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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lady has come to see you about a DEXA scan result.
You would like to start treatment with a bisphosphonate.
What specific advice should you give (and document) to this patient before starting treatment with a bisphosphonate?Your Answer: She should maintain good oral hygiene, receive routine dental check-ups, and report any oral symptoms
Correct Answer: She should lie down for at least 15 minutes after taking a tablet
Explanation:Risks and Precautions for Bisphosphonate Therapy
Patients who are prescribed bisphosphonates should take certain precautions to ensure their safety and minimize the risk of adverse effects. It is important to maintain good oral hygiene, receive regular dental check-ups, and report any oral symptoms. Additionally, any disturbances in calcium and mineral metabolism should be corrected before starting treatment, and serum-calcium concentration should be monitored during therapy.
Before starting bisphosphonate therapy, patients should be informed of the potential risks associated with the treatment. These risks are higher for patients receiving intravenous bisphosphonates in secondary care than those prescribed oral treatment by their family doctor. Atypical femoral fractures are a possible risk, and patients should be advised to report any thigh, hip, or groin pain during treatment. Osteonecrosis of the jaw is another potential risk, and patients should maintain good oral hygiene, receive routine dental check-ups, and report any oral symptoms. Finally, osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal is a rare but possible risk, and patients should be advised to report any ear pain, discharge from the ear, or ear infection during treatment with a bisphosphonate. By taking these precautions and being aware of the potential risks, patients can safely and effectively use bisphosphonate therapy to manage their conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who is concerned that she has another episode of tonsillitis. A locum sent a throat swab 3 days earlier, which is reported as showing a Group A streptococcus.
Select the single most appropriate management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 days penicillin V
Explanation:Throat Swabs and Antibiotic Treatment for Sore Throat
Throat swabs are not always reliable in differentiating between infection and carriage, and their results take up to 48 hours to be reported. However, they may be useful in high-risk groups to guide treatment choices in case of treatment failure. Symptomatic treatment and a delayed prescription may be reasonable options for sore throat, but after three days, a prescription for antibiotics may be necessary. Penicillin V is the recommended antibiotic for a 10-day course, while erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given for 5 days if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s condition and risk factors is necessary in determining the appropriate treatment for sore throat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy complains of abdominal pain that has been causing him to miss school for the past two months. What factor suggests an organic cause rather than a functional one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frequent diarrhoea
Explanation:Understanding Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children
Recurrent abdominal pain is a common issue among children that can disrupt their daily activities. It is often not accompanied by any organic pathology and tends to occur frequently, with at least three episodes in three months. The pain is usually located in the central abdomen and can be severe enough to affect the child’s activities.
While there are many possible organic causes for recurrent abdominal pain, diagnostic investigations are only recommended for children with alarm symptoms or signs. These include involuntary weight loss, slowing of linear growth, gastrointestinal blood loss, significant vomiting, chronic severe diarrhea or constipation, unexplained fever, pain localized away from the central abdomen, or a family history of inflammatory bowel disease.
It is important to note that persistent right-upper or right-lower-quadrant pain should raise more concern. Headache is more likely to occur in children with non-organic recurrent abdominal pain, and pain relieved by defecation is usually a feature of irritable bowel syndrome and doesn’t match the features in this scenario.
Recurrent abdominal pain can lead to increased functional impairment in everyday life, such as school absences. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the distinction between organic disease, functional disorders, and emotional factors to provide appropriate care for children experiencing this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You write a prescription for MST for a patient with metastatic breast cancer who is 65 years old. Later in the day, you receive a phone call from the local pharmacist. He has noticed that while you stated the total quantity to dispense in figures, you failed to write it in words. Of the following options, which one is most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The pharmacist may amend the prescription and add the total quantity in words
Explanation:In order to dispense medication, a pharmacist must ensure that all legally required information is provided. However, for Schedule 2 and 3 drugs, a pharmacist may make amendments to the prescription if it only specifies the total quantity in words or figures, or if there are minor typographical errors. These amendments must be permanent and clearly identifiable as the work of the pharmacist.
Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.
Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.
Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old Nigerian woman is undergoing treatment for TB.
Which of the following medications speeds up the metabolism of her combined oral contraceptive?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptomycin
Explanation:Tuberculosis Treatment and Pregnancy
When treating tuberculosis in women who are of childbearing age or pregnant, it is important to consider the potential effects of the medication on contraception and fetal development. Rifampicin, a commonly used medication for tuberculosis, can accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, making them less effective. Therefore, patients should be advised to use alternative forms of contraception while taking rifampicin.
If a pregnant woman develops tuberculosis, standard treatment with rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol should be given. However, streptomycin should be avoided as it may be ototoxic to the fetus. Quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, should also be avoided during pregnancy as they have been shown to cause arthropathy in animal studies.
Overall, it is important to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of tuberculosis treatment in pregnant women and to provide appropriate counseling and monitoring throughout the course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are helping a 29-year-old woman quit smoking. She has multiple medical conditions and takes various medications for them. Which of the following health issues would not prevent the prescription of bupropion (Zyban)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stable angina
Explanation:Although there is no concrete evidence to support this, it is recommended to avoid using bupropion during pregnancy. The BNF states that bupropion should not be used in cases of acute alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal, severe hepatic cirrhosis, CNS tumor, history of seizures, eating disorders, or bipolar disorder.
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 13-year-old girl who arrives at the paediatric emergency department with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. During the examination, she exhibits plastral wheezing when auscultated. Sophie's respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and her oxygen saturation level on air is 91%. Additionally, her peak flow is only 40% of her usual peak flow.
As per NICE guidelines, which of the above criteria indicates that Sophie's asthma exacerbation is life-threatening?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Saturations of 91%
Explanation:Assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children is crucial for effective management. The 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines provide criteria for assessing the severity of asthma in general practice. These criteria include measuring SpO2 levels, PEF (peak expiratory flow) rates, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other symptoms such as breathlessness, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
A severe asthma attack is characterized by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates between 33-50% of the best or predicted, being too breathless to talk or feed, and a high heart and respiratory rate. On the other hand, a life-threatening asthma attack is indicated by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates below 33% of the best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, use of accessory neck muscles, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with these criteria to ensure prompt and appropriate management of asthma attacks in children. Early recognition of the severity of an asthma attack can help prevent complications and reduce the risk of hospitalization or death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of small cell lung cancer and ischemic heart disease. His cancer was detected five months ago and he recently finished a round of chemotherapy. In terms of his heart health, he experienced a heart attack two years ago and underwent primary angioplasty with stent placement. He has not had any angina since then.
Over the past week, he has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, particularly at night, and has an occasional non-productive cough. He has also noticed that his wedding ring feels tight. Upon examination, his chest appears normal, but he does have distended neck veins and periorbital edema. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction
Explanation:Understanding Superior Vena Cava Obstruction
Superior vena cava obstruction is a medical emergency that occurs when the superior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, is compressed. This condition is commonly associated with lung cancer, but it can also be caused by other malignancies, aortic aneurysm, mediastinal fibrosis, goitre, and SVC thrombosis. The most common symptom of SVC obstruction is dyspnoea, but patients may also experience swelling of the face, neck, and arms, headache, visual disturbance, and pulseless jugular venous distension.
