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  • Question 1 - A 17-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department on a Saturday night with...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department on a Saturday night with complaints of palpitations and feeling unwell. Her friends report that she had a negative reaction to the alcohol they consumed and deny any use of illegal substances. Upon examination, she appears anxious and is holding onto her chest. Her pupils are dilated, and her pulse rate is 110/min, blood pressure 135/92 mmHg. She mentions feeling nauseous. Which of the following substances could be responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cocaine Toxicity

      Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.

      Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are a second-year medical student in the Ophthalmology clinic and have been...

    Correct

    • You are a second-year medical student in the Ophthalmology clinic and have been asked to review a patient’s optic discs and retina. Which one of the following agents should be used to dilate the patient’s pupils?

      Your Answer: Tropicamide

      Explanation:

      Ophthalmic Drugs: Uses and Functions

      Tropicamide, a mydriatic, is commonly used to dilate pupils for examination by blocking muscarinic receptors on the iris sphincter. Cyclopentolate, another mydriatic, has a longer duration of action and may not be preferred for patients who will experience reduced vision for a longer period. Pilocarpine, a muscarinic receptor agonist, is a miotic that constricts the pupil and is used to treat glaucoma. Adrenaline eye drops are used to investigate Horner’s syndrome and have no dilating effect on normal eyes. Tetracaine, a local anesthetic, is used to numb the cornea for procedures such as foreign body removal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old construction worker presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old construction worker presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a headache and overall weakness. He reports feeling slightly disoriented and has been urinating more frequently than usual today.

      During the examination, the patient appears sweaty, and his pupils are 2mm in diameter and reactive to light. Chest and abdomen examination revealed no abnormalities. However, at the end of the examination, the patient begins to vomit, without evidence of blood or bile in the vomitus.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 19/min; oxygen saturations 98% on air; temperature 36.6ºC; heart rate 50 beats per minute; blood pressure 102/62 mmHg.

      What treatment should be initiated based on the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intravenous atropine

      Explanation:

      This scenario presents a typical case of organophosphate poisoning, which is commonly caused by exposure to organophosphate pesticides, as in the case of this gardener. Symptoms and signs of organophosphate poisoning include headache, disorientation, weakness, vomiting, and muscarinic effects such as miosis, bradycardia, and increased urination. Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholinesterase, leading to excess cholinergic transmission. The most appropriate initial treatment is IV atropine, which is an anti-muscarinic and effectively counteracts the effects of AChE inhibition. While -oximes such as pralidoxime can bind organophosphate-bound AChE and uncouple the organophosphate, their clinical efficacy has not been validated in meta-analyses, and atropine remains the first-line intervention for organophosphate poisoning. Stomach decontamination with activated charcoal and urinary alkalinisation with sodium bicarbonate have not been shown to be effective in organophosphate poisoning. Sodium bicarbonate is useful in promoting the excretion of acidic drugs in the context of overdose, such as salicylic acid toxicity.

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acetylcholine in the body, leading to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This, in turn, causes an upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects. The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD, which stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation/diarrhea. Other symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine, which helps to counteract the effects of acetylcholine. However, the role of pralidoxime in the treatment of this condition is still unclear. Meta-analyses conducted to date have failed to show any clear benefit of pralidoxime in the management of organophosphate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 4 - You are requested to assess a 75-year-old woman admitted to the surgical ward...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 75-year-old woman admitted to the surgical ward with complaints of unilateral leg swelling and shortness of breath. Upon examination, her heart rate is 98 beats per minute, and breath sounds are normal. The patient underwent a total hip replacement surgery a week ago, which was uneventful, and she was prescribed a 10-day course of unfractionated heparin post-surgery. Her blood tests reveal Hb levels of 138 g/L (Female: 115-160 g/L), platelet count of 120 * 109/L (150-400 * 109/L), and WBC count of 7.4 * 109/L (4.0-11.0 * 109/L). An ELISA test is conducted, which comes back positive for platelet factor 4. Based on the given information, what is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      HIT, or heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, is the correct diagnosis for this patient. While a small drop in platelet count is common in patients receiving unfractionated heparin, a more serious immune-mediated thrombocytopenia can occur in a smaller percentage of patients. This is caused by the development of antibodies against heparin-platelet factor 4 complexes (PF4), which is positive in this patient. HIT is a prothrombotic state and can present as a deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, which is consistent with the patient’s symptoms of tachycardia, unilateral leg swelling, and shortness of breath. The administration of unfractionated heparin is a risk factor for HIT.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is unlikely as it is characterized by recurrent miscarriages, venous/arterial thrombosis, and thrombocytopenia, none of which are present in this patient. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is also incorrect as it has a more acute onset and is characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, which is not present in this patient. While Factor V Leiden is a possible differential, the administration of unfractionated heparin is a risk factor for HIT, and the positive platelet factor 4 is a strong indicator of HIT.

      Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.

      Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 5 - You review a patient on the ward on day two of admission. He...

    Correct

    • You review a patient on the ward on day two of admission. He is a 16-year-old without medical history; however, his family history reveals that his mother has type II diabetes. The 16-year-old originally presented with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 3/15. The paramedics recorded that the glucose monitor at the scene read ‘LO’ and he was given intravenous dextrose and intramuscular glucagon. On arrival to the Emergency Department, blood glucose was 2.1 and his treatment was continued. He is now euglycaemic off treatment. Blood tests were taken at the time and they have just returned. These tests reveal that:
      Serum insulin – raised
      C-peptide – raised
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s presentation?

      Your Answer: Gliclazide overdose

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gliclazide Overdose: Clinical Features and Differential Diagnosis

      Gliclazide is an anti-diabetic drug that belongs to the sulfonylurea group. It works by binding to the sulfonylurea receptors on the pancreatic beta cells, causing the release of insulin and C-peptide. In cases of gliclazide overdose, we expect to see high levels of insulin and C-peptide, which can lead to hypoglycaemia, dizziness, sweating, tremors, seizures, and loss of consciousness.

      When presented with a patient experiencing hypoglycaemia, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis. Starvation is unlikely to cause severe hypoglycaemia and is typically associated with anaemia and vitamin deficiencies. Insulin overdose, on the other hand, would result in low C-peptide levels and high insulin levels. Metformin overdose, which inhibits gluconeogenesis in the liver, does not typically cause hypoglycaemia but can lead to metabolic acidosis and non-specific symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, lethargy, and hyperventilation.

      Undiagnosed type 1 diabetes mellitus, which is characterized by hyperglycaemia and a deficiency in insulin production, would result in low insulin and C-peptide levels. In cases where a patient’s family member has type 2 diabetes and hypoglycaemic agents are available at home, intentional gliclazide overdose should be considered as a possible cause of hypoglycaemia. Understanding the clinical features and differential diagnosis of gliclazide overdose is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and management for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old male student is admitted in the second week of university after...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male student is admitted in the second week of university after a night-out for a basketball club social.
      He presents with rigidity, disorientation and a temperature of 39.5ºC. You suspect he may have serotonin syndrome.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible in this case?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Ecstasy

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on ecstasy can lead to serotonin syndrome, which is typically linked to SSRI and MAOI antidepressants. Symptoms can appear within a few hours and include sweating and fever. Physical signs may include increased reflexes, muscle spasms, and enlarged pupils.

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 7 - What is the primary mode of action of valsartan? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary mode of action of valsartan?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin-II type 1 receptor antagonism

      Explanation:

      Valsartan and its Mechanism of Action

      Valsartan is a medication that works by blocking the angiotensin-II type 1 (AT1) receptor, which is responsible for regulating blood pressure. This medication has a much greater affinity for the AT1 receptor than the AT2 receptor, making it a potent antagonist of the AT1 receptor. By blocking this receptor, valsartan prevents the increase in angiotensin II levels that can lead to increased stimulation of the AT2 receptor. Unlike ACE inhibitors, valsartan does not reduce angiotensin II production or affect substance P or bradykinin, resulting in a significantly lower incidence of cough. Valsartan is primarily excreted through the biliary tract in feces, with only about 13% being recovered in the urine. Its half-life is approximately six hours, and no dose adjustment is required for patients with a creatinine clearance of 10 ml/min or more.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23
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  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with complaints of painful,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with complaints of painful, red patches on her shins. She has no history of hospitalization and has not traveled outside the country recently. During her last visit to the same practice, she was prescribed a new medication. Which of the listed medications is most likely responsible for this particular rash?

