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  • Question 1 - You are instructing a woman on the proper use of an EpiPen. What...

    Incorrect

    • You are instructing a woman on the proper use of an EpiPen. What is the most suitable guidance regarding the injection site?

      Your Answer: Posterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh

      Correct Answer: Anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh is the recommended site for injecting IM adrenaline.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 2 - A 47-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is being evaluated in the clinic as...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is being evaluated in the clinic as she has not responded well to methotrexate. The possibility of starting sulfasalazine is being considered. However, if she has an allergy to which of the following drugs, it may not be advisable to prescribe sulfasalazine?

      Your Answer: Penicillin

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Sulfasalazine may cause a reaction in patients who are allergic to aspirin.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with fatigue, fever, sweating (especially at night), aching joints and headaches. On examination, there are no focal signs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection

      Explanation:

      Infections after Renal Transplantation: Common Types and Risks

      Renal transplant patients are at high risk of infections, with over 50% experiencing at least one infection in the first year. In the first month, the risk is similar to that of non-immunosuppressed individuals, with common infections such as postoperative pneumonias and wound infections. However, in the one to six-month period, immunomodulating viruses like Cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex viruses, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus-6 become more problematic.

      Herpes simplex virus can cause severe lesions, including disseminated mucocutaneous disease, oesophagitis, hepatitis, and pneumonitis. influenza can also cause respiratory symptoms, but the injectable inactivated vaccine is safe for kidney transplant recipients. Pneumonia and urinary tract infections are common in the general population, and patients should receive appropriate immunisation.

      A small group of patients may experience persistent viral infections, and those who require additional immunosuppression are at risk of opportunistic infections like cryptococcus, pneumocystis, listeria, and nocardia. Urinary infections are the most common after renal transplantation, and patients usually receive prophylactic antibiotics and antiviral drugs for a few months after the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 4 - A father has called to report that his preteen son is experiencing breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A father has called to report that his preteen son is experiencing breathlessness and swelling about ten minutes after being stung by a bee. The boy's condition has worsened since the sting and he is now having increased difficulty breathing, although he can still speak in complete sentences. Currently, he is lying on the couch and appears to be unwell. An initial diagnosis of anaphylaxis is suspected. They reside in the same town as your clinic, and the father has transportation and is willing to bring his son to the clinic. How would you handle this situation?

      Your Answer: Tell the mother to drive her to hospital immediately and arrange direct admission

      Correct Answer: An emergency ambulance should be called

      Explanation:

      Managing Anaphylaxis: The Importance of Immediate Medical Attention

      Anaphylaxis is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. If a patient presents with symptoms of anaphylaxis, such as difficulty breathing, swelling, and hives, it is crucial to call for an ambulance right away. Basic life support and possible cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) may be necessary.

      Transporting the patient in a personal vehicle should only be considered if there are no other options. In most cases, an emergency ambulance will be quicker at responding. If the patient presents at a medical facility, adrenalin should be administered intramuscularly, along with antihistamines and steroids. Adrenalin can be repeated after five minutes if the patient is not responding.

      While the use of auto-inject pens is debated, some GPs trained in this area do prescribe them. It is important to remember that anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Delaying treatment can have serious consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 5 - A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She has been experiencing occasional itchy rashes. He decided to eliminate all nuts from her diet and the rashes have disappeared. However, she recently had an episode of vomiting, so he also removed milk from her diet. He has been giving her antihistamines regularly. He is curious if she can undergo a blood test for allergies.

      What is the most suitable advice you can provide him?

      Your Answer: It is a useful way to investigate lactose intolerance

      Correct Answer: It is indicated for a child who has a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts

      Explanation:

      Understanding IgE Immunoassay Testing for Peanut Allergies

      IgE immunoassay testing is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate hypersensitivity to various allergens, including peanuts. This test is particularly useful for children who have a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts. IgE produced by B cells in response to specific antigens binds to receptors on mast cells, triggering an immediate (type I) response that can lead to anaphylaxis, urticaria, bronchospasm, and other symptoms.

