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Question 1
Incorrect
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The following statements are not true of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle, except?
Your Answer: It lies in the anterior compartment of the forearm
Correct Answer: It receives its blood supply from the radial artery
Explanation:Extensor carpi radialis brevis is a fusiform muscle found in the lateral part of the posterior forearm. Together with anconaeus, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi ulnaris, it belongs to the superficial forearm extensor group. Extensor carpi radialis brevis originates from the lateral epicondyle of humerus via the common extensor tendon. This is a common origin that it shares with the extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi ulnaris muscles. Some fibres also originate from the lateral intermuscular septum, a thick aponeurosis that covers the muscle itself, and from the radial collateral ligament.The muscle courses inferiorly, giving off a long tendon in the middle of the forearm which descends towards the dorsal hand. The tendon passes through a groove on the posterior surface of radius, deep to the extensor retinaculum. After traversing the extensor retinaculum space, the tendon inserts into the posterior aspect of the base of the third metacarpal bone.Extensor carpi radialis brevis is innervated directly by the radial nerve (C5- C8), or sometimes from its deep branch/posterior interosseous nerve. The radial nerve stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.The muscle is vascularized by the radial recurrent artery, radial artery and deep brachial artery (via its radial collateral branch).Extensor carpi radialis brevis works together with extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi radialis longus to extend the hand at the wrist joint. This action is vital in a sequence of muscle contractions needed for clenching a fist or making a grip. When performing these functions, wrist extension blocks the flexor muscles from on acting upon the hand. Instead, flexors act only on the digits, thereby flexing them and producing an effective hand grip, such as that seen in a tennis backhand. When the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle contracts together with extensor carpi radialis longus and flexor carpi radialis, it contributes to producing hand abduction (radial deviation).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Regarding alteplase, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Alteplase has a half-life of about 3 - 4 minutes.
Correct Answer: Alteplase is commonly associated with hypotensive effects.
Explanation:Alteplase is a recombinant tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA), a naturally occurring fibrin-specific enzyme that has selectivity for activation of fibrin-bound plasminogen. It has a short half-life of 3 – 4 minutes and must be given by continuous intravenous infusion but is not associated with antigenic or hypotensive effects, and can be used in patients when recent streptococcal infections or recent use of streptokinase contraindicates the use of streptokinase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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You examine a 48-year-old patient who has had proximal weakness, hypertension, and easy bruising in the past. She exhibits considerable face fullness and truncal obesity on examination. You diagnose her with Cushing's syndrome.When would her random cortisol level likely be abnormal?
Your Answer: 2400 hrs
Explanation:Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep.The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 44 year old woman sustains an injury to the median nerve at the elbow after falling awkwardly. Which of the following clinical features are you LEAST likely to see on examination:
Your Answer: Hand of Benediction appearance when the patient is asked to make a fist
Correct Answer: Loss of flexion of the medial two digits
Explanation:Flexion of the index and middle fingers at the IPJs is lost due to paralysis of the flexor digitorum superficialis and the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus. Flexion of the MCPJs of the index and middle fingers are lost due to paralysis of the lateral two lumbrical muscles. Flexion of the ring and little fingers are preserved as these are supported by the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus and the medial two lumbrical muscles, innervated by the ulnar nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 5
Correct
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Thiopental sodium is contraindicated in which of the following:
Your Answer: Acute intermittent porphyrias