The management of SVC obstruction depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s individual circumstances. Endovascular stenting is often the preferred treatment to relieve symptoms, but certain malignancies may require radical chemotherapy or chemo-radiotherapy instead. Glucocorticoids may also be given, although the evidence supporting their use is weak. It is important to seek advice from an oncology team to determine the best course of action for each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents following a fall. She reports pain and weakness in her hands for several months, stiff legs and slurred speech and has bilateral wasting of the small muscles of her hands. Reflexes in the upper limbs are absent. Tongue atrophy and fasciculations are present and both legs show increased tone, pyramidal weakness and hyper-reflexia with extensor plantars. Pain and temperature sensation is impaired in the upper limbs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syringobulbia
Explanation:The patient is showing signs of a spinal cord lesion, with LMN signs in the arms and UMN signs in the legs. There is also a loss of thermal and pain sensation, indicating involvement of the spinothalamic tracts but not the posterior columns. This is typical of a syrinx, which is a fluid-filled hole in the spinal cord. The patient is experiencing dysesthetic pain in the hands, which is a common symptom of syringomyelia/syringobulbia. The presence of twelfth nerve atrophy and slurred speech indicates that the lesion extends into the brainstem, ruling out syringomyelia. Cervical spondylosis can produce similar symptoms, but there should also be neck pain. Motor neurone disease is unlikely due to the sensory involvement, and multiple sclerosis is not a likely explanation given the other clinical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis. What is the most common long-term complication for patients receiving haemodialysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Cardiovascular Disease and Other Complications in End-Stage Renal Disease Patients
End-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients are at high risk for cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Atherosclerosis is present in all long-term dialysis patients, and premature cardiac death occurs at a much higher rate than in the general population. Hypertension is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease and is often poorly controlled in ESRD patients.
In addition to cardiovascular disease, ESRD patients may also develop β2 microglobulin amyloidosis, which can cause physical handicaps and even life-threatening cervical spinal cord compression. This condition typically appears after 5 years or more of hemodialysis and can affect any joint, but is especially common in the sternoclavicular joint and hips. Clinical features include periarthritis of the shoulders, carpal tunnel syndrome, and spondyloarthropathy.
Kidney transplant recipients may also face complications, including an increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and skin cancers due to prolonged immunosuppressive therapy. However, there is no known increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy in patients on long-term dialysis.
Overall, ESRD patients require careful monitoring and management to prevent and address these potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being discharged on lithium at a dose of 400 mg daily after a prolonged period of inpatient treatment. You receive a discharge summary requesting that you continue her blood monitoring in primary care as long term lithium treatment is planned.
What would be the most suitable monitoring regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure renal function or thyroid function only if clinically indicated (for example, if intercurrent infection/dehydration or symptoms of hypothyroidism develop)
Explanation:Lithium Monitoring
Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic index, which means that it requires close monitoring. The dosage is adjusted to achieve a serum lithium concentration of 0.4-1 mmol/L. Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, ataxia, coarse tremor, nystagmus, dysarthria, and gastrointestinal disturbance (vomiting and diarrhea). Severe toxicity can lead to convulsions, renal failure, and circulatory failure. Therefore, serum lithium levels should be measured every three months on stabilised regimens.
Renal failure and hypothyroidism are potential side effects of lithium use. As such, renal and thyroid function should be measured six monthly on stabilised regimens. Patients should be informed of the symptoms of hypothyroidism and advised to seek medical review if these symptoms develop. It is also important to note that lithium should be prescribed by brand rather than generically because different lithium preparations vary widely in their bioavailability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is pregnant for the first time presents at 10 weeks gestation with an itchy erythematous papular rash on the flexures of her arms. She has been experiencing significant nausea for the past 4 weeks and vomits approximately every 3 days. She has no significant medical history.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atopic eruption of pregnancy
Explanation:The most common skin disorder found in pregnancy is atopic eruption of pregnancy, which usually starts in the first or second trimester. Patients often have a widespread eczematous eruption on the face, neck, and flexural areas. Other presentations include prurigo of pregnancy or pruritic folliculitis of pregnancy. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a vesicular autoimmune skin eruption associated with gluten sensitivity, while intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy presents with severe, intractable pruritus on the palms and soles in the third trimester. Pemphigoid gestationis is a rare condition that typically occurs later in pregnancy with urticarial lesions or papules around the umbilicus, and vesicles may also be present. The nausea and vomiting experienced during pregnancy are likely due to typical nausea and vomiting of pregnancy. Immunofluorescence shows deposition of IgA within the dermal papillae.