      Compared to skin-prick testing, IgE immunoassay testing is more sensitive and doesn’t carry the risk of anaphylaxis. However, it can give false-negative results in patients who have true IgE-mediated disease, as confirmed by skin testing or allergen challenge. Therefore, it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes.

      A positive IgE immunoassay test indicates past sensitization to an allergen, but it doesn’t necessarily mean that the patient has clinically relevant disease. Some patients may show positive results but no symptoms associated with that allergen. Therefore, the history is more important in making a diagnosis.

      It is important to note that IgE immunoassay testing cannot be used if a patient is taking antihistamines. However, it is a useful diagnostic tool for patients on long-term corticosteroids, although data are conflicting.

      In summary, IgE immunoassay testing is a valuable diagnostic tool for peanut allergies, but it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes. A positive test supports the diagnosis of peanut allergy, but the history is more important.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old teacher with a history of eczema, seasonal allergies and high blood...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old teacher with a history of eczema, seasonal allergies and high blood pressure visits her doctor complaining of itchy hives on her arms after wearing latex gloves for 30 minutes. She reports no difficulty breathing or facial swelling. Her vital signs are within normal range.
      What is the probable mechanism involved in this case?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Characteristics

      Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause damage to the body. There are different types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with their own characteristics.

      Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity is a type of reaction that involves the release of antibodies against an antigen, resulting in mast cell degranulation and the release of inflammatory mediators. This type of reaction is characterized by the presence of weals and occurs within one hour of contact with the allergen. Atopic individuals, such as those with asthma and hay fever, are more susceptible to this type of reaction.

      Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions produce symptoms 48-72 hours after contact with an allergen. Allergic contact dermatitis is an example of this type of reaction, which causes redness, itching, swelling, blistering, or bumps on the skin.

      Antibody-mediated cytotoxic reactions occur when antibodies bind to antigens on the cell surface, interfering with cell function and marking the cells for destruction. This type of reaction is the basis for autoimmune diseases and haemolytic diseases in newborns.

      Contact irritant dermatitis occurs when irritants remove oils and natural moisturizing factors from the skin, allowing chemical irritants to penetrate the skin barrier and trigger inflammation. This type of reaction presents acutely with redness, papules, swelling, and blistering, and progresses to redness, dryness, and cracking in the chronic stage.

      Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies bind to free-floating antigens, forming antigen-antibody complexes that can deposit in susceptible tissue and cause inflammation and damage. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an example of a disease caused by this mechanism.

      Understanding the Different Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 7 - A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling, redness, and tingling after consuming apples for the past 2 months. The symptoms appear suddenly and last for approximately half an hour. However, they do not occur when the apples are cooked. The patient has a medical history of asthma, hayfever, and several food allergies, including peanuts, brazil nuts, and cashews.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urticaria

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Food allergy symptoms usually involve nausea and diarrhea, regardless of whether the allergen has been cooked or not. However, oral allergy syndrome is a specific type of reaction that causes tingling in the lips, tongue, and mouth after consuming raw plant foods like spinach or apples. This reaction doesn’t occur when the food is cooked. Patients with this syndrome often have a history of atopic diseases like asthma. Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, presents with wheezing, hives, low blood pressure, and even collapse. Angioedema, which is swelling of the upper airway’s submucosa, is usually caused by ACE inhibitors or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency and may be accompanied by urticaria.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old unemployed woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with a persistent...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old unemployed woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with a persistent productive cough that has so far lasted six weeks, associated with shortness of breath and episodes of haemoptysis, as well as malaise and fatigue.
      She is on lisinopril and amlodipine for hypertension. Her weight is 75 kg, a loss of 6 kg since it was last recorded at a hypertension check three months ago. She is a non-smoker and lives alone in a rented flat in a deprived area.
      What is the most appropriate initial management option?

