemide. In contrast, potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone, triamterene, eplerenone, and amiloride are more likely to cause hyperkalaemia. The patient in the scenario is experiencing symptoms suggestive of hypokalaemia, including muscle weakness, cramps, and constipation. Hypokalaemia can also cause fatigue, myalgia, hyporeflexia, and in rare cases, paralysis.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain, dizziness, and palpitations. He has a medical history of mitral stenosis and denies any alcohol or smoking habits. Upon conducting an ECG, it is observed that lead I shows positively directed sawtooth deflections, while leads II, III, and aVF show negatively directed sawtooth deflections. What pathology does this finding suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial flutter

      Explanation:

      Atrial flutter is identified by a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and is a type of supraventricular tachycardia. It occurs when electrical activity from the sinoatrial node reenters the atria instead of being conducted to the ventricles. Valvular heart disease is a risk factor, and atrial flutter is managed similarly to atrial fibrillation.

      Left bundle branch block causes a delayed contraction of the left ventricle and is identified by a W pattern in V1 and an M pattern in V6 on an ECG. It does not produce a sawtooth pattern on the ECG.

      Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by chaotic electrical conduction in the ventricles, resulting in a lack of normal ventricular contraction. It can cause cardiac arrest and requires advanced life support management.

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is caused by an accessory pathway between the atria and the ventricles and is identified by a slurred upstroke at the beginning of the QRS complex, known as a delta wave. It can present with symptoms such as palpitations, shortness of breath, and syncope.

      Atrial flutter is a type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a series of rapid atrial depolarization waves. This condition can be identified through ECG findings, which show a sawtooth appearance. The underlying atrial rate is typically around 300 beats per minute, which can affect the ventricular or heart rate depending on the degree of AV block. For instance, if there is a 2:1 block, the ventricular rate will be 150 beats per minute. Flutter waves may also be visible following carotid sinus massage or adenosine.

      Managing atrial flutter is similar to managing atrial fibrillation, although medication may be less effective. However, atrial flutter is more sensitive to cardioversion, so lower energy levels may be used. For most patients, radiofrequency ablation of the tricuspid valve isthmus is curative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 17 - A 67-year-old man presents with crushing central chest pain and flushing. His ECG...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with crushing central chest pain and flushing. His ECG shows T wave inversion in II, III, and AVF, and his troponin T level is 0.9 ng/ml (normal <0.01). What is the substance that troponin T binds to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tropomyosin

      Explanation:

      The binding of troponin T to tropomyosin results in the formation of a troponin-tropomyosin complex. The clinical and electrographic characteristics suggest the presence of an inferior myocardial infarction, which is confirmed by the elevated levels of troponin. Troponin T is highly specific to myocardial damage. On the other hand, troponin C binds to calcium ions and is released by damage to both skeletal and cardiac muscle, making it an insensitive marker for myocardial necrosis. Troponin I binds to actin and helps to maintain the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place. It is also specific to myocardial damage. Myosin is the thick component of muscle fibers, and actin slides along myosin to generate muscle contraction. The sarcoplasmic reticulum plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of calcium ions in the cytoplasm of striated muscle cells.

      Understanding Troponin: The Proteins Involved in Muscle Contraction

      Troponin is a group of three proteins that play a crucial role in the contraction of skeletal and cardiac muscles. These proteins work together to regulate the interaction between actin and myosin, which is essential for muscle contraction. The three subunits of troponin are troponin C, troponin T, and troponin I.

      Troponin C is responsible for binding to calcium ions, which triggers the contraction of muscle fibers. Troponin T binds to tropomyosin, forming a complex that helps regulate the interaction between actin and myosin. Finally, troponin I binds to actin, holding the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place and preventing muscle contraction when it is not needed.

      Understanding the role of troponin is essential for understanding how muscles work and how they can be affected by various diseases and conditions. By regulating the interaction between actin and myosin, troponin plays a critical role in muscle contraction and is a key target for drugs used to treat conditions such as heart failure and skeletal muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 18 - A 47-year-old woman is recuperating in the ICU after undergoing a Whipples surgery....