Understanding Atopic Eruption of Pregnancy
Atopic eruption of pregnancy (AEP) is a prevalent skin condition that occurs during pregnancy. It is characterized by a red, itchy rash that resembles eczema. Although it can be uncomfortable, AEP is not harmful to the mother or the baby. Fortunately, no specific treatment is required, and the rash usually disappears after delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You see a 28-year-old man who complains of painful mouth ulcers. He is in good health otherwise.
During the examination, you notice around 5 small and shallow aphthous ulcers on the inner lining of his mouth.
What is the accurate statement about aphthous mouth ulcers?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stopping smoking is a risk factor for aphthous mouth ulcers
Explanation:There are various factors that can contribute to the development of oral ulcers. These include smoking, deficiencies in iron, folic acid, or vitamin B12, and local trauma to the oral mucosa. Additionally, anxiety and exposure to certain foods such as chocolate, coffee, peanuts, and gluten products may also play a role. However, hormonal factors are not typically associated with the development of oral ulcers.
Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.
Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year old man with prostate cancer presents with gynaecomastia.
Which of the following treatments would explain this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radical prostatectomy
Explanation:Iatrogenic Causes of Gynaecomastia: The Role of Gonadorelin Injections
There are various iatrogenic causes of gynaecomastia that healthcare providers should consider when evaluating a patient with this condition. In this case, the culprit behind the breast enlargement is the gonadorelin injections.
Gonadorelin analogues initially stimulate the release of luteinising hormone (LH) by the pituitary gland. However, in the early stages of treatment, this can cause a tumour flare, which can lead to complications such as spinal cord compression and ureteric obstruction. To prevent this problem, an anti-androgen may be prescribed alongside the gonadorelin injections.
Once treatment is established, gonadorelin analogues produce a clinical picture similar to menopause in females and orchidectomy in males. This occurs as continued use results in hypogonadism due to negative feedback. Typical clinical features include hot flashes, sweating, sexual dysfunction, and gynaecomastia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly develops a painful red rash on her trunk that spreads to her face and limbs. The rash consists of macules, some of which resemble target lesions, and numerous flaccid bullae. Skin erosion is present in areas where the bullae have ruptured. She has conjunctivitis, crusted red lips, mouth ulcers, and dysuria. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug induced
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Serious Skin Reaction
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but serious skin reaction that can be fatal. It is considered to be part of a disease spectrum that includes erythema multiforme and toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, some experts believe that erythema multiforme should not be classified as part of the same spectrum as it is associated with infections while SJS and TEN are reactions to certain drugs.
The most common drugs implicated in SJS are sulphonamides, but other medications such as penicillins, antifungals, and anticonvulsants can also cause the reaction. Less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in SJS, compared to over 30% in TEN.
Management involves stopping the suspected causative drugs as soon as possible and immediate admission to an intensive care or burns unit. The prognosis is better if the drugs are stopped within 24 hours of bullae appearing.
Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome is a differential diagnosis that can be mistaken for SJS. It is caused by a bacterial infection and tends to occur in young children.
Herpes simplex virus can cause erythema multiforme, but this rash is not the same as SJS. Shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus, is another condition with a painful blistering rash that is confined to a dermatome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old woman with painful swollen metacarpo-phalangeal joints on both hands for the last three weeks presents in surgery.
What is the most appropriate investigation in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Explanation:Investigations for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis
When a patient is suspected to have rheumatoid arthritis, urgent referral to secondary care is necessary. While investigations may be carried out in primary care, they should not delay the referral process. The most appropriate investigation for this condition is rheumatoid factor, which is positive in 60-70% of people with rheumatoid arthritis. However, in this question, CRP or ESR are the most appropriate investigations for the initial acute phase. These are inflammatory markers that may support the clinical suspicion if elevated.