      Your Answer: Send sputum samples and request a chest X-ray (CXR)

      Explanation:

      The patient is at high risk for tuberculosis (TB) due to his unemployment, living in a deprived area, and having diabetes. His symptoms, including a persistent cough with blood, shortness of breath, weight loss, and fatigue, suggest active TB. To diagnose TB, multiple sputum samples should be sent for analysis and a chest X-ray (CXR) should be performed urgently. A Mantoux test is not necessary in a symptomatic individual like this. A blood serology test for TB is not the recommended first-line investigation. A CT scan of the chest is not the first-line test for TB. The patient doesn’t meet the criteria for an urgent referral for suspected cancer, but if he were over 40 years of age, he would meet criteria for a CXR to look for lung cancer. However, even if he were over 40 years of age, his clinical picture with risk factors would still warrant sending sputum samples and arranging a CXR. The role of primary care is to make the diagnosis and refer the patient promptly for appropriate management and contact tracing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman has had a renal transplant six months ago. Other than...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has had a renal transplant six months ago. Other than chronic kidney disease and her subsequent transplant, she has no significant medical history or family history. There is a shared-care protocol between the Transplant Unit and the General Practitioner.
      Which of the following is this patient most likely to receive as part of this protocol?

      Your Answer: Increased frequency of cervical screening

      Correct Answer: Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate

      Explanation:

      Managing Women’s Health after Renal Transplant: Contraception, Cancer Screening, and Vaccinations

      Women who have undergone renal transplant and are of childbearing age should use effective contraception to prevent unintended pregnancy. The most effective methods include intrauterine contraceptive devices, etonogestrel implants, and depot medroxyprogesterone acetate. The latter is particularly suitable as it doesn’t interact with immunosuppressive drugs commonly used in transplant patients. While pregnancy is possible after a renal transplant, it is recommended to wait for at least a year and plan it carefully. Women should also manage their cardiovascular risk factors and keep up-to-date with vaccinations and cancer screening.

      Renal transplant recipients have a higher incidence of cancer than the general population, so regular cancer screening is essential. Breast screening typically starts at 50 years, while cervical screening may not require additional tests. Warfarin is unlikely to be prescribed after a renal transplant, but if necessary, careful monitoring is required. Live vaccines, including Zostavax® shingles vaccine, should be avoided due to the risk of lower efficacy and immunosuppression. Instead, Shingrix® vaccine can be used where indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with multiple skin lesions...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with multiple skin lesions that she has noticed over the past few weeks. She is a single mother and works as a waitress, and has a long history of smoking and poor engagement with health and social services.
      On examination, she is overweight with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 (normal range: 20-25 kg/m2), with obvious cigarette burns on her arms. She has multiple small (ranging from 2-12 mm in diameter), flat, purple bruise-like lesions across her chest, back and arms.
      What causative agent is associated with the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8)

      Explanation:

      The patient in this case has Kaposi’s sarcoma, a common tumor found in individuals with HIV infection. The tumor presents as dark purple/brown intradermal lesions that resemble bruises and can appear anywhere on the skin or oropharynx. Since HIV often goes undiagnosed, it is important to consider this diagnosis in patients with risk factors. This patient has a history of IV drug use and poor engagement with services, making it possible that they have never been tested for HIV. The patient is underweight with a low BMI, which could be a sign of HIV infection. Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by the human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi’s Sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV).

      Shingles, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, is not related to Kaposi’s sarcoma. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a herpesvirus that can cause serious infections in immunocompromised individuals, but it is not associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is linked to cervical cancer and is not a herpesvirus. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes oral and genital herpes, but it is not responsible for Kaposi’s sarcoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother complaining of recurrent episodes of mouth, tongue, and lip itchiness shortly after eating bananas. The symptoms usually subside within half an hour. The child has a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis. He has undergone allergy testing before, which revealed a positive result for birch pollen.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anaphylaxis

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Angioedema can be triggered by drug-induced reactions or, in rare cases, other factors.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 12 - You see a 6-month-old boy who you suspect has non-IgE-mediated cow's' milk protein...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-month-old boy who you suspect has non-IgE-mediated cow's' milk protein allergy. He is exclusively breastfed. You would like to do a trial elimination of cows' milk from his diet.

