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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dizziness. She experiences sudden onset dizziness and nausea when she rolls over in bed in the morning, which goes away after about 20 seconds if she keeps her head still. After these episodes, she feels unsteady and light-headed for several hours. The patient has a history of recurrent otitis media and her family has a history of otosclerosis.
What is the most crucial initial test that needs to be done?Your Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
Explanation:The presence of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss are key indicators for the diagnosis of Meniere’s disease, which is a common cause of dizziness. Other factors such as recurrent otitis media and family history of otosclerosis may be misleading. Audiometry is a recommended test for Meniere’s disease, while CT head is useful for otosclerosis and MRI scan is the preferred diagnostic tool for acoustic neuroma.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female patient of yours who fell over and cut her scalp comes to the surgery with her boyfriend.
It is a very minor laceration and there is no immediate threat to her well being, although it will require sutures.
Your surgery is a considerable distance from the Emergency department and you are willing to do the suturing yourself, but she is visibly intoxicated.
What is the most suitable course of action regarding the patient's consent?Your Answer: Ask her boyfriend if he will give consent on her behalf
Correct Answer: Treat her under the Mental Health Act
Explanation:Ethical Considerations for Treating Patients Who Lack Capacity
When a patient lacks capacity to make decisions about their treatment and care, it is important to consider their best interests and respect their autonomy. In the case of a patient who is under the influence of alcohol or drugs, it is crucial to wait for them to sober up and give consent for any necessary treatment.
The Mental Health Act is not applicable in this situation, as it only pertains to psychiatric conditions. Instead, the General Medical Council (GMC) provides guidance on making decisions for patients who lack capacity. This guidance emphasizes the importance of treating patients as individuals, respecting their dignity, and involving them in decisions about their care as much as possible.
In emergency situations where a patient’s life is at risk or their condition is rapidly deteriorating, treatment can be provided without their consent. However, in non-emergency situations, it is necessary to wait for the patient to regain capacity and give informed consent before proceeding with any treatment.
Overall, ethical considerations and respect for patient autonomy should guide decisions about treating patients who lack capacity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her six month-old daughter with constipation. Which of the following in the history and examination would require a referral to Paediatrics?
Your Answer: Passed meconium at 24 hours of age
Correct Answer: Large naevus over the sacral area
Explanation:When assessing a child’s constipation history and conducting an examination, certain red flags should be taken into consideration. If the child has been constipated since birth or within the first few weeks of life, or if there was a delay of more than 48 hours before passing meconium, it could indicate underlying conditions such as Hirschsprung’s disease or cystic fibrosis.
Additionally, the presence of multiple anal fissures or new neurological symptoms in the lower limbs should be cause for concern. If a large naevus is present over the sacral area, further investigation is necessary to rule out the possibility of spina bifida.
Understanding Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.
After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.
In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Correct
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Barbara is a 44 year old woman with a diagnosis of metastatic ovarian cancer. She is a single mother of 3 children: John who is 14 years old, Michael who is 17 years old preparing for his A-Levels, and Sarah who is 20 years old and attending college. She seeks your guidance on child tax credits. Which of her children qualify for child tax credits?
Your Answer: Lucy and Robert
Explanation:Understanding Child Tax Credits
Child tax credits are a form of financial assistance provided to families to help with the expenses of raising children. To be eligible for child tax credits, certain criteria must be met. Firstly, the age of the child is taken into consideration. Children under the age of 16 can be claimed for until the 31st of August following their 16th birthday. Additionally, children under the age of 20 who are in approved education or training can also be claimed for.
Secondly, responsibility for the child is also a factor in determining eligibility. If the child lives with you all the time, or if they normally live with you and you are their primary caregiver, you may be eligible for child tax credits. Other indicators of responsibility include the child keeping their toys and clothes at your home, you paying for their meals and giving them pocket money, or if they live in an EEA country or Switzerland but are financially dependent on you.
