00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and has been experiencing progressively worsening knee pain after exercising. She reports that her knee locks and she feels a painful popping sensation when extending it. She denies any recent injuries. Upon examination, there is slight swelling, tenderness on the inner side of the knee, and discomfort when flexing or extending the knee. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Patellar subluxation

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this young athlete is osteochondritis dissecans, which commonly affects children and young adults. Symptoms include knee pain after exercise, locking, and clunking. Further investigations such as X-ray and MRI are necessary, and referral to an orthopaedic specialist is required for management. While a medial collateral ligament sprain is possible, there is no history of an acute injury that could have caused it. Patellar subluxation is common in teenage girls but typically presents with giving-way episodes, which is not the case here. Patellar tendonitis, which is more common in teenage boys, presents with vague anterior knee pain that worsens with activities such as walking. However, the symptoms in this scenario are more consistent with a more serious diagnosis such as osteochondritis dissecans, including pain, swelling, and knee clunking.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.

      To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.

      Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the Intensive Care Unit after accidental drowning...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the Intensive Care Unit after accidental drowning in a lake. He was a swimmer who got into trouble and was underwater for approximately 10 minutes before being rescued. He was found unresponsive and not breathing, and bystanders immediately started performing CPR while waiting for emergency services. Upon arrival at the ICU, he is intubated and ventilated, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, pulse 130 bpm, oxygen saturations 85%, and temperature 33.2 °C.
      Under what circumstances is extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) considered as a treatment option for drowning patients?

      Your Answer: Haemodynamic instability

      Correct Answer: Persistent hypothermia from cold water drowning

      Explanation:

      When to Consider Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) for Drowning Patients

      Drowning can lead to respiratory compromise and persistent hypothermia, which may require advanced medical intervention. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) is a treatment option that can be considered for selected patients who have drowned. However, it is important to understand the indications for ECMO and when it may not be appropriate.

      ECMO may be considered in cases where conventional mechanical ventilation or high-frequency ventilation have failed to improve respiratory function. Additionally, there should be a reasonable probability of the patient recovering neurological function. Persistent hypothermia from cold water drowning is another indication for ECMO.

      On the other hand, altered level of consciousness alone is not an indication for ECMO. Patients who respond well to conventional mechanical ventilation or high-frequency ventilation may not require ECMO. Similarly, haemodynamic instability can be managed with inotropes and fluids, and ECMO should only be considered for patients who are resistant to conventional organ support.

      It is important to note that ECMO has a high complication rate, with a 15% risk of bleeding. Therefore, it should only be used in selected cases where the potential benefits outweigh the risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What substances or factors prevent osteoclast activity? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substances or factors prevent osteoclast activity?

      Your Answer: Estrogen

      Correct Answer: Calcitonin

      Explanation:

      The Role of Calcitonin in Bone Health

      Calcitonin is a peptide consisting of 32 amino acids that is derived from a larger prohormone. It is produced by the parafollicular or C cells in the thyroid gland and has a direct effect on osteoclasts. Calcitonin binds to receptors on the surface of osteoclasts, causing them to shrink and stop breaking down bone tissue. This process is important for maintaining bone health and preventing conditions such as osteoporosis. The peptide contains a single disulfide bond, which contributes to its stability and effectiveness. Overall, calcitonin plays a crucial role in regulating bone metabolism and maintaining skeletal integrity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have...

    Correct

    • At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have mild hypercalcaemia. He is anxious because the problem failed to resolve in his father, despite neck surgery. 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are low.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypercalcaemia Causes: A Comparison

      Hypercalcaemia can be caused by various conditions, including familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH), primary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcaemia of malignancy. To differentiate these causes, 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are measured.

      In FHH, urinary calcium excretion levels are low, while in primary hyperparathyroidism, they are elevated. Sarcoidosis can also cause hypercalcaemia, but with elevated urinary calcium excretion levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcaemia. Lastly, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is characterized by elevated urinary calcium excretion levels.