Explanation:Barbiturates induce hepatic enzymes. The enzyme gamma aminolevulinic acid synthetase, which produces porphyrins, can be induced and in susceptible patients an attack of acute intermittent porphyria can occur. Thiopental is absolutely contraindicated in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The qSOFA score is a bedside prompt designed to identify patients with suspected infection who are at greater risk for a poor outcome outside of the intensive care unit.Which of the following is one of the criteria used in the qSOFA score? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >22
Explanation:In February 2016 the Society of Critical Care Medicine published a JAMA article reformatting the definitions of sepsis in an attempt to overcome the shortcomings of the old definitions.The main changes are a new definition of sepsis, the replacement of the SIRS criteria with the quick Sepsis-related Organ Failure Assessment (qSOFA), and the complete removal of “severe sepsis” as an entity.The new definition of sepsis is that it is “life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection.”Septic shock is “a subset of sepsis in which underlying circulatory and cellular metabolism abnormalities are profound enough to increase mortality.”In essence this means that septic shock is sepsis plus the following, despite adequate fluid resuscitation:Vasopressors required to maintain a MAP > 65 mmHgSerum lactate > 2 mmol/lThe qSOFA score is a bedside prompt designed to identify patients with suspected infection who are at greater risk for a poor outcome outside of the intensive care unit. It uses the following three criteria:Hypotension (SBP < 100 mmHg)Tachypnoea (RR > 22)Altered mental status (GCS < 15)The presence of 2 or more of the qSOFA criteria near the onset of infection is associated with greater risk of death or a prolonged intensive care unit stay.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pathology Of Infections
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with a history of hyposplenism arrives at the Emergency Department sick and feverish. A complete set of bloods, including a peripheral blood film, is organised.On a hyposplenic blood film, which of the following features is LEAST likely to be seen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teardrop cells
Explanation:The collection of abnormalities found in these patients is referred to as a hyposplenic film.The following features can be seen on hyposplenic blood films:Howell-Jolly bodiesHeinz’s bodiesTarget cellsRBCs with nuclei on occasionLymphocytosisMacrocytosisAcanthocytesTeardrop cells, also known as dacrocytes, are named for their teardrop-shaped shape. Dacrocytosis is a condition in which a large number of these cells are present. Myelofibrosis and beta thalassemia major both have dacrocytes, but hyposplenism does not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the most common application of Nitrates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angina
Explanation:In patients with exertional stable angina, nitrates improve exercise tolerance, time to onset of angina, and ST-segment depression during exercise testing. In combination with beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers, nitrates produce greater anti-anginal and anti-ischemic effects.While they act as vasodilators, coronary vasodilators, and modest arteriolar dilators, the primary anti ischemic effect of nitrates is to decrease myocardial oxygen demand by producing systemic vasodilation more than coronary vasodilation. This systemic vasodilation reduces left ventricular systolic wall stress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) acts to cause all of the following effects EXCEPT for:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasoconstricts the afferent arteriole
Explanation:ANP acts to: Inhibit Na+ reabsorption in the distal nephron (through inhibition of ENaC in principal cells)Suppress the production of reninSuppress the production of aldosteroneSuppress the production of ADHCause renal vasodilation, increasing the glomerular filtration rate
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct with regards to insulin receptors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insulin has its intracellular effects via activation of tyrosine kinase.
Explanation:Most cells have insulin receptors present on them which can be sequestered into the cell to inactivate them. These receptors consist of two extracellular alpha subunits which contain the insulin-binding site and two transmembrane beta subunits. Because insulin is a polypeptide hormone, it must act via cell surface receptors as it is unable to readily cross the cell membrane. On binding to the receptor, the beta subunit of insulin autophosphorylation, which activates tyrosine kinase. As a result, there is an intracellular cascade of phosphorylation, causing a translocation of the glucose transporter GLUT4 and GLUT-1 to the plasma membrane of the affected cell. This facilitates glucose entry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis results in widespread platelet aggregation.