      Your Answer: Minocycline

      Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Nodosum and its Causes

      Erythema nodosum is a painful rash that typically appears on the shins. It is a type of panniculitis and is characterized by raised nodules. While it can be caused by various factors, including infections and autoimmune diseases, certain medications are also known to trigger it. These include the oral contraceptive pill, penicillins, and sulfonamides. To rule out serious underlying conditions like tuberculosis and sarcoidosis, a chest radiograph is often performed at diagnosis. It is important to note that SSRIs and beta blockers do not cause erythema nodosum, and neither does fexofenadine or minocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      39.9
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatric unit with an acute episode...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatric unit with an acute episode of psychosis. After assessment, he is diagnosed with schizophrenia. He has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications. The consultant psychiatrist plans to initiate pimozide 2 mg daily. What baseline investigation and regular monitoring are required for this medication?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiography

      Explanation:

      Pimozide: An Effective Antipsychotic with Cardiac Risks

      Pimozide is a potent antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and psychosis. It works by blocking multiple neurotransmitter receptors, including dopamine D2 receptors, serotonin receptors, and acetylcholine receptors. However, its significant dopamine antagonistic properties can cause severe extrapyramidal side effects such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. Pimozide is also associated with the development of cardiac arrhythmias, including prolongation of the QT interval and supraventricular tachycardias. This can lead to sudden deterioration into ventricular tachycardia, torsades de pointes, and even ventricular fibrillation, which can be fatal. Therefore, baseline recording of the ECG and monthly review are mandatory while taking the drug, and any change in the QT interval duration should prompt discontinuation or reduction of the drug. Patients with pre-existing prolongation, concurrent use of other drugs that prolong the QT interval, or congenitally extended QT durations should not be started on this drug.

      Pregnancy is not a contraindication for the use of antipsychotic drugs, but women taking dopamine antagonists in the third trimester may deliver babies displaying transient extrapyramidal side effects. Most antipsychotic drugs do not affect renal function significantly, but pre-existing renal failure necessitates dose reduction. Pimozide is not known to be toxic to the lungs, and baseline chest x-ray is not required. While pimozide is an effective antipsychotic medication, its cardiac risks must be carefully monitored to prevent potentially fatal arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Drug A activates an intracellular signalling pathway by binding to a receptor on...

    Correct

    • Drug A activates an intracellular signalling pathway by binding to a receptor on liver cells. Drug B, on the other hand, cannot activate this pathway but has the ability to enhance the effect of drug A. This is achieved by binding to an alternative site on the same receptor.

      What term can be used to describe the impact of drug B?

      Your Answer: Allosteric modulator

      Explanation:

      Agonists, Allosteric Modulators, and Antagonists

      An agonist is a type of drug that binds to a receptor and triggers a biological response by increasing receptor activity. This interaction between the drug and receptor is usually reversible and can occur through various mechanisms such as ionic bonding, covalent linkage, hydrogen bonding, or hydrophobic interactions. The efficacy of agonism is determined by the drug’s ability to provoke maximal or sub-maximal receptor activity at a given concentration. Additionally, the degree of receptor occupancy is influenced by the drug’s affinity for the receptor and concentration. Even low degrees of receptor occupancy can elicit a biological response.