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman is recuperating in the ICU after undergoing a Whipples surgery. She has a central venous line inserted. What will cause the 'y' descent on the waveform trace?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emptying of the right atrium

      Explanation:

      The JVP waveform consists of 3 upward deflections and 2 downward deflections. The upward deflections include the a wave, which represents atrial contraction, the c wave, which represents ventricular contraction, and the v wave, which represents atrial venous filling. The downward deflections include the x wave, which occurs when the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves down, and the y wave, which represents ventricular filling. The y descent in the waveform indicates the emptying of the atrium and the filling of the right ventricle.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 19 - A 44-year-old male presents to the hospital with a headache and blurry vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old male presents to the hospital with a headache and blurry vision that started two hours ago. He appears drowsy but is oriented to time, place, and person. He has no history of similar episodes and cannot recall the last time he saw a doctor. He denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. His respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, heart rate is 91 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 185/118 mmHg. A random blood glucose level is 6.1 mmol/l. The physician decides to initiate treatment with hydralazine, the only available drug at the time. How does this medication work in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It elevates the levels of cyclic GMP leading to a relaxation of the smooth muscle to a greater extent in the arterioles than the veins

      Explanation:

      Hydralazine is a medication commonly used in the acute setting to lower blood pressure. It works by increasing the levels of cyclic GMP, which leads to smooth muscle relaxation. This effect is more pronounced in the arterioles than the veins. The increased levels of cyclic GMP activate protein kinase G, which phosphorylates and activates myosin light chain phosphatase. This prevents the smooth muscle from contracting, resulting in vasodilation. This mechanism of action is different from calcium channel blockers such as amlodipine, which work by blocking calcium channels. Nitroprusside is another medication that increases cyclic GMP levels, but it is not mentioned as an option in this scenario.

      Hydralazine: An Antihypertensive with Limited Use

      Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that is not commonly used nowadays. It is still prescribed for severe hypertension and hypertension in pregnancy. The drug works by increasing cGMP, which leads to smooth muscle relaxation. However, there are certain contraindications to its use, such as systemic lupus erythematosus and ischaemic heart disease/cerebrovascular disease.

      Despite its potential benefits, hydralazine can cause adverse effects such as tachycardia, palpitations, flushing, fluid retention, headache, and drug-induced lupus. Therefore, it is not the first choice for treating hypertension in most cases. Overall, hydralazine is an older medication that has limited use due to its potential side effects and newer, more effective antihypertensive options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 20 - What changes occur in the newborn after delivery? ...

    Incorrect

    • What changes occur in the newborn after delivery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The ductus arteriosus closes

      Explanation:

      Within a few hours of birth, the foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus, and umbilical vessels all close. The foramen ovale, which allows blood to bypass the lungs by shunting from the right atrium to the left atrium, closes as the lungs become functional and the left atrial pressure exceeds the right atrial pressure. The ductus arteriosus, which connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, also closes to form the ligamentum arteriosum, allowing blood to circulate into the pulmonary artery and become oxygenated. After a few days, Haemoglobin F is replaced by Haemoglobin A, which has a lower affinity for oxygen and may cause physiological jaundice in the newborn due to the breakdown of fetal blood cells. The first few breaths help to expel lung fluid from the fetal alveoli. If the ductus arteriosus fails to close, it can result in a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which can lead to serious health complications such as pulmonary hypertension, heart failure, and arrhythmias.

      During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with excruciating chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with excruciating chest pain that raises suspicion of aortic dissection. Which layers are the blood expected to be flowing between?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tunica intima and tunica media

      Explanation:

      In an aortic dissection, the tunica intima becomes separated from the tunica media. The tunica intima is the innermost layer of a blood vessel, while the tunica media is the second layer and the tunica adventitia is the third layer. Normally, the tunica media would be situated between the tunica intima and adventitia in the aorta. Capillaries have layers called endothelium and basal laminae, while the internal and external elastic laminae are found on either side of the tunica media.