Other investigations, such as Antinuclear antibodies, HLA-B27 testing, plain radiograph, and total immunoglobulin E levels, are not useful in this case. ANAs may suggest connective tissue diseases, but they are not a useful test at this stage. HLA-B27 testing may be appropriate for reactive arthritis or ankylosing spondylitis, but these diseases do not present similarly to rheumatoid arthritis. Plain radiograph may be useful early in the course of the disease, but it is unlikely to be arranged by a general practitioner if urgent referral to secondary care has been made. Total immunoglobulin E levels are measured in allergic disease and are not relevant to rheumatoid arthritis.
Investigations for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis: What to Consider and What to Avoid
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Please provide an appropriate question to answer as part of a GP audit.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: What percentage of patients taking ACE inhibitors have their U&E checked in a year?
Explanation:Clinical Care Audit
A clinical care audit is a process that evaluates the performance of healthcare providers against specific guidelines on therapy. The aim is to determine if the care provided meets a pre-specified standard. For instance, a typical audit may assess if all patients taking ACE inhibitors have had at least a yearly U&E. The standard is set high, at around 90%+, and if not met, measures are implemented to improve performance. These measures may include adding reminders to GP prescription systems, education sessions on the use of ACE inhibitors, and more.
Closing the loop is an essential part of the audit process. This involves reassessing the percentage of clinical episodes that meet the audit standard to determine if improvements have been made. By conducting clinical care audits, healthcare providers can identify areas for improvement and implement measures to enhance the quality of care provided to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of haematospermia over the past few weeks. He denies any urinary symptoms or pain and reports no other unusual bleeding. He is generally healthy and not on any regular medications.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydial infection
Explanation:Causes of Haematospermia in a Young Adult
Haematospermia, the presence of blood in semen, can be a distressing symptom for men. In those under 40 years of age, infections are the most common cause, with sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as chlamydia being a likely culprit, especially in the absence of urinary symptoms. Haemophilia A, a genetic disorder that affects blood clotting, is unlikely to present with haematospermia as the first symptom, especially in a young adult. Malignant hypertension, a rare and severe form of high blood pressure, can cause end-organ damage but is an unusual cause of haematospermia. Prostate cancer, which is more common in older men, can also cause haematospermia, but is usually associated with urinary symptoms and erectile dysfunction. Prostatitis, an inflammation of the prostate gland, can cause haematospermia and other symptoms such as pain and fever, but is less common than UTIs or STIs. A thorough medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations can help identify the underlying cause of haematospermia and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been exposed to a case of meningitis and is prescribed a short course of rifampicin. She is currently using Nexplanon. What advice should be given?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nexplanon cannot be relied upon - suggest a Depo-Provera injection to cover
Explanation:To ensure reliable contraception, it is recommended to take a two-month course of Cerazette (desogestrel) as Nexplanon may not be dependable.
Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about measuring the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It doesn't need to be adjusted for different racial groups
Explanation:Understanding Renal Function: Estimating Glomerular Filtration Rate
Renal function is a crucial aspect of overall health, and it is typically measured by estimating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). There are various equations available to calculate GFR, but the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) creatinine equation is recommended by NICE. This equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and race.
It is important to note that laboratories often assume a standard body surface area, which can lead to inaccurate results in individuals with extreme muscle mass. For example, bodybuilders, amputees, and those with muscle wasting disorders may have an overestimated or underestimated GFR.
Additionally, certain factors can affect serum creatinine levels and thus impact the accuracy of eGFR results. For instance, consuming a cooked meat meal can temporarily increase serum creatinine concentration, leading to a falsely lowered eGFR. Conversely, strict and long-term vegetarians may have a reduced baseline eGFR.
If an eGFR result is less than 60 ml/min/1.73m2 in someone who has not been previously tested, it is recommended to confirm the result by repeating the test in two weeks.
Finally, it is worth noting that creatinine clearance is sometimes used as a rough measurement of GFR, but it has limitations. This method involves a 24-hour urine collection and a serum creatinine measurement during that time period. However, accurate urine collection can be challenging, and this method tends to overestimate GFR and is time-consuming.