      What would you advise the mother to achieve this trial elimination?

      Your Answer: Exclude cows' milk protein from her diet for 1 week

      Correct Answer: Exclude cows' milk protein from her diet for 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Non-IgE-Mediated Cow’s’ Milk Protein Allergy in Infants

      When dealing with a breastfed infant suspected of having non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy, it is recommended to advise the mother to exclude cows’ milk from her diet for 2-6 weeks. During this period, calcium and vitamin D supplements may be prescribed to ensure the infant’s nutritional needs are met. After the exclusion period, reintroducing cows’ milk is advised to determine if it is the cause of the infant’s symptoms. If there is no improvement or the symptoms worsen, a referral to secondary care may be necessary.

      For formula-fed or mixed-fed infants, replacing cow’s milk-based formula with hypoallergenic infant formulas is recommended. Extensively hydrolysed formulas (eHF) are typically the first option, and amino acid formulas are an alternative if the infant cannot tolerate eHFs or has severe symptoms. It is important to note that parents should not switch to soy-based formulas without consulting a healthcare professional, as some infants with cow’s’ milk protein allergy may also be allergic to soy.

      In cases where there is faltering growth, acute systemic reactions, severe delayed reactions, significant atopic eczema with multiple food allergies suspected, or persistent parental concern, a referral to secondary care should be considered. With proper management and guidance, infants with non-IgE-mediated cow’s’ milk protein allergy can still receive adequate nutrition and thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 13 - A 54-year-old man comes to the general practice clinic to discuss his aftercare:...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the general practice clinic to discuss his aftercare: he was discharged from hospital six weeks ago after a successful liver transplant. He is being treated by the local liver unit and has a medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and liver cirrhosis caused by alcohol consumption. He is also a smoker. He has some concerns about his ongoing care and would like some guidance on lifestyle issues and managing his blood pressure. What is the best advice to give this patient?

      Your Answer: Calcium channel blockers should be avoided when managing hypertension

      Correct Answer: The use of nicotine patches is safe post liver transplant

      Explanation:

      Post-Liver Transplant Patient Care: Important Considerations

      Liver transplant patients require specialized care to ensure optimal outcomes. Here are some important considerations:

      Encourage smoking cessation: Smoking can promote fibrosis and increase the risk of hepatoma development. Nicotine replacement therapy is a safe option.

      Limit alcohol intake: For non-alcohol indications, maintaining alcohol intake below 14 units/week is appropriate to prevent significant relapse and graft damage.

      Encourage exercise: Exercise can provide cardiovascular benefits and reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Strenuous exercise should be avoided for the first 12 months after transplant.

      Consider statins: Pravastatin and atorvastatin are safe and effective for managing hypertriglyceridaemia following a liver transplant.

      Use calcium channel blockers for hypertension: These drugs have minimal side effects and do not interact with calcineurin inhibitors like tacrolimus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man presents for his first seasonal influenza vaccination. He reports a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for his first seasonal influenza vaccination. He reports a history of anaphylaxis and carries an epipen. What would be a contraindication to administering the vaccine?

      Your Answer: Drug allergy to oseltamivir

      Correct Answer: Food allergy to egg

      Explanation:

      Being mindful of contraindications for the influenza vaccine is crucial. The presence of ovalbumin, an egg protein, in the regular influenza vaccine may lead to anaphylaxis in individuals with a severe egg allergy. To address this concern, egg protein-free vaccines such as Optaflu are accessible for these patients.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old man with a known history of peanut allergy comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with a known history of peanut allergy comes to the clinic with facial swelling. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 85/60 mmHg, pulse is 120 bpm, and he has a bilateral expiratory wheeze. What type of adrenaline should be administered?