      Therefore, measuring 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels is crucial in determining the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A floppy 1-month-old infant presented with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A floppy 1-month-old infant presented with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood tests demonstrated hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Further tests confirmed metabolic acidosis and hypoglycaemia. The paediatrician noticed that the penis was enlarged and the scrotum pigmented. The child was treated with both a glucocorticoid and a mineralocorticoid.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of genetic conditions that affect the production of hormones and steroids from the adrenal glands. The most common cause is a deficiency in the enzyme 21-hydroxylase. This leads to overactivity of the steroid-producing cells and inadequate cortisol production, resulting in an excess of mineralocorticoids and androgens/oestrogens. Symptoms can include ambiguous genitalia at birth in females, hyperpigmentation and penile enlargement in males, and biochemical abnormalities such as hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Treatment involves hormone replacement therapy. Addisonian crisis is a potentially fatal episode caused by glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, usually occurring in adulthood and precipitated by stress. It presents with hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia and hypercalcaemia, and is managed with urgent administration of glucocorticoids. Conn syndrome is associated with primary hyperaldosteronism and presents with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. Cushing syndrome is due to cortisol excess and presents with weight gain, hypertension, oedema, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia and skin pigmentation. Thyrotoxic crisis is a life-threatening condition associated with excessive production of thyroid hormones, presenting with a range of symptoms including tachycardia, hypertension, fever, poor feeding, weight loss, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, seizures and coma. Prompt treatment is essential to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman who is 35 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 35 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department with fever, abdominal pain, and anxiety. She reports experiencing night sweats for the past few days and has a history of uterine fibroids. She has been sexually active throughout her pregnancy. During the examination, there is significant uterine tenderness and a foul-smelling brown vaginal discharge is observed. The patient's blood pressure is 134/93 mmHg, and her heart rate is 110 beats per minute. Her white blood cell count is 18.5 * 109/l. The fetal heart rate is 170 beats per minute. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroid red degeneration

      Correct Answer: Chorioamnionitis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest an infectious process, as evidenced by her fever, rapid heartbeat, and elevated levels of neutrophils (which are already higher than normal during pregnancy). Chorioamnionitis is a clinical diagnosis that may be indicated by uterine tenderness and a foul-smelling discharge, and the presence of a baseline fetal tachycardia supports this diagnosis. The likely cause of the infection is prolonged premature rupture of membranes. Although the patient has a history of uterine fibroids, this is not relevant to her current condition, as fibroids typically cause symptoms earlier in pregnancy. Acute placental abruption would cause sudden abdominal pain, which is not present in this case. While pyelonephritis is a possible differential diagnosis, the absence of dysuria makes it less likely.

      Understanding Chorioamnionitis

      Chorioamnionitis is a serious medical condition that can affect both the mother and the foetus during pregnancy. It is caused by a bacterial infection that affects the amniotic fluid, membranes, and placenta. This condition is considered a medical emergency and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. It is more likely to occur when the membranes rupture prematurely, but it can also happen when the membranes are still intact.

      Prompt delivery of the foetus is crucial in treating chorioamnionitis, and a cesarean section may be necessary. Intravenous antibiotics are also administered to help fight the infection. This condition affects up to 5% of all pregnancies, and it is important for pregnant women to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention immediately if they suspect they may have chorioamnionitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old man with end-stage liver disease is admitted with a painful, distended...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with end-stage liver disease is admitted with a painful, distended abdomen. Examination findings: generalised abdominal tenderness and ascites. Temperature 37.5 °C.
      Which intervention should be undertaken first?

      Your Answer: Therapeutic paracentesis

      Correct Answer: Diagnostic ascitic tap

      Explanation:

      Management of Ascites: Importance of Prompt Investigation and Treatment of Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

      Ascites is a common complication in patients with end-stage liver disease and poor synthetic function. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a serious complication that can occur in these patients, leading to a high mortality rate. Prompt investigation and treatment are crucial in managing ascites and preventing SBP.

      Diagnostic paracentesis tap should be performed promptly in any patient presenting with ascites, regardless of the time of day. A broad-spectrum antibiotic should be given immediately if there is a raised cell count consistent with SBP. Once SBP has been excluded or treated, therapeutic paracentesis may be considered for patients with large, tense, or resistant ascites.

      During a diagnostic tap, various investigations should be performed, including cell count, microscopy, culture and sensitivity, cytology, protein and albumin, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose, and amylase. Additional investigations may be indicated based on the patient’s condition.

      The most common cause of SBP is Escherichia coli, and oral ciprofloxacin or co-amoxiclav are recommended as first-line agents. Intravenous cephalosporins may be used if the patient is unwell. However, a diagnosis of SBP should be confirmed before starting treatment.

      First-line medical management of ascites is spironolactone, which achieves better clinical results than furosemide. Furosemide may be used in conjunction with spironolactone in resistant ascites or where potassium rises due to spironolactone.