      Artery Histology: Layers of Blood Vessel Walls

      The wall of a blood vessel is composed of three layers: the tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica adventitia. The innermost layer, the tunica intima, is made up of endothelial cells that are separated by gap junctions. The middle layer, the tunica media, contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and from the adventitia by the external elastic lamina. The outermost layer, the tunica adventitia, contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen. This layer is responsible for providing support and protection to the blood vessel. The vasa vasorum are small blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the larger blood vessels. The fibroblast and collagen provide structural support to the vessel wall. Understanding the histology of arteries is important in diagnosing and treating various cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following complications is the least commonly associated with ventricular septal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following complications is the least commonly associated with ventricular septal defects in pediatric patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ventricular Septal Defect

      Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common congenital heart disease that affects many individuals. It is caused by a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. In some cases, VSDs may close on their own, but in other cases, they require specialized management.

      There are various causes of VSDs, including chromosomal disorders such as Down’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, Patau syndrome, and cri-du-chat syndrome. Congenital infections and post-myocardial infarction can also lead to VSDs. The condition can be detected during routine scans in utero or may present post-natally with symptoms such as failure to thrive, heart failure, hepatomegaly, tachypnea, tachycardia, pallor, and a pansystolic murmur.

      Management of VSDs depends on the size and symptoms of the defect. Small VSDs that are asymptomatic may require monitoring, while moderate to large VSDs may result in heart failure and require nutritional support, medication for heart failure, and surgical closure of the defect.

      Complications of VSDs include aortic regurgitation, infective endocarditis, Eisenmenger’s complex, right heart failure, and pulmonary hypertension. Eisenmenger’s complex is a severe complication that results in cyanosis and clubbing and is an indication for a heart-lung transplant. Women with pulmonary hypertension are advised against pregnancy as it carries a high risk of mortality.

      In conclusion, VSD is a common congenital heart disease that requires specialized management. Early detection and appropriate treatment can prevent severe complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 23 - A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension follow-up. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension follow-up. He was diagnosed with high blood pressure two months ago and started on amlodipine. However, his blood pressure remained uncontrolled, so ramipril was added four weeks ago. During his visit today, his blood pressure is measured at 155/92 mmHg. You decide to prescribe indapamide, a thiazide-like diuretic. Can you explain the mechanism of action of thiazide-like diuretics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit Na+ Cl- cotransporter

      Explanation:

      Thiazide-like drugs such as indapamide work by blocking the Na+-Cl− symporter at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule, which inhibits sodium reabsorption. Loop diuretics, on the other hand, inhibit the Na+ K+ 2Cl- cotransporters in the thick ascending loop of Henle. Amiloride, a potassium-sparing diuretic, inhibits the epithelial sodium channels in the cortical collecting ducts, while spironolactone, another potassium-sparing diuretic, blocks the action of aldosterone on aldosterone receptors and inhibits the Na+/K+ exchanger in the cortical collecting ducts.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 24 - A patient with a history of peripheral vascular disease visits their GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of peripheral vascular disease visits their GP with essential hypertension. Which of the following medications could worsen their peripheral vascular symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Patients with peripheral vascular disease may experience worsened symptoms when taking beta-blockers, and caution should be exercised when prescribing this medication. Additionally, those with Raynaud disease may also experience aggravated symptoms. Monitoring for signs of progressive arterial obstruction is recommended.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.

      Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 25 - An 82-year-old woman visits her doctor with a medical history of myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman visits her doctor with a medical history of myocardial infarction that has resulted in permanent damage to the conduction system of her heart. The damage has affected the part of the conduction system with the highest velocities, causing desynchronisation of the ventricles.

      What is the part of the heart that conducts the fastest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      The Purkinje fibres have the highest conduction velocities in the heart’s electrical conduction system. The process starts with the SA node generating spontaneous action potentials, which are then conducted across both atria through cell to cell conduction at a speed of approximately 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node, which has a slow conduction speed of 0.05ms to allow for complete atrial contraction and ventricular filling. The action potentials are then conducted through the Bundle of His, which splits into the left and right bundle branches, with a conduction speed of approximately 2m/s. Finally, the action potential reaches the Purkinje fibres, which are specialized conducting cells that allow for a faster conduction speed of 2-4m/s. This fast conduction speed is crucial for a synchronized and efficient contraction of the ventricle, generating pressure during systole.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old male has presented with a record of blood pressure readings taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male has presented with a record of blood pressure readings taken at home over the past week. His readings have consistently been above the accepted range for his age. He is a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day.

      Your senior has prescribed a low dose of ramipril and recommended lifestyle modifications and exercise.