      Your Answer: Nebulised adrenaline

      Correct Answer: 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM

      Explanation:

      Please find below the recommended doses of adrenaline for Adult Life Support (ALS) in different scenarios:

      – Anaphylaxis: 0.5mg or 0.5ml of 1:1,000 adrenaline should be administered intramuscularly.
      – Cardiac arrest: For intravenous administration, 1 mg or 10ml of 1:10,000 adrenaline or 1 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline is recommended.

      Understanding Adrenaline and Its Effects on the Body

      Adrenaline is a hormone that is responsible for the body’s fight or flight response. It is released by the adrenal glands and acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Adrenaline has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle.

      Adrenaline also has different actions on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle through alpha receptors. On the other hand, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, ACTH, and lipolysis by adipose tissue through beta receptors. Adrenaline also acts on beta 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation.

      Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. The recommended adult life support adrenaline doses for anaphylaxis are 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1 ml of 1:1000 IV. However, accidental injection of adrenaline can occur, and in such cases, local infiltration of phentolamine is recommended.

      In conclusion, adrenaline is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress. It has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle. Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest, and accidental injection can be managed through local infiltration of phentolamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 16 - A father visits you in general practice with concerns about his 2-year-old daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A father visits you in general practice with concerns about his 2-year-old daughter who has biliary atresia. He has been informed by the paediatric gastroenterologist that her condition has deteriorated and she requires a liver transplant. The father is feeling anxious and upset and is seeking further information about the procedure. As his GP, what is the best advice you can provide him regarding liver transplantation?

      Your Answer: Survival at one year after liver transplantation is 50% in children

      Correct Answer: The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting Facts about Pediatric Liver Transplantation

      Pediatric liver transplantation is a complex medical procedure that involves replacing a diseased liver with a healthy one from a donor. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this life-saving surgery. Here are some myth-busting facts about pediatric liver transplantation:

      – The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C: A potential living donor with antibodies to hepatitis B and C would usually be ruled out as a donor.
      – HLA matching is necessary for kidney, heart, and lung transplants, but not for liver transplants: Blood-group compatibility is necessary, and a relative is more likely to be a match.
      – Immunosuppression is usually required for life, not just 12 months after transplant: While the regimen can be reduced with time, complete withdrawal is only successful in a small number of individuals.
      – Prednisolone is not the only immunosuppressant needed after transplant: A combination of drugs, including prednisolone, ciclosporin, tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine, and sirolimus, are commonly used.
      – Survival at one year after liver transplantation is higher than 50% in children: One-year survival is 80% for all children transplanted and may reach 90% for children with biliary atresia.

      It is important to dispel these myths and provide accurate information about pediatric liver transplantation to help families make informed decisions about their child’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old female complains of mild mouth swelling and itching after consuming raw...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female complains of mild mouth swelling and itching after consuming raw spinach, apple, and strawberries, which subsides within 15 minutes. She has a history of birch pollen allergy but no other medical conditions.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lip-licking dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Urticarial reactions can be caused by various factors, including drug-induced angioedema or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency. Contact irritant dermatitis is usually the result of prolonged exposure to a mild irritant, but it doesn’t typically produce a rapid and predictable response that resolves quickly. Lip licking dermatitis is a form of skin inflammation that occurs when saliva from repeated lip licking causes redness, scaling, and dryness of the lips.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and low levels...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and low levels of iron in his blood. You suspect coeliac disease and want to investigate further.
      Choose from the options below the immunoglobulin that may be deficient in individuals with coeliac disease.