      In summary, prompt investigation and treatment of ascites are crucial in managing SBP and preventing complications. A diagnostic paracentesis tap should be performed promptly, and appropriate investigations and treatment should be initiated based on the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of declining physical performance at...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of declining physical performance at work, accompanied by dysarthria and clumsiness. During the examination, he appears anemic and has hepatomegaly and Kayser-Fleischer rings in his cornea. He has a detectable liver edge. He denies excessive alcohol consumption and has no history of foreign travel, intravenous drug use, or unprotected sexual intercourse. His weekly alcohol intake is 0-2 units. He reports that his father passed away from a psychiatric illness in his mid-forties. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Liver Failure and Neurological Symptoms

      Wilson’s Disease, Alcohol Abuse, Hepatitis C Infection, Herpes Encephalitis, and Motor Neurone Disease are all potential diagnoses for a patient presenting with liver failure and neurological symptoms. Wilson’s Disease is a genetic disorder that can present in childhood or early adulthood with hepatic or neurological/psychiatric manifestations. Alcohol abuse can cause acute liver failure and hepatitis, but Kayser-Fleischer rings are not associated with it. Hepatitis C infection is spread through blood-to-blood contact and is unlikely in this patient without risk factors. Herpes encephalitis is a viral encephalitis that presents acutely with confusion and altered consciousness, but the patient had a subacute presentation. Motor neurone disease can cause muscle atrophy and weight loss, but does not explain the liver failure. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the correct diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You have just assisted with the normal vaginal delivery of a baby boy,...

    Correct

    • You have just assisted with the normal vaginal delivery of a baby boy, during the delivery there was a large amount of meconium. On observation of the baby just after the birth, what signs would indicate the need for the neonatal team to evaluate the baby?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate 75/minute

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with...

    Incorrect

    • A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain and has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0. Upon examination, the only notable finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation (AF). The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. Blood tests (thyroid function tests (TFTs), full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&Es), liver function tests (LFTs), and coagulation screen) are normal, and a chest X-ray (CXR) is unremarkable.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Trial of b-blocker (sotalol), give anticoagulation and review in 1 week

      Correct Answer: IV flecainide

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common arrhythmia that can lead to serious complications such as stroke and heart failure. When a patient presents with acute AF, it is important to determine the underlying cause and choose the appropriate treatment. Here are some treatment options for acute AF:

      Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation

      Initial investigation

      The patient should be investigated for any reversible causes of AF such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests and a chest X-ray should be performed to rule out any underlying conditions.

      Medical cardioversion

      If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who have presented within 48 hours of the onset of AF.

      Anticoagulation therapy

      If the patient remains in persistent AF for more than 48 hours, their CHA2DS2 VASc score should be calculated to determine the risk of emboli. If the score is high, anticoagulation therapy should be started.

      Trial of b-blocker

      Sotalol is often used in paroxysmal AF as a ‘pill in the pocket’ regimen. However, in acute first-time presentations without significant cardiac risk factors, cardioversion should be attempted first.

      Intravenous adenosine

      This treatment may transiently block the atrioventricular (AV) node and is commonly used in atrial flutter. However, it is not recommended for use in acute AF presentation in an otherwise well patient.

      In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for acute AF depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s risk factors. It is important to choose the right treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old woman attending Oncology has metastatic breast cancer with bony metastases in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman attending Oncology has metastatic breast cancer with bony metastases in her pelvis and femur. She has hip pain at rest, not relieved by paracetamol and naproxen.
      Which of the following analgesic options would be most specific for metastatic bone pain?

      Your Answer: Intravenous morphine sulfate

      Correct Answer: Intravenous ibandronate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Metastatic Bone Pain

      Metastatic bone pain can be a challenging symptom to manage in patients with advanced cancer. Here are some treatment options:

      Intravenous Ibandronate: This bisphosphonate is administered intravenously and is effective in controlling pain from bony metastases.

      Oral Gabapentin: Gabapentin is a medication used to treat neuropathic pain.

      Oral Oxycontin: Oxycontin is an opioid that can relieve pain, but it is not specific to metastatic bone pain.

      Oral Tramadol: Tramadol is an analgesic medication that can be taken orally, but according to NICE guidelines, ibandronic acid is the recommended treatment for metastatic bony pain.

      Intravenous Morphine Sulfate: Intravenous morphine is not the preferred medication in palliative care, as it can be difficult to obtain intravenous access in frail patients. Subcutaneous delivery may be an alternative option.