Explanation:DIC is characterised by a widespread inappropriate intravascular deposition of fibrin with consumption of coagulation factors and platelets. This may occur as a consequence of many disorders that release procoagulant material into the circulation or cause widespread endothelial damage or platelet aggregation. Increased activity of thrombin in the circulation overwhelms its normal rate of removal by natural anticoagulants. In addition to causing increased deposition of fibrin in the microcirculation and widespread platelet aggregation to the vessels, intravascular thrombin formation interferes with fibrin polymerisation. Intense fibrinolysis is stimulated by thrombi on vascular walls and the release of fibrin degradation products again interferes with fibrin polymerisation. The combined action of thrombin and plasmin causes depletion of fibrinogen and all coagulation factors, compounded by thrombocytopaenia caused by platelet consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Where: Capillary hydrostatic pressure is (P c) Hydrostatic pressure in the interstices is (P I )Plasma oncotic pressure is (π p) Interstitial oncotic pressure is (π i)Which of the following formulas best represents fluid flow at the capillary bed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Volume / min = (P c - P i ) - (π p - π i )
Explanation:Starling’s equation for fluid filtration describes fluid flow at the capillary bed.Filtration forces (capillary hydrostatic pressure and interstitial oncotic pressure) stimulate fluid movement out of the capillary, while resorption forces promote fluid movement into the capillary (interstitial hydrostatic pressure and plasma oncotic pressure). Although the forces fluctuate along the length of the capillary bed, overall filtration is achieved.At the capillary bed, there is fluid movement.The reflection coefficient (σ), the surface area accessible (S), and the hydraulic conductance of the wall (Lp) are frequently used to account for the endothelium’s semi-permeability, yielding:Volume / min = LpS [(Pc- Pi) – σ(πp– πi)]Volume /min = (Pc-Pi) – (πp–πi) describes the fluid circulation at the capillaries.Where:Pc= capillary hydrostatic pressurePi= interstitial hydrostatic pressureπp= plasma oncotic pressureπi= interstitial oncotic pressure
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the frontal lobe:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion
Explanation:Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is seen in damage to the frontal eye field of the frontal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is typically a result of damage to the occipital lobe (or of the optic radiation passing through the parietal and temporal lobes). Auditory agnosia may been seen in a lesion of the temporal lobe. Hemispatial neglect may be seen in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Receptive dysphasia is seen in damage to Wernicke’s area, in the temporal lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man presents with painful red eye with copious discharge and you make a diagnosis of infective conjunctivitis following a history and an examination,.One of these is NOT an indication for an urgent ophthalmology referral in this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral conjunctivitis
Explanation:Urgent referral to ophthalmology is indicated if the patient with conjunctivitis has any of the following:Suspected gonococcal or chlamydial conjunctivitisCorneal involvement associated with soft contact lens useSevere disease indicated by presence of a pseudomembraneConjunctivitis associated with rheumatoid arthritis or in immunocompromised patient. Ophthalmia neonatorum.Possible herpes infection.Had recent intraocular surgery. A red flag indicating a serious cause of red eye.Suspected periorbital or orbital cellulitis.Bilateral conjunctivitis is not an indication for urgent referral to ophthalmology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Detection of urinary Bence-Jones protein would be most suggestive of which of the following malignancies:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Bence Jones proteins are monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains found in urine (and plasma) of some patients with myeloma. Because of their relatively small size, light chains are readily excreted into the urine. The presence of significant amounts of Bence Jones proteins in urine is indicative of malignant B cell proliferation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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One of your patients has been infected by an obligate pathogen and presents with features of this condition.Which of these is an example of an obligate pathogen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trepenoma pallidum
Explanation:Treponema pallidum is an obligate pathogen. Obligate pathogens are almost always associated with disease and usually cannot survive outside of the body for long periods of time. Examples include and HIV.Staphylococcus aureus and Bacteroides fragilis are conditional pathogens. These are pathogens that usually cause disease only if certain conditions are met.Pneumocystis jiroveci and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, are opportunistic pathogens. These are pathogens that can only cause disease in an immunocompromised host or under unusual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. He takes several medications, including amiodarone.Which of the following is amiodarone mechanism of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blocks Na + and K + channels and beta-adrenoreceptors in the heart
Explanation:Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III anti-arrhythmic that works by blocking a variety of channels, including Na+ and K+ channels, as well as beta-adrenoreceptors. As a result, it slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes and prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential (slowing repolarisation).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old patient was brought to the ER after falling off of his skateboard. He is unable to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of his index finger. You suspect that he suffers from a supracondylar fracture. Which of the following conditions would confirm supracondylar fracture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to oppose the thumb