In summary, child tax credits are a helpful resource for families with children. By meeting the age and responsibility criteria, families can receive financial assistance to help with the costs of raising children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of increasing fatigue and nausea over the past two weeks. During the examination, the GP notices a yellowish tint to the whites of her eyes. The patient resides in a remote fishing village and consumes a diet high in seafood. She doesn't smoke or drink alcohol and reports no weight loss or other constitutional symptoms. The following are her liver function test results:
- Bilirubin: 20 µmol/l
- ALP: 160 u/l
- ALT: 550 u/l
- γGT: 30 u/l
- Albumin: 35 g/l
All other routine blood results are normal. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis E
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis E
Hepatitis E is a type of RNA hepevirus that is transmitted through the faecal-oral route. Its incubation period ranges from 3 to 8 weeks. This disease is common in Central and South-East Asia, North and West Africa, and in Mexico. It causes a similar illness to hepatitis A, but with a higher mortality rate of about 20% during pregnancy. Unlike other types of hepatitis, Hepatitis E doesn’t cause chronic disease or an increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. Although a vaccine is currently in development, it is not yet widely available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent headache that has been bothering her for the past 5 months. She has been keeping a headache diary which shows that she experiences symptoms for approximately 20-25 days each month. The headache is usually felt on one side of her head, and she has been taking paracetamol 1g qds and ibuprofen 400mg tds daily to alleviate her symptoms. The doctor suspects that she may be suffering from medication overuse headache. What is the most appropriate course of action for her treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abruptly stop analgesics
Explanation:Understanding Medication Overuse Headache
Medication overuse headache is a common cause of chronic daily headache that affects up to 1 in 50 people. It is characterized by headaches that occur for 15 days or more per month and are worsened by regular use of symptomatic medication. Patients who use opioids and triptans are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Additionally, there may be psychiatric comorbidity associated with medication overuse headache.
According to the 2008 SIGN guidelines, the management of medication overuse headache involves abruptly withdrawing simple analgesics and triptans, which may initially worsen headaches. On the other hand, opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn. However, withdrawal symptoms such as vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbances, and anxiety may occur when medication is stopped. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before discontinuing any medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is an indication for circumcision?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pathological phimosis
Explanation:Indications for Paediatric Circumcision
There are several indications for paediatric circumcision, with the most common being pathological phimosis. This occurs when scarring of the opening of the foreskin makes it non-retractable, which is rare before the age of 5 years. In such cases, circumcision is the only absolute indication.
Recurrent episodes of balanoposthitis, or infection beneath the foreskin, can also be an indication for circumcision. While this is not a common occurrence, it can be troublesome and may require surgical intervention.
In rare cases, paediatric circumcisions may be required for other conditions. However, these are not as common as pathological phimosis or balanoposthitis. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine if circumcision is necessary for your child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her facial hirsutism and amenorrhea for the past six months. On examination, she has a BMI of 31 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg. She denies the possibility of pregnancy. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma
Explanation:PCOS and Hirsutism: A Common Endocrinopathy in Women
This patient is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which is the most common endocrinopathy in women of reproductive age. PCOS accounts for 95% of cases of hirsutism presenting to out-patient clinics. The clinical features of PCOS include hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea, which are caused by excessive androgen levels. These symptoms are often worsened by obesity.
When diagnosing hirsutism, it is important to consider other potential causes such as virilising tumours of the ovaries or adrenal gland, Cushing’s syndrome, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. By ruling out these other conditions, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat PCOS and its associated symptoms. Proper management of PCOS can improve quality of life and reduce the risk of long-term complications such as infertility and cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman with a BMI of 26 presents to the diabetic clinic with poor glycaemic control while on gliclazide 160mg bd. Her latest blood results reveal a HbA1c of 9.4%. Her laboratory values are as follows: Na+ 139 mmol/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, urea 8.4 mmol/l, creatinine 180 µmol/l, ALT 25 iu/l, and yGT 33 iu/l. What medication should be added to her treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Considering her overweight status, adding metformin would be a logical choice. However, due to the elevated creatinine levels, pioglitazone would be a more suitable alternative. It is important to note that if the creatinine level exceeds 130 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 45 ml/min), the metformin dosage should be reassessed and discontinued if the creatinine level exceeds 150 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 30 ml/min). It is worth noting that pioglitazone may cause weight gain, which could be problematic given her BMI of 26.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of cardiogenic syncope. During the syncope episodes, ECG monitoring revealed that he had a sustained ventricular arrhythmia. He has opted for an elective ICD insertion and seeks your guidance on driving. He is employed as a software programmer in a business park located approximately 10 miles outside the town center, and he typically commutes to and from work by car. What are the DVLA regulations concerning driving after an ICD implantation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No driving for 6 months
Explanation:The DVLA has stringent rules in place for individuals with ICDs. They are prohibited from driving a group 1 vehicle for a period of 6 months following the insertion of an ICD or after experiencing an ICD shock. Furthermore, they are permanently disqualified from obtaining a group 2 HGV license.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of constipation that has persisted since her last pregnancy two years ago. She has been using laxatives for the past few months. She reports no abdominal pain or diarrhoea and has not noticed any triggers or alleviating factors. Her weight is stable and she has not observed any blood in her stools. She is in good health otherwise.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic constipation
Explanation:Possible Causes of Chronic Constipation: A Differential Diagnosis
Chronic constipation is a common condition affecting approximately 14% of the global population. While most cases do not require investigation, it is important to consider potential underlying causes in certain patients. Here are some possible diagnoses to consider:
1. Idiopathic constipation: This is the most common cause of chronic constipation, especially in young patients. A high-fiber diet and physical activity can help alleviate symptoms.