      Overall, the choice of treatment will depend on the individual patient’s needs and preferences, as well as the severity of their pain. A multidisciplinary approach involving healthcare professionals and the patient’s family can help to ensure that the patient receives the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man with acute myeloid leukemia is experiencing inadequate response to platelet...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with acute myeloid leukemia is experiencing inadequate response to platelet transfusions despite treatment. He is currently 2 weeks post-chemotherapy, without fever, and only minor bruising as a symptom. What would be the most appropriate course of action to manage his platelet refractoriness?

      Your Answer: Check for a one hour post platelet transfusion platelet count

      Explanation:

      Management of Refractory Platelet Transfusions

      Patients who do not respond to platelet transfusions should be evaluated to ensure that their platelet counts are increasing adequately. The best way to do this is by taking a blood sample one or two hours after the transfusion. If the patient’s platelet counts are still low, further investigation is necessary. However, it is not appropriate to request HLA-matched platelets or a directed platelet donation at this stage.

      Continuing to give random platelet transfusions is also not recommended. Platelets are necessary for the patient’s recovery, but it is important to determine why the transfusions are not working. Therefore, checking for HLA antibodies is the next step in the management of refractory platelet transfusions. Once the cause of the refractory response is identified, appropriate treatment can be initiated.

      In summary, managing refractory platelet transfusions involves evaluating the patient’s response to the transfusions, checking for HLA antibodies, and determining the underlying cause of the refractory response. Platelets are still necessary for the patient’s recovery, but it is important to address the underlying issue to ensure that the transfusions are effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You assess a 74-year-old male patient who comes to the clinic with deteriorating...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 74-year-old male patient who comes to the clinic with deteriorating heart failure. During the examination, you observe that his blood pressure is high at 152/90 mmHg. Additionally, his general practitioner has recently prescribed him regular diclofenac for joint pain. Can you identify one of the suggested ways in which NSAIDs cause the retention of salt and water?

      Your Answer: Direct elevation of plasma renin

      Correct Answer: Reduced aldosterone metabolism

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs and Aldosterone Metabolism

      Aldosterone is a hormone that regulates salt and water balance in the body. Studies have shown that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may interfere with the metabolism of aldosterone by inhibiting its glucuronidation, a crucial step in its breakdown. This can lead to increased levels of aldosterone, which in turn can cause the body to retain more salt and water.

      Contrary to popular belief, NSAIDs do not increase plasma renin levels, which is another hormone involved in regulating salt and water balance. In fact, evidence suggests that NSAIDs may actually reduce plasma renin levels. It is important to note that the effects of NSAIDs on aldosterone metabolism and plasma renin levels may vary depending on the individual and the specific NSAID used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man from a nursing home was brought in by ambulance to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man from a nursing home was brought in by ambulance to the Emergency Department feeling generally unwell. He was recently treated with amoxicillin for community acquired pneumonia by his GP. The nursing staff said yesterday he was complaining of some muscle pain and weakness and tiredness. He has been vomiting over the last few days. He has a past medical history of asthma, type II diabetes, gout, hypercholesterolaemia and osteoarthritis. Medication includes simvastatin, co-codamol, allopurinol, metformin and a salbutamol inhaler. On examination:
      Investigation Result Normal
      Respiratory rate (RR) 23 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Sats 96% on air 94–98%
      Blood pressure (BP) 126/68 mmHg <120/80 mmHg
      Heart rate (HR) 98 beats/min 60–100 beats/min
      Temperature 36.8ºC 36.1–37.2°C
      He is drowsy but nothing remarkable otherwise. An arterial blood gas (ABG) on air showed:
      Investigation Result Normal
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      pO2 12.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 5.5 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
      Bicarbonate 18 mmol/l 22–26 mmol/l
      BE 1.0 –2 +2
      What is the most likely cause of the above presentation and investigation results?

      Your Answer: Unresolved pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Analysis of Possible Causes for Metabolic Acidosis in an Elderly Patient

      The arterial blood gas (ABG) results of an elderly patient showed metabolic acidosis, which could be explained by several factors. One possible cause is metformin, a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal (GI) upset and lactic acidosis in patients with impaired renal function, which may be aggravated by dehydration caused by vomiting. Therefore, it is important to monitor renal function and fluid balance in patients taking metformin.

      Another medication that the patient is taking is simvastatin, a statin used to lower cholesterol levels. Although statins can cause rhabdomyolysis and myalgia, they are unlikely to cause metabolic acidosis. Therefore, simvastatin is not a likely cause for the ABG results.