      On the other hand, an allosteric modulator, such as drug B, binds to a different binding site on the same receptor and causes a change in receptor structure. This change enhances the ability of an agonist, like drug A, to achieve its biological effect. Lastly, an antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and inhibits receptor activity, resulting in no biological response. the differences between these types of drugs is crucial in developing effective treatments for various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.5
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  • Question 11 - A 57-year-old patient with autoimmune hepatitis presents with worsening dyspnea and a dry...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old patient with autoimmune hepatitis presents with worsening dyspnea and a dry cough. He has experienced weight loss and has observed changes in his hands. During the physical examination, you observe clubbing, mild cyanosis, and fine bibasal crepitations. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis and its Association with Chronic Hepatitis and Autoimmune Hepatitis

      The presence of chronic hepatitis in a patient’s medical history, coupled with the emergence of symptoms and signs indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, may point to a diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). It is worth noting that autoimmune hepatitis can also occur in 5-10% of IPF cases. While there is no indication of an infectious cause or evidence of cardiac failure, distinguishing between the two diagnoses can be challenging.

      In summary, the development of pulmonary fibrosis in a patient with a history of chronic hepatitis may suggest a diagnosis of IPF, which can also be associated with autoimmune hepatitis. Accurately differentiating between IPF and other potential causes of pulmonary fibrosis can be difficult, but is crucial for effective treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      41.4
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  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with confusion and involuntary leg...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with confusion and involuntary leg muscle jerks. He is too agitated to provide his medical history. Upon examination, his heart rate is 150/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 147/92 mmHg, and temperature 37.9 ºC. He appears sweaty, clammy, and has a resting tremor. Cardiovascular examination is normal, and a neurological examination reveals hyperreflexia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Samantha, a 63-year-old female, visits the clinic with complaints of feeling generally unwell,...

    Correct

    • Samantha, a 63-year-old female, visits the clinic with complaints of feeling generally unwell, lethargic, nauseated, and experiencing yellow-green tinted vision for the past 2 weeks. She has a medical history of asthma, hypercholesterolaemia, and hypertension, for which she takes a salbutamol inhaler as required, atorvastatin, and verapamil. On examination, Samantha appears lethargic but alert and conscious, with stable haemodynamics. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg, pulse 50/min, respiratory rate 16/min, oxygen saturation 99% on room air, and she has a normal body temperature. What is the best next step in managing Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer: Temporarily cease digoxin, measure digoxin concentration within 8-12 hours of the last dose and review

      Explanation:

      If there is suspicion of digoxin toxicity, it is recommended to measure digoxin concentrations within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. Patricia’s symptoms suggest digoxin toxicity, possibly triggered by her recent hypertension diagnosis and verapamil prescription. However, measuring digoxin concentration after 4 hours of the last dose is too early to determine toxicity levels. While verapamil may have contributed to the toxicity, stopping the medication immediately is not advisable due to her hypertension. Hospital referral for DC cardioversion is unnecessary as Patricia is conscious and hemodynamically stable. Increasing digoxin dosage is not recommended as low digoxin levels are not the cause of her symptoms. If digoxin toxicity is confirmed, the appropriate treatment is digibind, the digoxin antidote.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 14 - A new medication, Horriblex, has been developed to improve pain in elderly patients...

    Correct

    • A new medication, Horriblex, has been developed to improve pain in elderly patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). A study is being conducted to evaluate the pharmacodynamics and dose effects of the medication in elderly patients with RA.

      What phase of drug development does this study represent?

      Your Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      The Phases of Drug Testing

      New drugs undergo a series of studies known as phases 0-4. Phase 0 is a pre-clinical study that involves animals and/or cells. Phase 1 is the first testing on humans and usually involves healthy volunteers. Phase 2 involves patients with the relevant disease, while phase 3 involves thousands of patients to prove the drug’s effectiveness and safety. If the drug passes phase 3, the company can apply for regulatory approval to market the drug. Phase 4 is post-regulatory monitoring, where companies review the drug’s performance and assess any risk of side effects in a particular population. The yellow card system is also used to report any new or rare side effects. Each phase serves a specific purpose in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of new drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements about the use of aspirin in patients with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the use of aspirin in patients with ischemic heart disease is accurate?