Overall, understanding how to estimate GFR and interpret the results is crucial for assessing renal function and identifying potential health concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Coeliac disease screening should be conducted for all patients diagnosed with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Your patient, who has been discharged after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, is unsure if he has experienced a heart attack. Which statement from the list accurately describes non-ST elevation myocardial infarction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a risk of recurrent infarction in up to 10% in the first month
Explanation:Understanding Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI) and Unstable Angina
Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) is a condition that is diagnosed in patients with chest pain who have elevated troponin T levels without the typical ECG changes of acute MI, such as Q-waves and ST elevation. Instead, there may be persistent or transient ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion, flat T waves, pseudo-normalisation of T waves, or no ECG changes at all. On the other hand, unstable angina is diagnosed when there is chest pain but no rise in troponin levels.
Despite their differences, both NSTEMI and unstable angina are grouped together as acute coronary syndromes. In the acute phase, 5-10% of patients may experience death or re-infarction. Additionally, another 5-10% of patients may experience death due to recurrent myocardial infarction in the month after an acute episode.
To manage these patients, many units take an aggressive approach with early angiography and angioplasty. By understanding the differences between NSTEMI and unstable angina, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate and timely treatment to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A middle-aged couple attend clinic after the birth of their first grandchild and are worried about cot death as friends of theirs suffered a cot death.
Which of the following actions could you advise that would reduce the risk of cot death?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid co-sleeping with the baby in their bed
Explanation:Understanding Cot Death or Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
Cot death or sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is a tragic occurrence that affects approximately 50 out of 100,000 live births. It is a condition that is associated with several risk factors, including parental smoking, teenage pregnancy, inadequate prenatal care, laying the infant to sleep on their stomach, excess bedding, and low birth weight. Co-sleeping is also regarded as a risk factor for SIDS.
Contrary to popular belief, baby monitors do not reduce the incidence of cot death. However, Breastfeeding has been associated with a reduced incidence of SIDS. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of these risk factors and take necessary precautions to reduce the risk of SIDS. This includes placing the infant to sleep on their back, avoiding excess bedding, and ensuring a smoke-free environment. By understanding the risk factors and taking necessary precautions, we can work towards reducing the incidence of cot death and ensuring the safety of our infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presented to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks into her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
Patient
Haemoglobin
101 g/l (115–155 g/l )
Haematocrit
0.38 (0.35–0.55)
Red blood cell count
5.24 × 1012/l (3.8–5.8 × 1012/l)
Mean corpuscular volume
63 fl (76–98 fl)
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin
20 pg (27.0–32.0 pg)
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration
32 g/dl (32.0–36.0 g/dl)
White cell count
6.9 × 109/l (4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
Platelets
241 × 109/l (150–400 × 109/l)
Further testing reveals a fetal haemoglobin (HbF) of 0.6% (normal range < 1%) and haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) of 4.5% (normal range 1.5–3.5%).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta thalassaemia trait
Explanation:Understanding Beta Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differences from Other Blood Disorders
Beta thalassaemia trait is a genetic blood disorder that affects the production of beta globin, a protein that makes up part of the haemoglobin molecule. This condition is autosomal-recessive, meaning that it only occurs when both parents carry the gene mutation. Individuals with beta thalassaemia trait have a mild form of microcytic hypochromic anaemia, which can be detected through blood tests that show a normal red cell count and mean cell haemoglobin concentration, but an elevated level of haemoglobin A2.
It is important to distinguish beta thalassaemia trait from other blood disorders, such as acute folic acid deficiency, alpha thalassaemia trait, iron deficiency, and sickle cell anaemia. Acute folic acid deficiency typically occurs after tissue damage or renal failure, while alpha thalassaemia trait is caused by a deficiency in alpha globin production. Iron deficiency can coexist with beta thalassaemia trait, but cannot be diagnosed based on microcytosis alone. Sickle cell anaemia is a separate condition that involves homozygosity for the sickle cell haemoglobin mutation.