      The patient’s history does not suggest unresolved pneumonia, which could cause respiratory acidosis or failure. Therefore, pneumonia is an unlikely cause for the ABG results.

      Allopurinol, a medication used to treat gout and kidney stones, is inconsistent with the presentation and ABG results. Therefore, allopurinol is an unlikely cause for the ABG results.

      Co-codamol, a combination of codeine and paracetamol, may cause drowsiness in elderly patients, but it is not likely to cause metabolic acidosis. Therefore, co-codamol is an unlikely cause for the ABG results.

      In summary, the most likely cause for the metabolic acidosis in the elderly patient is metformin, which should be monitored and adjusted accordingly. Other possible causes should be ruled out or addressed as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 82-year-old man experiences a mechanical fall resulting in a pertrochanteric hip fracture....

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old man experiences a mechanical fall resulting in a pertrochanteric hip fracture. The fracture is treated with a dynamic hip screw (DHS). The physiotherapist on the ward asks for clarification on the patient's weight bearing status.

      What guidance would you provide?

      Your Answer: Full weight bearing after 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Full weight bearing immediately post-op

      Explanation:

      Hip fracture surgery aims to enable immediate weight bearing to reduce complications associated with immobility. The BOA recommends unrestricted weight bearing to shorten hospital stays and improve patient compliance. The dynamic hip screw requires weight bearing for proper compression of the fracture site.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old woman presents at the one-stop breast clinic for triple assessment following...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents at the one-stop breast clinic for triple assessment following a suspicious lesion detected on a screening mammogram. You review recent blood tests from her GP and are asked to identify the most probable underlying cause of the abnormal result.

      Hb 121 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 242 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 10.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Calcium 2.6 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)

      Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)

      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      Amylase 203 U/L (70 - 300)

      Uric acid 0.46 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)

      Creatine kinase 1200 U/L (35 - 250)

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      The patient is suspected to have breast cancer based on her age and abnormal mammogram results. Additionally, her blood tests show an elevated creatinine kinase (CK) level. This combination of malignancy and raised CK suggests the possibility of polymyositis, a condition that is often associated with cancer. However, a thorough medical history should be obtained before making any definitive diagnosis. The patient may report experiencing muscle weakness and tenderness, particularly in the proximal areas such as the shoulders. It is unlikely that drug-induced factors are causing the raised CK, as there is no indication of this in the patient’s case. Myocardial infarction (MI) is another potential cause of elevated CK, but there is no evidence to suggest that this is the case here. Polymyalgia rheumatica may present with similar symptoms to polymyositis, but it does not typically cause a raised CK. Instead, it is associated with elevated inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP. Therefore, CK levels can be a useful tool in distinguishing between polymyalgia rheumatica and polymyositis.

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the underlying cause of primary hyperthyroidism associated with Graves' disease? ...

    Correct

    • What is the underlying cause of primary hyperthyroidism associated with Graves' disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-TSH receptor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Graves’ Disease

      Graves’ disease is a medical condition that is characterized by the presence of anti-TSH receptor antibodies that stimulate the thyroid gland. This results in hyperthyroidism and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland, also known as a goitre. Patients with Graves’ disease may also experience other symptoms such as exophthalmos, which is the protrusion of the eyes, lid retraction, lid lag, and ophthalmoplegia.

      It is important to note that Graves’ disease is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as vitiligo, Addison’s disease, and type 1 diabetes. This means that patients with Graves’ disease may be at a higher risk of developing these conditions as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old woman visits the Endocrine Clinic for monitoring of her type II...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits the Endocrine Clinic for monitoring of her type II diabetes. It is decided to initiate therapy with a glitazone.
      What is accurate regarding this medication?

      Your Answer: There is an association with lactic acidosis

      Correct Answer: The mechanism of action involves increasing levels of adiponectin

      Explanation:

      Glitazones are a group of medications that target insulin resistance by binding to peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma in adipocytes. This promotes the uptake of fatty acids and adipogenesis, while also increasing the production of adiponectin, a hormone secreted by adipocytes. By reducing the levels of fatty acids and lipids in the circulation, glitazones improve the patient’s sensitivity to insulin and reduce insulin resistance. However, there is a risk of lactic acidosis with metformin treatment. α-glucosidase inhibitors, such as acarbose, work by inhibiting the intestinal brush border and preventing the digestion of carbohydrates. Sulfonylureas, such as gliclazide and glimepiride, stimulate endogenous insulin release. Glitazones have a different mechanism of action than amylin, a polypeptide hormone that inhibits glucagon secretion, slows gastric emptying, and enhances satiety. Amylin analogues, such as pramlintide, are used in the treatment of diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - How does tranexamic acid work to treat menorrhagia? ...