      Your Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Selective IgA Deficiency

      Coeliac disease is more common in individuals with selective IgA deficiency, which affects 0.4% of the general population and 2.6% of coeliac disease patients. Diagnosis of coeliac disease relies on detecting IgA antibodies to transglutaminase or anti-endomysial antibody. However, it is crucial to check total serum IgA levels before ruling out the diagnosis based on serology. For those with confirmed IgA deficiency, IgG tTGA and/or IgG EMA are the appropriate serological tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 19 - As part of a tutorial on pruritus, you plan to use cases from...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a tutorial on pruritus, you plan to use cases from both yourself and GP registrars who frequently prescribe antihistamines for itchy conditions. Your goal is to determine the scenario in which a non-sedating antihistamine would be most effective. Please select the ONE option that best fits this scenario.

      Your Answer: A 4-year-old girl with Chickenpox

      Correct Answer: A 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines: Uses and Limitations in Various Skin Conditions

      Urticaria, Chickenpox, atopic eczema, local reactions to insect stings, and general pruritus are common skin conditions that may benefit from antihistamines. However, the effectiveness of antihistamines varies depending on the underlying cause and the individual’s response.

      For a 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria, non-sedating H1 antihistamines are the first-line treatment. If the first antihistamine is not effective, a second one may be tried.

      A 4-year-old girl with Chickenpox may benefit from emollients and sedating antihistamines to relieve pruritus. Calamine lotion may also be used, but its effectiveness decreases as it dries.

      Antihistamines are not routinely recommended for atopic eczema, but a non-sedating antihistamine may be tried for a month in severe cases or when there is severe itching or urticaria. Sedating antihistamines may be used for sleep disturbance.

      For a 50-year-old woman with a local reaction to a wasp sting, antihistamines are most effective when used immediately after the sting. After 48 hours, they are unlikely to have a significant impact on the local reaction.

      Finally, for a 65-year-old man with general pruritus but no rash, antihistamines may be prescribed, but their effectiveness is limited as histamine may not be the main cause of the pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 20 - A 6-year-old girl presents with her father with a history of tingling lips...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl presents with her father with a history of tingling lips and mouth within minutes of eating kiwi. There are no other symptoms. It has occurred on a number of occasions over the past few weeks but only after eating kiwi. Her past medical history includes a diagnosis of eczema. The pediatrician suspects the diagnosis is oral allergy syndrome.

      What other condition is the girl likely to have been diagnosed with?

      Your Answer: Birch pollen allergy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 21 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner because of atopic eczema....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner because of atopic eczema. Her patents enquire about the possible role of food allergy in her condition.
      Which of the following features is most suggestive of a food allergen exacerbating the eczema of this patient?

      Your Answer: Positive radioallergosorbent (RAST) test

      Correct Answer: Eczema not controlled by optimum management

      Explanation:

      Understanding Food Allergies and Atopic Eczema in Children

      Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that affects many children. While it can be managed with proper treatment, some cases may not respond to standard therapies. In these situations, food allergies should be considered as a possible contributing factor. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, children with moderate to severe atopic eczema that has not been controlled with optimum management, particularly if associated with gut dysmotility or failure to thrive, should be evaluated for food allergies.

      Elevated levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) are often associated with atopic eczema and may indicate allergies to food or environmental allergens. However, these allergies may not be directly related to the eczema. While exclusive breastfeeding has been recommended to prevent the development of atopic eczema in susceptible infants, there is no evidence to support this claim.

      Allergy tests, such as prick tests and radioallergosorbent tests (RAST), may be used to identify potential allergens. However, false positives are common in individuals with atopic eczema due to the skin’s excessive sensitivity. If a true allergy is identified and exposure to the allergen worsens the eczema, removing the allergen may improve the condition.