2. Diverticular disease: This condition is characterized by abdominal pain and diarrhea, but it usually presents later in life and chronic constipation is a risk factor.
3. Colon cancer: While chronic constipation can be a symptom of colon cancer, other factors such as weight loss and rectal bleeding are usually present. This diagnosis is unlikely in younger patients.
4. Hypothyroidism: Constipation can be a symptom of an underactive thyroid, but other symptoms such as weight gain and fatigue are usually present.
5. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS): IBS can cause constipation and/or diarrhea, but it is usually associated with abdominal pain and bloating.
In summary, chronic constipation can have various underlying causes, and a careful history and physical examination can help determine the appropriate diagnostic approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is true about jugular venous pulsation (JVP)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is paradoxical in constrictive pericarditis
Explanation:Impedance of Ventricular Contraction in Constrictive Pericarditis and Cardiac Tamponade
Both constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade can cause impedance of ventricular contraction, which becomes more severe as the diaphragm descends. This results in an increase in venous pressure during inspiration, known as Kussmaul’s sign.
To assess the jugular venous pressure (JVP), the patient should be lying at a 45-degree angle. Normally, the JVP is not palpable except in severe tricuspid regurgitation, and the pressure is assessed relative to the manubrium sterni. In early left ventricular failure, the JVP may be normal, but as fluid retention increases, the veins become congested, leading to congestive cardiac failure (CCF).
In summary, both constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade can lead to impedance of ventricular contraction and an increase in venous pressure during inspiration, which can be assessed through the JVP. Congestion of the veins can also occur in CCF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A Pediatrician cares for patients living in a local refugee accommodation centre. The doctor is concerned about overcrowding, as he is aware that living in overcrowded accommodation increases the risk of communicable diseases and mental illness.
Which of the following living situations is the most acceptable according to the bedroom standard?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Two 18-year-old male cousins sharing a bedroom
Explanation:Understanding the Bedroom Standard: A Guide to Housing Overcrowding
The bedroom standard is a commonly used measure of overcrowding in housing. It outlines the minimum requirements for the number of bedrooms needed based on the occupants’ ages and relationships. Here are some examples of how the bedroom standard applies to different living situations:
– Two 18-year-old male cousins sharing a bedroom: This is acceptable according to the bedroom standard as they are of the same sex and between the ages of 10 and 20.
– A married couple sleeping on a pull-out bed in the family’s living room: This is not acceptable according to the bedroom standard as a living room or kitchen should not be used as a bedroom.
– A 12-year-old boy sharing a room with his 13-year-old sister: This is not acceptable according to the bedroom standard as they are of opposite sexes.
– A married couple sharing a room with their 5-year-old twin boys: This is not acceptable according to the bedroom standard as the family should have at least two separate bedrooms.
– A pair of sisters aged 22 and 26 years sharing a room: This is not acceptable according to the bedroom standard as an individual aged 21 years or more should have their own room.Understanding the bedroom standard is important for ensuring adequate living conditions and avoiding overcrowding in housing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic after returning from a trip to Spain with complaints of dysuria, red eyes, and left knee pain. He has no significant medical history and has never experienced such symptoms before. His mother has a history of psoriatic arthritis.
During the examination, the patient has bilaterally injected conjunctiva and a slightly swollen left knee. His vital signs are stable.
What is the most commonly associated feature with the patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dactylitis
Explanation:Dactylitis is a common symptom of reactive arthritis, which is strongly suggested by this patient’s history. The fact that his mother has psoriatic arthritis may indicate a hereditary HLA-B27 genotype, which is also associated with reactive arthritis. Achilles tendinitis is more commonly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, another seronegative arthritis linked to HLA-B27. Erythema multiforme is a skin reaction caused by various infections and is not specifically associated with reactive arthritis. Herberden’s nodes are bony nodules at the distal interphalangeal joints associated with osteoarthritis, which is a non-inflammatory condition. Although the patient’s positive family history suggested psoriatic arthritis, the rest of his history was more consistent with reactive arthritis, making that option incorrect.
Dactylitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of a finger or toe. The causes of this condition include spondyloarthritis, such as Psoriatic and reactive arthritis, sickle-cell disease, and other rare causes like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, and syphilis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are instructing a woman on the proper use of an EpiPen. What is the most suitable guidance regarding the injection site?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh
Explanation:The anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh is the recommended site for injecting IM adrenaline.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A patient with chronic depression in their 50s comes for advice about changing medication. They have been to the psychiatrist who wants to change them from their monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) to a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
The patient cannot remember how long they were told to wait between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI.
What is the recommended time interval between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Recommended Interval Before Starting Antidepressants After Stopping MAOI
After stopping a MAOI, it is recommended to wait before starting most other antidepressants. The interval should be two weeks, except for imipramine or clomipramine, where the interval should be three weeks. This is important to avoid potential adverse reactions and interactions between the medications. It is crucial to follow the recommended interval to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the antidepressant treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications has been linked to a higher likelihood of atypical stress fractures in the proximal femoral shaft?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:An elevated risk of atypical stress fractures is linked to the use of bisphosphonates.
Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.
The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The use of beta-blockers in treating hypertension has decreased significantly over the last half-decade. What are the primary factors contributing to this decline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Less likely to prevent stroke + potential impairment of glucose tolerance
Explanation:The ASCOT-BPLA study showcased this phenomenon.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents with difficulty walking. He has a previous medical history of diabetes and cervical spondylosis that required surgical decompression seven years ago. He drinks 30 units of alcohol a week. On examination, there is fasciculation, wasting and weakness of the left deltoid and biceps. There is also bilateral upper limb-girdle weakness. There is fasciculation and wasting of the gluteals and quadriceps, with weakness of the hip flexors. Reflexes are brisk in the upper and lower limbs. Plantars are up-going. There is no sensory loss.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this case is motor neurone disease, which is characterized by the degeneration of neurones in the motor cortex, motor cranial nuclei, and anterior horn cells. This condition presents with a combination of upper and lower motor neurone signs, such as weakness, spasticity, hyper-reflexia, up-going plantars, wasting, and fasciculation. However, there are no sensory changes.
Alcohol can cause an acute alcoholic myopathy after binge drinking, which can lead to acute renal tubular necrosis due to the precipitation of myoglobin in the renal tubules. Chronic myopathy associated with gradual progressive weakness and atrophy, usually involving the hip and shoulder girdle without myoglobinuria, can also occur.
Diabetic amyotrophy is a diabetic proximal neuropathy that causes weakness, wasting, and pain, typically in the quadriceps, and progresses distally.
Cervical spondylosis can result in nerve root compression (radiculopathy) or cord compression (myelopathy). Radiculopathy presents with unilateral neck, shoulder, or arm pain, possibly with changes in sensation or weakness in related muscles. Myelopathy results in progressive spastic quadriparesis and sensory loss with decreased position and vibration sense, and a sensory level develops.
Syringomyelia is characterized by a fluid-filled tubular cyst (syrinx) within the central spinal cord, usually in the cervical region. The syrinx enlarges, compressing the corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts and the anterior horn cells. This condition typically presents in the 20s and 30s, and progress is slow. Symptoms depend on the site of the lesion, but early signs often include wasting and weakness of the hands, with decreased pain and temperature sensation in the trunk and arms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old gentleman has uncontrolled hypertension. He is currently taking a calcium antagonist and an ACE inhibitor.
His U&Es are shown below. You would like to start a diuretic.
Serum sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144)
Serum potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 60 µmol/L (60-110)
According to the latest NICE guidance, which one would be your first choice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation:Navigating NICE Guidelines on Hypertension
The management of hypertension is a crucial topic for general practitioners, and it is likely to be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. The most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136) recommend thiazide-like diuretics as the clear third-line choice, whereas they used to be an option first line in Afro-Caribbeans and the over 55s. However, it is important to note that this guidance has attracted criticism from some clinicians who argue that it is overcomplicated and insufficiently evidence-based, particularly regarding the use of ambulatory and home blood pressure monitoring.
It is essential to have an awareness of this and maintain a balanced view, not just in hypertension but also in other areas of medicine. While NICE guidance is significant, there are other guidelines, and it is not without its criticism. It is unlikely that AKT questions will contradict NICE guidance, but it is crucial to bear in mind the bigger picture and remember that the college tests your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance.