    Incorrect

    • How does tranexamic acid work to treat menorrhagia?

      Your Answer: Promotes coagulation

      Correct Answer: Inhibits fibrinolysis

      Explanation:

      Plasminogen Activators and Tranexamic Acid in Menstrual Bleeding

      Women who experience heavy menstrual bleeding have been found to have an increase in the level of plasminogen activators. These activators are responsible for breaking down blood clots, which can lead to excessive bleeding. However, tranexamic acid, a medication commonly used to treat heavy menstrual bleeding, does not interfere with the clotting process itself. Instead, it works by preventing the breakdown of clots that have already formed, thereby reducing the amount of bleeding.

      In summary, plasminogen activators play a role in heavy menstrual bleeding by breaking down blood clots, while tranexamic acid works by preventing the breakdown of clots. these mechanisms can help healthcare providers choose the most effective treatment options for women experiencing heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with fever and a non-healing infected ulcer in his leg. He has a history of obesity and type 2 diabetes. He reports that his leg was extremely painful but now is no longer painful. On clinical examination, his temperature is 38.6 °C, heart rate 110 bpm and blood pressure 104/69 mmHg. Peripheral pulses are palpable on examining his legs. There is tense oedema, dusky blue/purple plaques and haemorrhagic bullae on his right leg, with an underlying venous ulcer. Palpation reveals crepitus. After taking blood cultures, treatment is commenced with intravenous (IV) antibiotics and fluids.
      What is the next and most important step in management?

      Your Answer: Surgical debridement in theatre

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Necrotising Fasciitis

      Necrotising fasciitis (NF) is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. Antimicrobial therapy and support alone have shown to have a mortality rate of almost 100%. The primary goal of surgical intervention is to remove all necrotic tissue until healthy, viable tissue is reached. This can be done through surgical debridement in theatre or bedside wound debridement by a plastic surgeon in an aseptic environment.

      Hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) treatment is believed to increase the bactericidal effects of neutrophils and can be useful in treating synergistic infections. However, access to HBO units with appropriate staffing and chambers large enough for intensive care patients is limited.

      IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) has shown potential benefits in group A streptococcal (GAS) infections, but further studies are needed to determine its exact benefits in NF.

      While X-ray, MRI, and CT scans can aid in the diagnosis of NF, surgical treatment should never be delayed for these tests. Immediate surgical intervention is crucial in treating this life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old male has been referred by his doctor due to experiencing severe...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male has been referred by his doctor due to experiencing severe bloody diarrhoea on and off for the past three months. After undergoing a barium enema, it was discovered that he has multiple ulcers and signs of inflammation that extend from his rectum to the mid transverse colon. A colonoscopy was performed and biopsies were taken from various sites, revealing acute and chronic inflammation that is limited to the mucosa. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Disease

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s disease are both types of inflammatory bowel disease that can cause bloody diarrhoea. However, UC is more likely to result in the passage of blood. The onset of UC usually begins in the distal part of the colon and progresses towards the proximal end. On the other hand, Crohn’s disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and can skip areas, resulting in disease occurring at different sites.

      Histologically, Crohn’s disease affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall, while UC typically only affects the mucosa. This means that Crohn’s disease can cause more severe damage to the bowel wall and lead to complications such as strictures and fistulas. In contrast, UC is more likely to cause inflammation and ulceration of the mucosa, which can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhoea.

      In summary, while both UC and Crohn’s disease can cause similar symptoms, there are important differences in their presentation and histological features. these differences is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tourette’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tourette’s Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Tourette’s syndrome is a neurological disorder that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. It is characterized by the presence of multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics, which may not occur concurrently. The vocal tics can be throat-clearing, grunting, or other sounds that are not complete words or phrases. In some cases, there may also be associated gestural echopraxia, which can be of an obscene nature.

      Schizophrenia, on the other hand, does not typically present with involuntary movements or tics. Conduct disorder is a mental disorder that is diagnosed before or after the age of 10 and is characterized by a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Malingering is the fabrication of symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, while dissocial personality disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others.

      Treatment options for Tourette’s syndrome include anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride, which have been shown to be effective. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Tourette’s syndrome to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency room unconscious with a long history...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency room unconscious with a long history of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations reveal elevated levels of sodium, potassium, urea, and glucose. What is the osmolality?