      Your Answer: Any patient with a 10% 10-year risk of a further cardiovascular event should take aspirin if there is no contraindication

      Correct Answer: All patients should take aspirin if there is no contraindication

      Explanation:

      Aspirin is recommended for all patients with ischaemic heart disease, unless there is a contraindication. However, the guidelines have been updated to suggest that patients with other types of cardiovascular disease, such as stroke and peripheral arterial disease, should be given clopidogrel as the first-line treatment.

      The Mechanism and Guidelines for Aspirin Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By inhibiting the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, leading to changes in guidelines. Aspirin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but it should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. The medication can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a drug safety update in January 2010, reminding prescribers that aspirin is not licensed for primary prevention. NICE now recommends clopidogrel as a first-line treatment following an ischaemic stroke and for peripheral arterial disease. However, the situation is more complex for TIAs, with recent Royal College of Physician (RCP) guidelines supporting the use of clopidogrel, while older NICE guidelines still recommend aspirin + dipyridamole – a position the RCP state is ‘illogical’. Despite these changes, aspirin remains an important medication in the treatment of cardiovascular disease, and its use should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old woman is brought to the hospital due to an acute overdose...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman is brought to the hospital due to an acute overdose of her lithium medication, which she takes for bipolar affective disorder and self-harming tendencies. Upon admission, she displayed symptoms of vomiting, tremors, and first-degree heart block. Her lithium levels were measured at 3.6 mmol/l and after eight hours, it decreased to 3.0 mmol/l.

      What is the estimated time for the lithium levels to drop to an undetectable level in the serum from the initial value of <0.25 mmol/l?

      Your Answer: 48 hours

      Correct Answer: 96 hours

      Explanation:

      Serum Value of Lithium Over Time

      The serum value of lithium can be used to monitor the levels of the drug in a patient’s bloodstream. Based on a reduction of one sixth in an 8-hour period, it would take 16 hours for the serum value to drop to 1.8 mmol/l, representing a 50% reduction (half-life). Using a crude half-life of 24 hours, after 12 hours the serum value of lithium would be approximately 2.7 mmol/l, after 24 hours it would be approximately 1.8 mmol/l, and after 48 hours it would be approximately 0.9 mmol/l. It would take 96 hours for the serum values to fall below 0.25 mmol/l. Monitoring the serum value of lithium over time can help healthcare professionals adjust dosages and ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      50
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with initial signs of COPD. He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with initial signs of COPD. He is a chain smoker and inquires about medications that can aid him in quitting smoking. Specifically, he has heard about a drug called Champix (varenicline).

      What is the mechanism of action of varenicline, an anti-smoking medication?

      Your Answer: Is a partial agonist of the alpha4beta2 nicotinic receptor

      Explanation:

      Therapies for Smoking Cessation

      There are various therapies available for smoking cessation, including newer drugs that have been specifically developed for this purpose. One such drug is Varenicline, which is a non-nicotine drug that acts as a partial agonist of the alpha-4 beta-2 nicotinic receptor. Nicotine is a stimulant that releases dopamine in the brain, leading to addictive effects of smoking. However, nicotine replacement therapy can help replace these effects and reduce addiction to cigarette smoking. Bupropion (Zyban) is another drug that reduces the neuronal uptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine. Clonidine is a second-line agent due to its side effects, but it is an a2-noradrenergic agonist that suppresses sympathetic activity. Nortriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with mostly noradrenergic properties and appears to be effective in smoking cessation.