      In summary, understanding the relationship between food allergies and atopic eczema is important for managing this common condition in children. Proper evaluation and treatment can help improve symptoms and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of bilateral erythematous palms....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of bilateral erythematous palms. She reports itching and the presence of some vesicles. She has observed this developing quickly at work, where she has just begun a new job as a hairdresser.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic contact dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Allergic Contact Dermatitis, Atopic Eczema, Scabies, Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease, and Ringworm

      Skin conditions can vary in their causes and symptoms. Allergic contact dermatitis is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction that occurs upon contact with an allergen, such as nickel, hair dyes, bleaches, perfumes, fragrances, and rubber antioxidants in gloves. Atopic eczema is a chronic skin condition that presents with red, itchy skin localized to the flexor surfaces and doesn’t normally develop vesicles. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by exposure to mites, which is very itchy and often starts between the fingers, but it would not normally flare up while at work. Hand, foot and mouth disease is a common childhood condition caused by the Coxsackievirus, characterized by a vesicular rash on the hands, feet, and mouth. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection that is usually circular with a silver scale and can be itchy, but it would be unlikely to cause bilateral hand symptoms and doesn’t cause the vesicular rash described here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 23 - A worried mother brings her 10-year-old son to the general practice clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A worried mother brings her 10-year-old son to the general practice clinic with complaints of nasal congestion, itchy eyes and throat irritation that usually occur during the spring months. What is the best guidance to offer this mother regarding the management of her son's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Showering or washing her will make no difference to symptoms, even when the pollen count is high

      Correct Answer: Avoid drying washing outdoors when pollen count is high

      Explanation:

      Managing Seasonal Allergic Rhinitis: Tips for Reducing Pollen Exposure

      Seasonal allergic rhinitis is a condition where the nasal mucosa becomes sensitized to allergens, such as pollen, causing inflammation and symptoms like sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes. To reduce pollen exposure, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends avoiding drying laundry outdoors when pollen counts are high. Showering and washing hair after potential exposure can also help alleviate symptoms. While the tree pollen season can start as early as March, there is no need to eat locally produced honey or resort to ineffective nasal irrigation with saline. By following these simple tips, individuals with seasonal allergic rhinitis can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 24 - What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in adolescents? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Hair dye

      Correct Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old medical student is required to give a blood sample to check...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old medical student is required to give a blood sample to check his hepatitis B status. He received a course of vaccinations nine months ago.
      Which of the following is this patient’s blood test most likely to show?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin M to HBcAg

      Correct Answer: Anti-HBs

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Testing for hepatitis B involves checking for various antibodies and antigens in the blood. Here is a breakdown of what each result means:

      Anti-HBs: This antibody indicates that a person has been vaccinated against hepatitis B.

      Anti-HBsAb + anti-HBc: The presence of both antibodies suggests that a person has had a past infection with hepatitis B and is now immune.

      Anti-HBeAb: This antibody indicates that a person is less infectious and is recovering from an acute infection.

      HBsAg + HBcAg: The presence of both antigens suggests that a person is currently infected with hepatitis B.

      Immunoglobulin M to HBcAg: The presence of this antibody indicates that a person has recently been infected with hepatitis B.

      Understanding these test results can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage hepatitis B infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 26 - A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in centre. She reports that he is thought to have an allergy to peanuts and is waiting for an Allergy Clinic outpatient appointment. He has eaten a piece of birthday cake at a party about 30 minutes ago and has quickly developed facial flushing, with swelling of the lips and face. He has become wheezy and is now unable to talk in complete sentences.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Administer 1000 µg 1: 1000 adrenaline intramuscularly (IM)

      Correct Answer: Administer 300 µg 1: 1000 adrenaline IM

      Explanation:

      Correct and Incorrect Management Options for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate management. The correct management options include administering adrenaline 1:1000 intramuscularly (IM) at appropriate doses based on the patient’s age and weight. However, there are also incorrect management options that can be harmful to the patient.

      One incorrect option is administering chlorphenamine IM. While it is a sedating antihistamine, it should not be used as a first-line intervention for airway, breathing, or circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilisation.

      Another incorrect option is advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department instead of administering immediate drug management. Out-of-hours centres should have access to emergency drugs, including adrenaline, and GPs working in these settings should be capable of administering doses in emergencies.