      Your Answer: 442

      Explanation:

      Understanding Plasma Osmolality and its Clinical Significance

      Plasma osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the blood and is an important indicator of a patient’s clinical state. To calculate plasma osmolality, the equation 2 [Na+ + K+] + [urea] + [glucose] is used. The normal osmolality of extracellular fluid is 280-290 mOsm/kg.

      A high plasma osmolality may indicate conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, caused by undiagnosed diabetes, or high blood ethanol, methanol, or ethylene glycol. On the other hand, low plasma osmolality may be caused by excess fluid intake, hyponatremia, SIADH, or paraneoplastic syndromes.

      It is important to identify the cause of abnormal plasma osmolality as it can help guide appropriate treatment. For example, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state requires urgent fluid resuscitation and insulin, while hyponatremia may require fluid restriction or medication to correct.

      Overall, understanding plasma osmolality and its clinical significance can aid in the diagnosis and management of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 66-year-old man is referred to the Elderly Medicine Clinic with a 6-month...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old man is referred to the Elderly Medicine Clinic with a 6-month history of changed behaviour. He has been hoarding newspapers and magazines around the house and refuses to change his clothes for weeks on end. His wife has noticed that he tells the same stories repeatedly, often just minutes apart. He has a new taste for potato crisps and has gained 4 kg in weight. On examination, his mini-mental state examination (MMSE) is 27/30.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Dementia and Their Characteristics

      Dementia is a term used to describe a group of symptoms that affect memory, thinking, and social abilities. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of characteristics. Here are some of the most common types of dementia and their features:

      1. Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)
      FTD is characterized by a lack of attention to personal hygiene, repetitive behavior, hoarding/criminal behavior, and new eating habits. Patients with FTD tend to perform well on cognitive tests, but may experience loss of fluency, lack of empathy, ignoring social etiquette, and loss of abstraction.

      2. Diogenes syndrome
      Diogenes syndrome, also known as senile squalor syndrome, is characterized by self-neglect, apathy, social withdrawal, and compulsive hoarding.

      3. Lewy body dementia
      Lewy body dementia is characterized by parkinsonism and visual hallucinations.

      4. Alzheimer’s dementia
      Alzheimer’s dementia shows progressive cognitive decline, including memory loss, difficulty with language, disorientation, and mood swings.

      5. Vascular dementia
      Vascular dementia is characterized by stepwise cognitive decline, usually with a history of vascular disease.

      Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristics can help with early detection and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her daughter because ‘she is acting...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her daughter because ‘she is acting wild again’. She drinks moderately about once a week. She is not sleeping much, talks incessantly about plans to travel the world and has made many impulsive and irrational purchases. She reports hearing voices but refuses to discuss this issue when questioned by the admitting psychiatrist. She begins a task but does not complete it, all the while making lists of things to be done. She has been starting tasks and not finishing them. She had a similar episode 3 years ago. She also has depressive episodes several times over the last few years and recovered in between them.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizoaffective disorder

      Correct Answer: Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychotic Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Psychotic disorders are a group of mental illnesses characterized by the presence of psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. However, differentiating between these disorders can be challenging. Here are some possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with manic and psychotic symptoms:

      Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both manic symptoms and mood-congruent psychotic features. The patient’s lack of insight is characteristic of either mania or psychosis. The need to get a history from a third party is typical. What distinguishes this from schizophrenia is that the patient appears to have a normal mood state.

      Substance-induced psychosis: The use of substances in this scenario is far too little to account for the patient’s symptoms, ruling out psychosis secondary to substance abuse.

      Schizophreniform disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms of schizophrenia of <6 months' duration. Schizophrenia, paranoid type: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms for >6 months and multiple psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, bizarre delusions, and social impairment.

      Schizoaffective disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both mood disorder and schizophrenic symptoms. However, the patient in this scenario is not expressing enough schizophrenic symptoms to establish a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder.