Explanation:A supracondylar fracture is a fracture that occurs through the thin section of the distal humerus above the growth plate. A supracondylar fracture is most usually associated with median nerve injury. A medial nerve damage causes paralysis of the thenar muscles, as well as loss of thumb opposition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following clinical features would you least expect to see in a lesion of the frontal lobe:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Explanation:Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing results from damage to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe. Incontinence may occur due to damage of the cortical micturition centre in the prefrontal cortex. Primitive reflexes and inability to problem solve may occur due to damage to the prefrontal cortex. Motor weakness of the contralateral limb with UMN signs may occur due to damage of the primary motor cortex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old male is brought into the Emergency Department by the paramedics after a road traffic accident. After a quick triage, you establish that he will need to be intubated, and you ask for some ketamine to be prepared. Which one of the following options regarding this drug is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is the only anaesthetic agent available that has analgesic, hypnotic, and amnesic properties
Explanation:Ketamine is a dissociative anaesthetic with analgesic, amnesic, and hypnotic effects. It is the only anaesthetic agent which causes all three of these effects.Ketamine exerts its action by non-competitive antagonism at the NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor. Due to its analgesic property, Ketamine is given so that patients do not retain memories of short term procedures. Ketamine is used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia in general surgery and for treating burn wounds, battlefield injuries, and children who cannot tolerate other anaesthetic or analgesic agents.It can be given by both intravenous and intramuscular routes. Ketamine causes cardiac stimulation by increasing the sympathetic tone. The major side effect is increased intracranial pressure as an increase in the sympathetic tone causes vasoconstriction and an increase in the MAP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with painful joints had some blood tests done with her GP. The test showed she had anti-double stranded DNA antibodies.Which one of these disorders is most likely to be associated with anti-double stranded DNA antibodies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:CREST syndrome is usually associated with anti-centromere antibodies.Primary biliary cirrhosis is associated with anti-mitochondrial antibodies.Sjogren’s syndrome is associated with anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies.Polymyositis is associated with anti-Jo1 antibodies.Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies are highly characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). They are a group of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) that target double stranded DNA and are implicated in the pathogenesis of lupus nephritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Regarding endothelin-1, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endothelin-1 release is inhibited by noradrenaline.
Explanation:Endothelin-1 (ET-1) is an extremely potent vasoconstrictor peptide which is released from the endothelium in the presence of many other vasoconstrictors, including angiotensin II, antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and noradrenaline, and may be increased in disease and hypoxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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All of the following single clinical risk groups is considered eligible to receive the seasonal influenza vaccination, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients with hypertension
Explanation:The following is the list of all the health and age factors that are known to increase a person’s risk of getting serious complications from flu:- Adults 65 years and older- Children younger than 2 years old- Asthma- Neurological and neurodevelopmental conditions- Blood disorders (such as sickle cell disease)- Chronic lung disease (such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD] and cystic fibrosis)- Endocrine disorders (such as diabetes mellitus)- Heart disease (such as congenital heart disease, congestive heart failure and coronary artery disease)- Kidney diseases- Liver disorders- Metabolic disorders (such as inherited metabolic disorders and mitochondrial disorders)- People who are obese with a body mass index [BMI] of 40 or higher- People younger than 19 years old on long-term aspirin- or salicylate-containing medications.- People with a weakened immune system due to disease (such as people with HIV or AIDS, or some cancers such as leukaemia) or medications (such as those receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatment for cancer, or persons with chronic conditions requiring chronic corticosteroids or other drugs that suppress the immune system)- People who have had a stroke- Pregnant people and people up to 2 weeks after the end of pregnancy- People who live in nursing homes and other long-term care facilities
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male is referred to your haematology clinic after an acute attack of haemolytic anaemia. He was diagnosed with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency ten years ago. Which ONE of the following options is FALSE with regards to this disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute haemolysis can be triggered by cephalosporin antibiotics