      Overall, there are many options available for those looking to quit smoking. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - A 68-year-old woman with chronic congestive cardiac failure and renal impairment complains of...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman with chronic congestive cardiac failure and renal impairment complains of a red, hot, swollen toe of sudden onset. This has occurred on a number of occasions. Her current medications include aspirin and azathioprine. The diagnosis is felt to be gout and she is prescribed colchicine.
      What is the most likely side-effect for the patient?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Managing Side-Effects of Medications in a Patient with Multiple Comorbidities

      It is common for patients with multiple medical conditions to be prescribed a combination of medications. However, this polypharmacy can sometimes contribute to a patient’s symptoms or make it challenging to treat one condition without negatively impacting another. In this case, the patient has acute gout and is taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as the standard treatment. However, NSAIDs can worsen renal impairment and fluid retention, which can worsen congestive cardiac failure (CCF). Colchicine is an alternative, but it can cause severe diarrhoea in around one in five patients. Prophylactic therapy for gout is also difficult due to a major interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, which is commonly used as a xanthine-oxidase inhibitor. Allopurinol slows down the breakdown of purines, which produces uric acid, and can affect the metabolism of azathioprine. Palpitations are not listed as a side-effect in the BNF, but a rash is more likely to occur with allopurinol and is an indication to withdraw treatment. Increased joint discomfort may occur with allopurinol treatment initiation, but this is not a known effect of colchicine. Polydipsia is not listed as a side-effect in the BNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old male patient visits an outpatient cardiology clinic for follow-up. He has...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male patient visits an outpatient cardiology clinic for follow-up. He has a medical history of heart failure, type-2 diabetes, and osteoporosis. For the past 3 years, he has been taking NovoRapid (rapid-acting insulin analogue) 10iU three times daily, Lantus (insulin glargine) 3 iU once daily, ramipril 10 mg once daily, bisoprolol 5mg once daily, and AdCal D3 (calcium and vitamin D) two tablets once daily without any adverse effects. Recently, he was prescribed amiloride 10 mg once daily. His blood work reveals:
      Na+ 141 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 6.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 6.3 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 92 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Which of his medications could have interacted with the new prescription to cause the abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Understanding Potassium-Sparing Diuretics

      Potassium-sparing diuretics are a type of medication that can be divided into two categories: epithelial sodium channel blockers and aldosterone antagonists. The former includes drugs like amiloride and triamterene, while the latter includes spironolactone and eplerenone. These medications are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome.

      However, caution must be exercised when using potassium-sparing diuretics in patients taking ACE inhibitors, as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is often given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation, as these medications can cause hypokalaemia.

      On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct. They are commonly used in patients with cirrhosis who develop secondary hyperaldosteronism, with relatively large doses of 100 or 200mg often prescribed. Overall, understanding the different types of potassium-sparing diuretics and their indications is crucial in ensuring safe and effective treatment for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - Which one of the following statements regarding heparin is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding heparin is accurate?

      Your Answer: LMWH has a longer duration of action than unfractionated, standard heparin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.

      Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old patient experiencing acute coronary syndrome is administered 300 mg of aspirin....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient experiencing acute coronary syndrome is administered 300 mg of aspirin. How does aspirin work to produce an antiplatelet effect?

      Your Answer: Inhibits ADP binding to its platelet receptor

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the production of thromboxane A2

      Explanation:

      The Mechanism and Guidelines for Aspirin Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By inhibiting the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, leading to changes in guidelines. Aspirin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but it should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. The medication can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a drug safety update in January 2010, reminding prescribers that aspirin is not licensed for primary prevention. NICE now recommends clopidogrel as a first-line treatment following an ischaemic stroke and for peripheral arterial disease. However, the situation is more complex for TIAs, with recent Royal College of Physician (RCP) guidelines supporting the use of clopidogrel, while older NICE guidelines still recommend aspirin + dipyridamole – a position the RCP state is ‘illogical’. Despite these changes, aspirin remains an important medication in the treatment of cardiovascular disease, and its use should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of increased fatigue. She...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of increased fatigue. She has a medical history of epilepsy, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and depression. Additionally, she experiences occasional irritable bowel syndrome with constipation (IBS-C). Her GP orders a full blood count which reveals the following results:
      - Hb 101 g/L (115 - 160)
      - Platelets 350 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 8.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Mean Cell Volume 100 fl (80 - 96)
      - Ferritin 150 mcg/L (12 - 300)
      - Folate 1.2 ng/ml (>4)
      Which of her medications is most likely responsible for her current presentation?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old patient is seen in clinic with persistent aching pain at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient is seen in clinic with persistent aching pain at the site of a surgically treated fractured tibia and fibula following a road traffic accident. The patient is currently taking paracetamol 1 g four times a day. What would be the most suitable analgesic to prescribe next?