Diagnosis of beta thalassaemia trait requires measuring the alpha-beta chain synthesis ratio or performing genetic tests. While beta thalassaemia trait is usually asymptomatic and doesn’t cause problems during pregnancy, it is important to screen both partners to assess the risk of having a child with beta thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are requested to conduct a home visit for Edna, a 72-year-old woman, who reports sudden onset of dizziness that started four days ago. The dizziness has been constant since then and causes her to feel unsteady while walking. She has a medical history of migraines and rheumatoid arthritis but has never experienced similar episodes before. She consumes 21 units of alcohol per week and has never smoked.
During the examination, she can stand and walk but requires support from furniture. You attempt to perform a Romberg test, but she starts to sway as soon as she closes her eyes. Both tympanic membranes appear normal. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable except for marked nystagmus on vertical gaze. The rest of her neurological examination is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebrovascular accident
Explanation:When experiencing sudden dizziness, it can be challenging to determine if it is caused by a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). To differentiate between central (related to the central nervous system) and peripheral (related to the inner ear) causes of vertigo, doctors look for the presence of vertical nystagmus. If present, it indicates a central cause. Other signs of a central cause include the presence of other neurological symptoms and risk factors for CVAs. Labyrinthitis and benign paroxysmal positional vertigo are peripheral causes of vertigo that would cause lateral nystagmus. A space occupying lesion may cause central vertigo, but symptoms would likely have a more gradual onset. Vestibular migraines are a central cause that can cause vertical nystagmus, but the vertigo typically lasts for 4-72 hours, so the persistence of symptoms would not fit this diagnosis.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Whilst doing morning housecalls, you are phoned to visit the home of a 47-year-old man who is known to suffer from benign paroxysmal vertigo. The visit was requested by a relative on the basis of his ongoing dizziness but upon arrival, it becomes clear that he has sustained a head injury.
Whilst fixing a shelf in his garage, he became dizzy and fell to the ground.
Which of the following symptoms require immediate referral to the emergency ambulance services (i.e. 999) for emergency transportation to the emergency department?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bleeding from the nose
Explanation:NICE’s Guidance on Head Injury Management
A base of open or depressed skull fracture or penetrating head injury requires immediate referral to the emergency ambulance (999) service. Signs of a skull fracture that warrant referral to the emergency ambulance service include clear fluid running from the ears or nose, black eye with no associated damage around the eyes, bleeding from one or both ears, and bruising behind one or both ears.
On the other hand, a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver is simply consistent with benign positional paroxysmal vertigo. It is important to follow NICE’s guidance on head injury management to ensure prompt and appropriate care for patients with head injuries. Proper identification and referral of patients with skull fractures can prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl attends surgery with a febrile illness. Her mother tells you that she has been unwell for almost 24 hours and has been complaining of right-sided ear pain. The child is usually healthy with no significant past medical history.
On examination you find a temperature of 38.5°C and the right eardrum is red and bulging. The rest of the clinical examination is unremarkable.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advice on symptomatic treatment should be given with a delayed antibiotic script (antibiotic to be collected at parents' discretion after 72 hours if the child has not improved) as back up
Explanation:Middle Ear Infection Caused by Upper Respiratory Tract Infection
The bacteria responsible for an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) can travel up the eustachian tubes and cause an infection in the middle ear. This can lead to the tympanic membrane becoming retracted, making the handle and short process of the malleus more prominent. As pressure builds up in the middle ear, the eardrum may become distended and bulge outwards, accompanied by severe otalgia, systemic toxicity, fever, and tachycardia.
If the tympanic membrane perforates, severe pain followed by a sudden improvement is likely to occur. The raised pressure within the middle ear is the main cause of the severe pain, often accompanied by systemic symptoms. Once the tympanic membrane ruptures, the pressures will equalize, and the pain will decrease dramatically. For more information on acute otitis media, visit the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen.