Explanation:Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an X-linked recessive disorder in which there is a deficiency of the enzyme G6PD. This causes instability of red blood cell membranes under oxidative stress leading to haemolysis.Triggers include: 1) Fava beans2) Sulphonamides3) Primaquine4) Anti-TB drugs5) Infections Most individuals will be asymptomatic until exposed to one of the triggers listed above. It is the commonest human enzyme defect and affects males more than females because of the X-linked inheritance pattern. The use of penicillins and cephalosporins is generally safe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 70 year old man who has a previous history of small cell lung cancer was found to have severe hyponatraemia on a recent blood test and he is sent to the emergency room. In the nephron, where is the likely cause of this abnormality?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Distal nephron
Explanation:In the cancer patient, hyponatremia is usually caused by the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). This develops more frequently with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) than with other malignancies. The pathogenesis of this is as a result of the process whereby ADH binds V2 receptors on renal principal cells in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts, resulting in elevation of cAMP levels. Increased cAMP levels cause fusion of intracellular vesicles with the apical membrane. There are water channels called aquaporins in their membranes of these vesicles, and these increase the water permeability, thus facilitating increased water reabsorption and urine concentration. Thus, by increasing water retention, ADH causes blood to be diluted, which then decreases the concentration of solutes like sodium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which statement concerning aerosol transmission is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They can be spread via ventilation systems in hospitals
Explanation:Aerosols are airborne particles less than 5 µm in size containing infective organisms. They usually cause infection of both the upper and/or lower respiratory tract.The organisms can remain suspended in the air for long periods and also survive outside the body. They can be transmitted through the ventilation systems and can spread over great distances. Some examples of organisms transmitted by the aerosol route include: Varicella zoster virus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis and measles virus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Dexamethasone would be most useful for which of the following conditions:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure secondary to malignancy
Explanation:Dexamethasone has a very high glucocorticoid activity in conjunction with insignificant mineralocorticoid activity. This makes it particularly suitable for high-dose therapy in conditions where fluid retention would be a disadvantage such as in the management of raised intracranial pressure or cerebral oedema secondary to malignancy. Dexamethasone also has a long duration of action and this, coupled with its lack of mineralocorticoid action makes it particularly suitable for suppression of corticotropin secretion in congenital adrenal hyperplasia. In most individuals a single dose of dexamethasone at night, is sufficient to inhibit corticotropin secretion for 24 hours. This is the basis of the ‘overnight dexamethasone suppression test’ for diagnosing Cushing’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What does the correlation coefficient r = 0 indicate with regards to linear relationships between two variables?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is no correlation between two variables
Explanation:r = 0 if there is no correlation between two variables. The closer that r is to 0, the weaker the correlation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Regarding non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a much greater predilection to disseminate to extranodal sites than in Hodgkin lymphoma.
Explanation:Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL) refers to a group of lymphoproliferative malignancies (about 85% of B-cell and 15% of T or NK (natural killer) cell origin) with different behavioural patterns and treatment responses. This group of malignancies encompasses all types of lymphoma without Reed-Sternberg cells being present. The Reed-Sternberg cell is classically seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma.NHL is five times as common as Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The peak incidence of NHL is in the 50-70 years age group, it affects men and women equally, but affects the Caucasian population more commonly than black and Asian ethnic groups.The following are recognised risk factors for NHL:Chromosomal translocations and molecular rearrangementsEpstein-Barr virus infectionHuman T-cell leukaemia virus type-1 (HTLV-1)Hepatitis CCongenital and acquired immunodeficiency statesAutoimmune disorders, e.g. Sjogren’s syndrome and Hashimoto’s thyroiditisThe most common clinical features at presentation are:Lymphadenopathy (typically asymmetrical and painless)Weight lossFatigueNight sweatsHepatosplenomegalyFor clinical purposes, NHL is divided into three groups: indolent, high-grade, and lymphoblastic.Indolent (low-grade) NHL:The cells are relatively matureDisease follows an indolent course without treatmentOften acceptable to follow a ‘watch and wait’ strategyLocal radiotherapy often effectiveRelatively good prognosis with median survival of 10 yearsHigh-grade NHL:Cells are immatureDisease progresses rapidly without treatmentSignificant number of patients can be cured with intensive combination chemotherapy regimensApproximately 40% cure rateLymphoblastic NHL:Cells are very immature and have a propensity to involve the CNSTreatment and progression are similar to that of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