      Your Answer: Codeine phosphate

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pain Management Options: From Ibuprofen to Morphine

      When it comes to managing pain, there are various options available. One common choice is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) like ibuprofen, which can be used instead of paracetamol. If pain persists, paracetamol can be used in conjunction with NSAIDs. If these options don’t work, a weak opioid may be the next step, according to NICE CKS guidelines. However, it’s important to evaluate the patient’s pain to rule out any complications like deep vein thrombosis or surgical site infection.

      Codeine phosphate is another option if NSAIDs and paracetamol have failed. However, it’s important to note the risk of constipation and offer dietary and hydration advice. Morphine is a strong opioid that should only be used after trying a weak opioid. Pethidine is typically used in peri-operative or obstetric settings for moderate to severe pain.

      It’s important to understand the risks associated with certain medications, such as diclofenac, an NSAID that has been linked to serious cardiovascular events like thrombotic events, myocardial infarction, and stroke. By understanding the various pain management options available, healthcare professionals can work with patients to find the best solution for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man with heart failure and atrial fibrillation arrives at the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with heart failure and atrial fibrillation arrives at the emergency department with confusion, nausea, and vomiting. Upon conducting further tests, it is discovered that his digoxin levels are unusually high. What could have triggered his current state?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Patients with hypokalaemia are more likely to develop digoxin toxicity.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found shouting at shoppers in a corner of a supermarket. He claims that the shoppers were trying to kill him and he sees coloured halos around the shop shelves. He has no past medical history. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 120 bpm, respiratory rate of 20/min, blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg, and temperature of 38°C. He is agitated, clammy to touch, and has dilated pupils despite adequate lighting. Both hands show a fine tremor. What drug overdose is responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: LSD

      Explanation:

      Understanding LSD Intoxication

      LSD, also known as lysergic acid diethylamide, is a synthetic hallucinogen that gained popularity as a recreational drug in the 1960s to 1980s. While its usage has declined in recent years, it still persists, with adolescents and young adults being the most frequent users. LSD is one of the most potent psychoactive compounds known, and its psychedelic effects usually involve heightening or distortion of sensory stimuli and enhancement of feelings and introspection.

      Patients with LSD toxicity typically present following acute panic reactions, massive ingestions, or unintentional ingestions. The symptoms of LSD intoxication are variable and can include impaired judgments, amplification of current mood, agitation, and drug-induced psychosis. Somatic symptoms such as nausea, headache, palpitations, dry mouth, drowsiness, and tremors may also occur. Signs of LSD intoxication can include tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis, paresthesia, hyperreflexia, and pyrexia.

      Massive overdoses of LSD can lead to complications such as respiratory arrest, coma, hyperthermia, autonomic dysfunction, and bleeding disorders. The diagnosis of LSD toxicity is mainly based on history and examination, as most urine drug screens do not pick up LSD.

      Management of the intoxicated patient is dependent on the specific behavioral manifestation elicited by the drug. Agitation should be managed with supportive reassurance in a calm, stress-free environment, and benzodiazepines may be used if necessary. LSD-induced psychosis may require antipsychotics. Massive ingestions of LSD should be treated with supportive care, including respiratory support and endotracheal intubation if needed. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperthermia should be treated symptomatically, while hypotension should be treated initially with fluids and subsequently with vasopressors if required. Activated charcoal administration and gastric emptying are of little clinical value by the time a patient presents to the emergency department, as LSD is rapidly absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract.