      In conclusion, accurate diagnosis of psychotic disorders requires careful evaluation of the patient’s symptoms, history, and social functioning. A thorough understanding of the differential diagnosis is essential for effective treatment and management of these complex conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old mother of a three-month-old baby visits the clinic with a concern...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old mother of a three-month-old baby visits the clinic with a concern of experiencing wrist pain for a week. The pain is located on the radial side of her wrist, and she feels tenderness over the radial styloid process. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing pain on the radial side of the wrist and tenderness over the radial styloid process, which is indicative of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition is caused by inflammation of the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons and is commonly seen in women aged 30-50 years old. Finkelstein’s test is positive, which involves grasping the patient’s thumb and abducting the hand to the ulnar side, resulting in pain over the radial styloid process. Carpal tunnel syndrome, osteoarthritis, radial nerve entrapment, and scaphoid fracture are unlikely causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 19-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner with a complaint of sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner with a complaint of sore eyes. He reports experiencing stickiness in his eyes upon waking up and a gritty sensation when he blinks. Dry eyes are not a concern. Upon examination, the only notable finding is slightly red eyelid margins. What is the most suitable treatment for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Topical chloramphenicol

      Correct Answer: Hot compresses

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for blepharitis is hot compresses. This is the most likely diagnosis for the patient, who is experiencing discomfort and grittiness in both eyes, along with redness of the eyelid margins and stickiness in the morning. While artificial tears may be used for dry eyes, this is not necessary in this case. Topical chloramphenicol is only necessary if there is secondary conjunctivitis present. Topical sodium cromoglicate is typically used for allergic conjunctivitis, which presents with itchiness and is often associated with hayfever.

      Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A patient presents to the Emergency Department after being assaulted. She tells you...

    Correct

    • A patient presents to the Emergency Department after being assaulted. She tells you that this occurred a few hours ago and she has taken several blows to the head. On examination, there is bruising around the eyes. Clear fluid can be seen discharging from her nose.
      Where is the patient’s pathology likely to be?

      Your Answer: Cribriform plate

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skull Fractures and their Symptoms

      Skull fractures can have varying symptoms depending on the location of the fracture. A fracture of the cribriform plate can result in periorbital ecchymosis and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from the nose. In such cases, nasogastric tubes or nasal airway adjuncts should be avoided to prevent the tube from entering the cranial cavity.

      Fractures of the occiput bone and middle cranial fossa can present with similar symptoms such as bruising around the mastoid process (‘battle sign’), haemotympanum, and otorrhoea. However, an occiput fracture may also cause CSF leak from the ear.

      Fractures of the frontal bone are likely to have a wound at the site of the fracture but are unlikely to cause CSF leak. Similarly, zygoma fractures are unlikely to cause CSF leak. Understanding the symptoms associated with different skull fractures can aid in their proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 57-year-old man is recovering on the medical ward after suffering from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is recovering on the medical ward after suffering from a pulmonary embolism. He has stage-5 chronic kidney disease and was considered a high bleeding risk, so unfractionated heparin was chosen as the safest anticoagulant. After 6 days of treatment, he developed a rash on his right arm that looks like a bruise, is red, and appears swollen. He also complains of itchiness. The diagnosis is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). What is the most appropriate management option for this patient's anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: Switch to low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

      Correct Answer: Switch to a direct thrombin inhibitor (argatroban)

      Explanation:

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is caused by auto-antibodies against heparin and platelet factor IV. It typically occurs 5-10 days into heparin treatment, resulting in blood clots and low platelets. Anticoagulation is still necessary, and a direct thrombin inhibitor like argatroban can be used. Reducing heparin dosage is not sufficient, and stopping heparin without starting another anticoagulant is not recommended. Switching to LMWH still poses a risk of auto-antibody formation, and warfarin is not ideal due to the patient’s bleeding risk.

      Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.

      Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which antibiotic is not affected by penicillinase? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antibiotic is not affected by penicillinase?

      Your Answer: Tazobactam

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Penicillinase and its effects on antibiotics

      Penicillinase is an enzyme produced by certain bacteria that can render penicillin ineffective, making it harder to treat bacterial infections. This is because penicillinase breaks down the amide bond in the beta-lactam ring of penicillin, destroying its antibacterial properties. However, there are penicillins that are resistant to penicillinase, such as flucloxacillin, dicloxacillin, nafcillin, and methicillin (which is rarely used nowadays).

      One way to combat penicillinase is by using a combination of clavulanic acid and amoxicillin, known as co-amoxiclav. While amoxicillin alone is not resistant to penicillinase, clavulanic acid is a penicillinase inhibitor. Therefore, when combined with amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav can still be effective even in the presence of penicillinase. the effects of penicillinase and the options for penicillinase-resistant antibiotics is crucial in the fight against bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (2/4) 50%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/2) 50%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Palliative Care (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/6) 0%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Neurosurgery (1/1) 100%
Passmed