It is worth noting that if a patient is already taking bendroflumethiazide or hydrochlorothiazide, these agents should not be routinely changed. Indapamide and chlorthalidone are now recognized as the first-line agents over the latter two agents. All these medications are diuretics, and this man is already taking a calcium channel blocker and an ACE inhibitor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with periorbital and pedal oedema and ‘frothy urine'. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.
Which of the following is the most characteristic finding you could expect from a blood test in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased serum cholesterol
Explanation:Understanding Abnormal Lab Results in Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema. Abnormal lipid metabolism is common in patients with renal disease, particularly in nephrotic syndrome. This can result in marked elevations in the plasma levels of cholesterol, LDL, triglycerides, and lipoprotein A. However, fibrinogen levels tend to be increased rather than decreased in nephrotic syndrome. Hypocalcemia is also more common in patients with nephrotic syndrome due to loss of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in the urine. The ESR is typically elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome or end-stage renal disease. It is important to understand these abnormal lab results in order to properly diagnose and manage nephrotic syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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As a GP registrar, you arrive at the surgery and notice a 32-year-old patient with epilepsy parking in the patient's car park. He has an appointment with you later in the day. You recall from previous consultations that his last seizure was 6 months ago. During the consultation, the patient denies driving. What should be your next course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inform him of the DVLA rules and your duty to inform the DVLA if he refuses to stop
Explanation:It is not appropriate to ignore the situation when you have witnessed the patient driving. Instead, you should inform the patient about the DVLA regulations and your obligation to report them if they refuse to stop driving. Reporting the patient to the DVLA immediately may harm your relationship with them, and it is better to give them a chance to rectify the situation themselves. It is always best to be transparent with patients about your actions.
Confiscating the patient’s keys is not a practical solution and may lead to conflict.
It is important to note that the new ‘6 month rule’ only applies to patients who have experienced their first seizure and have undergone an investigation, rather than those with pre-existing epilepsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman's life has become increasingly difficult due to excessive washing in an attempt to prevent contamination by faeces and urine. She is fortunate to have her own bathroom at home for her exclusive use and showers several times a day and repeatedly washes her hands. She is reluctant to venture far from home for fear of contamination and is especially afraid of using public toilets. She has become quite anxious and her sleep is disturbed.
Select from the list below the single most suitable initial management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behaviour therapy
Explanation:Management of Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that requires proper management based on its severity. Cognitive behavioural therapy, including exposure and response prevention (ERP), is beneficial for all patients with OCD. This therapy involves exposure to triggers and preventing compulsive behaviours. The intensity and delivery of the intervention depend on the severity of the condition and can be individual or group-based. Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are recommended as an adjunct for patients who cannot engage in low-intensity psychological treatment or if such treatment has failed. Clomipramine is an alternative drug for patients with more severe symptoms. Although hypnotherapy and social skills therapy have been used in OCD patients, they are not included in the NICE guidelines.
Managing Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) with Cognitive Behavioural Therapy and Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding hand, foot and mouth disease is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Palm and sole lesions tend to occur before oral ulcers
Explanation:Oral lesions typically manifest before palm and sole lesions in cases of hand, foot and mouth disease.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.
The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who recently immigrated from Malawi comes in for a check-up suspecting she may be pregnant. After a positive pregnancy test, it is revealed that she is HIV positive. What aspect of her management plan should be excluded to ensure the best possible outcome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Encourage Breastfeeding
Explanation:The BHIVA guidelines recommend that women on HAART with an undetectable viral load may consider vaginal delivery, but it is uncertain if this will be implemented in real-world situations. As for breastfeeding, the guidelines advise all HIV-positive mothers, regardless of their antiretroviral therapy and infant PEP, to exclusively use formula feeding from the time of birth.
HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission
With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In London, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.
To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Guidelines on this subject are regularly updated, and the most recent guidelines can be found using the links provided. Factors that can reduce vertical transmission from 25-30% to 2% include maternal antiretroviral therapy, mode of delivery (caesarean section), neonatal antiretroviral therapy, and infant feeding (bottle feeding).
To ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy, NICE guidelines recommend offering HIV screening to all pregnant women. Additionally, all pregnant women should be offered antiretroviral therapy, regardless of whether they were taking it previously.
The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. Otherwise, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the procedure.
Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also crucial in minimizing vertical transmission. Zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. Otherwise, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.