      It is also important to administer the correct dose of adrenaline based on the patient’s age and weight. Administering a dose that is too high, such as 1000 µg for a 7-year-old child, can be harmful.

      In summary, the correct management options for anaphylaxis include administering adrenaline at appropriate doses and avoiding incorrect options such as administering chlorphenamine IM or advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department without administering immediate drug management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old man has difficulty swallowing and speaking that worsens after physical activity....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has difficulty swallowing and speaking that worsens after physical activity. The physician suspects he may have myasthenia gravis.
      What is the most likely target of the autoimmune antibodies that cause this disease?

      Your Answer: Thymus gland

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myasthenia Gravis: Targets and Associations

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles, leading to muscle weakness that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. In up to 90% of generalized cases, antibodies form against acetylcholine receptors (anti-AChR). However, other muscle antigens may also be targeted.

      One such antigen is low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (anti-LRP4), which is found in subsets of myasthenia gravis patients. Another target is muscle-specific receptor tyrosine kinase (anti-MuSK), which is detected in about half of generalized myasthenia gravis patients who are seronegative for anti-AChR antibodies. These patients may not respond to anticholinesterase drugs but do respond to steroid immunosuppression.

      An association has also been observed between myasthenia gravis and human leukocyte antigen (HLA), although it is not the most likely target. Additionally, one-half of thymoma patients develop myasthenia gravis, while 15% of myasthenia gravis patients have thymomas. Non-AChR muscle autoantibodies reacting with striated muscle titin and RyR antigens are found in up to 95% of myasthenia gravis patients with a thymoma and in 50% of late-onset myasthenia gravis patients (onset at age of 50 years or later). These antibodies are usually associated with more severe myasthenia gravis.

      Understanding the various targets and associations of myasthenia gravis can aid in diagnosis and treatment of this autoimmune disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her fingers. She has a history of mild asthma, which is managed with a salbutamol inhaler, and a known allergy to co-trimoxazole. Her blood tests reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and an anti-CCP antibody level of 150u/ml (normal range < 20u/ml). Which medication could potentially trigger an allergic reaction in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine. However, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide, and methotrexate are all viable options for first-line disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs for rheumatoid arthritis in this patient. Sarilumab may also be considered, but only if the patient has not responded well to other medications and has a disease activity score of over 5.1.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old woman comes for follow-up after experiencing a systemic reaction to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes for follow-up after experiencing a systemic reaction to a wasp sting during a picnic at the park. She reports swelling and redness at the site of the sting that had begun to spread to her face.

      What is the best course of action for long-term management?

      Your Answer: Refer for monoclonal antibody treatment and dispense an adrenaline auto-injector (AAI, e.g. EpiPen®)

      Correct Answer: Refer for venom immunotherapy and dispense an adrenaline auto-injector (AAI, e.g. EpiPen®)

      Explanation:

      Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 30 - A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local hospital. She has been feeling tired and emotional throughout her course of chemotherapy so far, but presents to the Duty Clinic as today, she is feeling more tired than usual, with no appetite and she has been feeling hot and cold at home and struggling to get comfortable.
      On examination, you find she has a temperature of 38.5 oC, but no focal symptoms, and her respiratory and pulse rates and blood pressure are all within normal limits.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics in case of underlying infection with strict safety net advice to seek help if worsening

      Correct Answer: Emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Chemotherapy Patient

      Neutropenic sepsis is a potentially life-threatening complication of neutropenia, commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy. In a patient with fever and neutropenia, neutropenic sepsis should be suspected, and emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review is necessary. Prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics or offering emotional support is not the appropriate management in this situation. The patient requires inpatient monitoring and treatment, as per the ‘sepsis six’ bundle of care, to avoid the risk of sudden deterioration. It is crucial to recognize the urgency of this situation and act promptly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Allergy And Immunology (5/30) 17%
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