      In conclusion, understanding LSD intoxication is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate management and care for patients who present with symptoms of LSD toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain and constipation. On examination, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain and constipation. On examination, she has cool and dry hands, bradycardia and slow-relaxing reflexes. When asked about medication, she reports taking a tablet for her mental health disorder for a prolonged period. Which medication is most likely responsible for her current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium and Hypothyroidism

      Lithium is a commonly used medication for bipolar disorder, but it has a narrow therapeutic window and can easily cause toxicity. One of the long-term side effects of lithium is hypothyroidism, which can present with symptoms such as cool hands, bradycardia, and slow reflexes. Treatment for hypothyroidism caused by lithium typically involves thyroxine. Other psychiatric medications, such as olanzapine, amitriptyline, clonazepam, and clozapine, are less likely to cause hypothyroidism and would not present with the same clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - You are evaluating a new angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for lowering blood pressure...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a new angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for lowering blood pressure in elderly patients. The half-life of the agent is 16 hours.
      Which of the following reflects the likely dosing schedule for this agent in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Once per day

      Explanation:

      Different Dosing Schedules for Medications

      Medications can be administered in various dosing schedules depending on their half-life and therapeutic effects. A once-daily dosing schedule is suitable for medications that allow repeated dosing. If the half-life is 8 hours, a twice-daily dosing schedule is appropriate, while a 4-hour half-life may require three times daily dosing. However, some medications like furosemide and methotrexate have exceptions due to their therapeutic effects and potential side effects. Three times daily dosing may result in toxic effects, while four times daily dosing may maintain high plasma concentration throughout the day. Twice-daily dosing is patient-friendly but may still result in high plasma concentration at the time of next dosing. On the other hand, once every 2 days dosing may reduce the efficacy of the medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old woman is presenting with symptoms of menopause such as hot flashes...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman is presenting with symptoms of menopause such as hot flashes and difficulty sleeping. She has irregular periods and has discussed with her doctor the possibility of starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT). However, she has a medical history of migraines, deep vein thrombosis, and high blood pressure. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Transdermal HRT

      Explanation:

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progesterone to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      38
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old female comes to see her GP for a check-up. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female comes to see her GP for a check-up. She is currently taking multiple medications. Her recent blood test reveals that her INR has fallen below the necessary therapeutic level. Upon reviewing her medications, which one is most likely responsible for the decrease in her INR?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin induces the activity of P450 enzymes.

      The P450 enzyme system plays a crucial role in the metabolism of various foreign substances. Phenytoin is known to induce the activity of two families of P450 enzymes, namely CYP3A4 and CYP2C9. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors such as sodium valproate, ciprofloxacin, omeprazole, and fluoxetine can inhibit the activity of these enzymes. Warfarin is primarily metabolized by CYP1A2, CYP2C9, and CYP3A4. Therefore, the induction of metabolism by phenytoin can lead to a decrease in INR levels.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe menopausal symptoms and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe menopausal symptoms and expresses her desire to start HRT. She has no significant medical or surgical history. Her friend used oestrogen patches and she wants to try them. What is the efficacy of oestrogen patch therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Progesterone tablets must be given in conjunction with oestrogen patch therapy

      Explanation:

      Progesterone Tablets and Patch Therapy for Hormone Replacement

      Progesterone tablets are necessary for women undergoing hormone replacement therapy with an intact uterus. Without them, the risk of uterine cancer is significantly increased. However, for women who have undergone a hysterectomy, oral progesterone is not required. The tablets must be taken in conjunction with the patch therapy for at least 12 days of the cycle.

      The patches are designed to be used continuously without a break and are changed every seven days. As the oestradiol is absorbed subcutaneously, there is no significant hepatic first pass metabolism. This method of delivery has the same effects on bone mineral density as tablet therapy. However, the adverse events associated with oestrogen replacement, such as breast cancer, remain the same.

      In summary, hormone replacement therapy with progesterone tablets and patch therapy is an effective treatment option for women with an intact uterus. It is important to follow the prescribed regimen to minimize the risk of uterine cancer. Women who have undergone a hysterectomy do not require oral progesterone. The patch therapy is designed for continuous use and has similar effects on bone mineral density as tablet therapy. However, the potential adverse events associated with oestrogen replacement should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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