      You have been asked by your senior to discuss the use of this medication and provide any necessary dietary advice.

      Which of the following is the most important piece of information to communicate to this patient?

      A) Taking ramipril with paracetamol compounds its hypotensive effect
      B) Taking ramipril with alcohol compounds its hypotensive effect
      C) Taking ramipril with coffee compounds its hypotensive effect
      D) Taking ramipril with tea compounds its hypotensive effect

      Please select the correct answer and provide an explanation.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taking ramipril with alcohol compounds its hypotensive effect

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors’ hypotensive effects are worsened by alcohol consumption, leading to symptoms of low blood pressure such as dizziness and lightheadedness. Additionally, the effectiveness of ACE inhibitors may be reduced by hypertension-associated medications like acetaminophen and venlafaxine. Caffeine, found in both tea and coffee, can also elevate blood pressure.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old patient has a cardiac output of 6 L/min and a heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient has a cardiac output of 6 L/min and a heart rate of 60/min. Her end-diastolic left ventricular volume is 200ml. What is her left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 28 - After a myocardial infarction (MI), a 65-year-old patient is initiated on a regimen...

    Incorrect

    • After a myocardial infarction (MI), a 65-year-old patient is initiated on a regimen of medications for secondary prevention. The regimen includes aspirin, clopidogrel, perindopril, bisoprolol, and simvastatin. However, the patient experiences poor tolerance to clopidogrel, leading to a prescription of ticagrelor instead.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits ADP binding to platelet receptors

      Explanation:

      Ticagrelor and clopidogrel have a similar mechanism of action in that they both inhibit ADP binding to platelet receptors, thereby preventing platelet aggregation. However, ticagrelor specifically targets the glycoprotein GPIIb/IIIa complex, while clopidogrel inhibits the P2Y12 receptor.

      Aspirin, on the other hand, irreversibly binds to cyclooxygenase (COX), an enzyme that plays a key role in the production of thromboxane A2, a potent vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregator.

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like rivaroxaban work by directly inhibiting clotting factor Xa, which is necessary for the formation of thrombin and subsequent clotting. Unlike warfarin, DOACs require less monitoring.

      Warfarin, on the other hand, inhibits the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. It also inhibits some pro-thrombotic molecules, which initially increases the risk of thrombosis.

      Dabigatran, another form of DOAC, is a thrombin inhibitor and currently the only one with a reversal agent available.

      ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 29 - Which one of the following is not considered a major branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not considered a major branch of the ascending thoracic aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The thyrocervical trunk, which is a branch of the subclavian artery, is typically the source of the inferior thyroid artery.

      Anatomy of the Thoracic Aorta

      The thoracic aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the fourth thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the twelfth thoracic vertebrae. It is located in the chest cavity and has several important relations with surrounding structures. Anteriorly, it is related to the root of the left lung, the pericardium, the oesophagus, and the diaphragm. Posteriorly, it is related to the vertebral column and the azygos vein. On the right side, it is related to the hemiazygos veins and the thoracic duct, while on the left side, it is related to the left pleura and lung.

      The thoracic aorta has several branches that supply blood to different parts of the body. The lateral segmental branches are the posterior intercostal arteries, which supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The lateral visceral branches are the bronchial arteries, which supply blood to the bronchial walls and lung, excluding the alveoli. The midline branches are the oesophageal arteries, which supply blood to the oesophagus.

      In summary, the thoracic aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies blood to various structures in the chest cavity. Its anatomy and relations with surrounding structures are crucial for understanding its function and potential clinical implications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man is being investigated by cardiologists for worsening breathlessness, fatigue, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is being investigated by cardiologists for worsening breathlessness, fatigue, and chest pain during exertion. Results from an echocardiogram reveal a thickened interventricular septum and reduced left ventricle filling. What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is a condition where the heart muscle, particularly the interventricular septum, becomes thickened and less flexible, leading to diastolic dysfunction. In contrast, restrictive cardiomyopathy also results in reduced flexibility of the heart chamber walls, but without thickening of the myocardium. Dilated cardiomyopathy, on the other hand, is characterized by enlarged heart chambers with thin walls and a decreased ability to pump blood out of the heart.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (1/4) 25%
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