Her spirometry shows an FEV1 of 42% predicted with an FEV1:FVC ratio of 64%. Her current treatment consists of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) used as required which was started when a clinical diagnosis was made two to three months ago prior to her having had the spirometry performed. A chest x Ray was normal and she gave up cigarettes a few weeks ago. Her home peak flow measurments show a 30% diurnal variation.
On reviewing her symptoms she needs to use the SABA at least four times a day and despite this still feels persistently breathless. In addition, she tells you that over the last few years she gets attacks of 'bronchitis' two to three times a year. You can see from her notes that she has received at least two courses of antibiotics each year for the last three years for acute episodes of productive cough and shortness of breath.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in her pharmacological management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in a LABA and ICS in a combination inhaler
Explanation:Management of COPD with Persistent Breathlessness
Patients with COPD who experience persistent breathlessness despite regular SABA use require additional inhaled treatment to improve symptom control and prevent exacerbations. Spirometry results confirming an obstructive picture, frequent exacerbations, and an FEV1 of less than 50% are useful in determining the next step in management.
The two options for add-on inhaled treatment are a LABA+ICS combination inhaler or a LAMA. The choice depends on the presence of asthmatic features, such as a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher eosinophil count, substantial variation on FEV1 over time, or a substantial diurnal variation in peak flow. If asthmatic features are present, a LABA & ICS combination inhaler is preferred.
Adding a regular ICS on its own has no role in the COPD treatment ladder, while a regular SAMA can be used instead of a SABA but is not an option for add-in treatment. Adding a LABA may improve symptoms, but the combination of ICS/LABA is more beneficial for patients with a history of frequent exacerbations.
In addition to inhaled treatment, it may be necessary to issue an emergency supply of antibiotics and oral steroids for patients with persistent breathlessness and frequent exacerbations. For more information on managing stable COPD, refer to the NICE Visual Summary guide and NICE NG115 guidelines.
Overall, the management of COPD with persistent breathlessness requires a tailored approach based on individual patient characteristics and the presence of asthmatic features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old patient is discharged from hospital following Covid-19 infection, during which time she was treated with tocilizumab.
Past medical history includes Chickenpox as a child and asthma.
What advice would you give this patient after receiving treatment with tocilizumab or sarilumab?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should seek immediate medical attention if she develops signs or symptoms of diverticulitis
Explanation:Important Information about Tocilizumab Treatment
Tocilizumab is a medication used to treat severe rheumatoid arthritis and Covid-19 infection. However, it can lower the immune system’s ability to fight infections, increasing the risk of new or worsened infections. Additionally, it can suppress the C-Reactive Protein response for up to three months, making it a less reliable marker of infection.
It is important for GPs to be aware of these points for patients who have been treated in the hospital. Patients may be at an increased risk of infections, and signs of infection may be reduced. Therefore, increased vigilance is advised for timely detection of serious infections. Tocilizumab and sarilumab can also increase the risk of bowel perforation in people with diverticular disease.
Patients who have received tocilizumab treatment should avoid live vaccines for three months post-dose. If they are VZV IgG negative, they should avoid contact with anyone showing signs or symptoms of Chickenpox or shingles and seek medical advice if inadvertent exposure occurs. Women of childbearing potential must use effective contraception for three months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes in with a swollen red finger and tenderness in his left armpit, one day after being bitten by his pet dog. What is the most effective treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Treatment of Infected Dog Bites
Dog bites have a 10% chance of becoming infected, with the most common organisms being anaerobic mouth flora and Pasteurella multocida. Capnocytophaga spp. and Streptococcus pyogenes are also possible. The recommended treatment is co-amoxiclav, which is effective against all likely organisms. Herpes simplex infection is rare in dog bites, but monkey bites can transmit the virus. Fungal infections in dogs do not typically infect bites, so fluconazole is not necessary. Flucloxacillin is ineffective against anaerobic bacteria, and metronidazole doesn’t cover aerobic Gram-negative organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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