Finally, infant feeding is another important factor to consider. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed to minimize the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results are as follows:
TSH <0.05 mU/l
Free T4 25 pmol/l
What is the leading cause of this clinical presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Thyrotoxicosis is primarily caused by Graves’ disease in the UK, while the other conditions that can lead to thyrotoxicosis are relatively rare.
Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations
Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, postpartum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. Elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease are also at risk.
To diagnose thyrotoxicosis, doctors typically look for a decrease in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and an increase in T4 and T3 levels. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be present. Isotope scanning may be used to investigate further. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, highlighting the complexity of thyroid dysfunction. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should avoid iodinated contrast medium, as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over several weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl with eczema comes in with a bumpy, gooseflesh-like texture on her upper arms. She denies any itching or redness. What is the MOST SUITABLE course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine bloods
Explanation:Understanding Keratosis Pilaris
Keratosis pilaris is a prevalent skin condition that is characterised by small bumps on the skin. These bumps are caused by the buildup of keratin in the hair follicles, resulting in a rough, bumpy texture. While the condition can resolve on its own over time, there is no specific treatment that has been proven to be effective.
It is important to note that referral, blood tests, and topical antibacterials are not recommended for the treatment of keratosis pilaris. Instead, individuals with this condition may benefit from taking tepid showers instead of hot baths. This can help to prevent further irritation of the skin. With proper care and attention, individuals with keratosis pilaris can manage their symptoms and enjoy healthy, smooth skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents with a two month history of malaise and slight shortness of breath, together with tender erythematous lesions on the fronts of both shins. She is a non-smoker and drinks little alcohol.
On examination she has erythema nodosum on her shins and some minor wheeze and inspiratory crackles on auscultation of the chest. You arrange some spirometry tests, which reveal a mild restrictive defect.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Erythema Nodosum and Sarcoidosis: An Overview
Erythema nodosum is a type of inflammation that affects the fat tissue, commonly seen in adult females. It has a higher incidence rate in women, with a female to male ratio of up to three to one. On the other hand, sarcoidosis is a disease that affects multiple systems in the body, characterized by the formation of granulomas. It is more prevalent in adults aged 20-40, with acute cases more common in white patients and chronic cases more common in Afro-Caribbean patients.
Around 30% to 40% of erythema nodosum cases are associated with sarcoidosis. To confirm the diagnosis, chest x-ray, high-resolution CT, and transbronchial biopsy are the main investigations employed. Corticosteroids are the primary treatment for both erythema nodosum and sarcoidosis. With proper management, patients can achieve a good prognosis and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with fragile X syndrome and asthma attends his annual health check.
Which of the following characteristics is most commonly seen in an adult male with fragile X syndrome? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Explanation:Common Health Issues in Adults with Fragile X Syndrome
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder that can cause various health issues in affected individuals. Here are some common health issues that may be found in adult males with fragile X syndrome:
Mitral Valve Prolapse: This condition occurs in about 80% of adult males with fragile X syndrome and can also be associated with aortic-root dilatation. It is caused by connective-tissue disorders.
Gastro-oesophageal Reflux: While this is common among children with fragile X syndrome, it is less common in adults.
Infertility: Women with fragile X syndrome are more likely to have premature ovarian failure, but males with the condition are likely to have normal fertility.
Recurrent Otitis Media: This is a common issue that can cause hearing loss and worsen learning difficulties, but it is not the most likely feature to be found in adult males with fragile X syndrome.
Seizures: Seizures occur in 20-30% of males with fragile X syndrome, but they are less common in adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m2, having lost a significant amount of weight after undergoing gastric sleeve surgery a year ago. She is a non-smoker and has never been pregnant. Her blood pressure is 119/78 mmHg.
The patient is interested in long-acting reversible contraceptives but doesn't want a coil. She also wants a contraceptive that can be discontinued quickly if she decides to start a family.
What is the most suitable contraceptive option for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nexplanon implantable contraceptive
Explanation:Contraception for Obese Patients
Obesity can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism in women who take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Therefore, it is recommended that patients with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² should use the COCP with caution (UKMEC 2), while those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or higher should avoid it altogether (UKMEC 3). Additionally, the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be less effective in patients who weigh over 90kg.
It is important to note that all other methods of contraception have a UKMEC of 1, meaning they are considered safe for use in obese patients. However, patients who have undergone gastric sleeve/bypass/duodenal switch surgeries cannot use oral contraception, including emergency contraception, due to its lack of efficacy.
In summary, obese patients should be cautious when using the COCP and consider alternative methods of contraception. It is important to discuss contraceptive options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action based on individual needs and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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