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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is the theory that is linked to the idea of the 'internal working model'?
Your Answer: Piaget's theory of cognitive development
Correct Answer: Bowlby's attachment theory
Explanation:Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys
Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.
Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.
Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following examination findings is not consistent with chronic alcohol abuse?
Your Answer: Pretibial myxoedema
Explanation:Thyroid disease is typically linked with pretibial myxoedema.
Hepatomegaly
Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to hepatomegaly, which is an enlargement of the liver. This can be detected on physical examination by palpating the liver below the right ribcage. Hepatomegaly can also be associated with other signs of liver disease, such as jaundice, spider naevi, and caput medusa. It is important for psychiatrists to be aware of these physical findings in patients with alcohol use disorder, as they may indicate the need for further medical evaluation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following is an example of a non-fluent aphasia?
Your Answer: Broca's aphasia
Explanation:Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the name of the dural reflection that acts as a boundary between the cerebellum and the occipital lobes of the cerebrum?
Your Answer: Tentorium bulbus olfactorium
Correct Answer: Tentorium cerebelli
Explanation:Dura Mater
The dura mater is one of the three membranes, known as meninges, that cover the brain and spinal cord. It is the outermost and most fibrous layer, with the pia mater and arachnoid mater making up the remaining layers. The pia mater is the innermost layer.
The dura mater is folded at certain points, including the falx cerebri, which separates the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain, the tentorium cerebelli, which separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum, the falx cerebelli, which separates the cerebellar hemispheres, and the sellar diaphragm, which covers the pituitary gland and forms a roof over the hypophyseal fossa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 5
Correct
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What is the main producer of serotonin in the brain?
Your Answer: Raphe nuclei
Explanation:The pituitary gland is situated in the sella turcica, while the suprachiasmatic nucleus regulates circadian rhythms. Serotonin release in the brain is primarily sourced from the neurons of the raphe nuclei, which are located along the midline of the brainstem. The choroid plexus produces cerebrospinal fluid, and enterochromaffin cells in the gut contain the majority of the body’s serotonin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 6
Correct
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A concerned couple brings their 45-year-old daughter to her primary care physician due to her unusual behavior. What symptoms would indicate a diagnosis other than schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Early morning waking
Explanation:Severe depression is often characterized by early morning awakening, while schizophrenia is typically marked by primary delusions, thought withdrawal, ideas of reference, and auditory hallucinations (usually in the third person).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
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Question 7
Correct
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What is a true statement about lithium?
Your Answer: Lithium citrate is available in liquid form
Explanation:Both lithium carbonate and citrate are used for the treatment and prevention of various mental health conditions, including mania, bipolar disorder, recurrent depression, and aggressive of self-harming behavior. Lithium carbonate is available in tablet form, while lithium citrate is a liquid medication.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the structural model of the mind?
Your Answer: The ego is completely conscious
Correct Answer: The superego contains the ego ideal
Explanation:The superego encompasses the ‘ego ideal’, which embodies exemplary attitudes and conduct. One can liken the Superego to a moral compass of conscience.
Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind
According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 9
Correct
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You are conducting an annual medication review for a female patient in an outpatient clinic. While reviewing her ECG, you notice that her QTc value is 660 ms, which puts her at high risk for arrhythmia. You decide to seek cardiology advice and during the handover, the cardiologist asks for your opinion on which medication may be responsible for the QTc prolongation. Which medication do you think is likely to be the culprit in this case?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:While antipsychotics, tricyclic antidepressants, and citalopram are known to cause QTc prolongation and require ECG monitoring, they are not the only drugs that can cause this condition. However, in psychiatric practice, they are the most commonly prescribed drugs associated with QTc prolongation. It is important to note that clarithromycin is a high-risk drug for QTc prolongation, unlike the other drugs listed, which are considered low risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which statement about neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is incorrect?
Your Answer: It is usually caused by benzodiazepine use
Explanation:When apomorphine is withdrawn, it results in a decrease in dopamine activity in the brain, similar to the effect of starting an antipsychotic medication that blocks dopamine receptors.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyperreflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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What do studies indicate about the general population's perception of and ability to obtain mental health treatment?
Your Answer: When psychiatric care is readily available, many people prefer to avoid services for fear of being labelled as mentally ill
Explanation:According to various studies, anxiety is a highly treatable mental illness. However, there is a significant disparity in mental healthcare access between African-Americans and white people in the US, with African-Americans receiving treatment only half as often. A national survey in the US found that less than a third of people with mental illness received treatment, but this rate increased to 60% for those diagnosed with schizophrenia. In Germany, a public survey revealed that there is a misconception that psychiatric treatments are more effective for schizophrenia than depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
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Question 12
Correct
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Who is credited with creating the term 'catatonia'?
Your Answer: Kahlbaum
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Correct
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During your evaluation of a recently admitted patient, you observe that they are taking a high dosage of haloperidol. What other factor in their medical history would increase their risk for QTc prolongation?
Your Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:While certain factors in his medical history, such as smoking, may heighten the likelihood of a cardiac event, it is solely his bradycardia that is associated with QTc prolongation.
Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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Which statement is false regarding microglia?
Your Answer: They are neuronal cells
Explanation:Microglia serve as the immune cells of the central nervous system and perform functions similar to macrophages. When a microglial cell engulfs infectious material, it is referred to as a Gitter cell.
Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System
The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.
Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.
Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.
Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.
Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.
In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which condition is commonly linked to pronator drift?
Your Answer: Decreased tone
Correct Answer: Spasticity
Explanation:Spasticity is the correct answer as pronator drift is a sign of upper motor neuron lesions, while the other options are indicative of lower motor neuron lesions.
Understanding Pronator Drift in Neurological Examinations
Pronator drift is a neurological sign that is commonly observed during a medical examination. This sign is elicited by asking the patient to flex their arms forward at a 90-degree angle to the shoulders, supinate their forearms, close their eyes, and maintain the position. In a normal scenario, the position should remain unchanged. However, in some cases, one arm may be seen to pronate.
Pronator drift is typically caused by an upper motor neuron lesion. There are various underlying conditions that can lead to this type of lesion, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, and brain tumors. The presence of pronator drift can help healthcare professionals to identify the location and severity of the lesion, as well as to determine the appropriate course of treatment.
Overall, understanding pronator drift is an important aspect of neurological examinations. By recognizing this sign and its underlying causes, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and develop effective treatment plans for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which study involved individuals who were aware that effective treatment was available but were still not provided with it?
Your Answer: Beecher's study
Correct Answer: Tuskegee experiment
Explanation:Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 17
Correct
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A devoted mother has a son with autism. She spends every free moment researching the latest treatments and therapies, as well as the underlying neurological causes of his condition.
What defense mechanism is she exhibiting?Your Answer: Intellectualisation
Explanation:Intellectualisation involves disregarding the emotional aspect of a situation, such as a daughter’s severe illness, by concentrating solely on factual information and particulars. This behaviour is classified as a neurotic defence mechanism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dynamic Psychopathology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following is classified as a phenothiazine?
Your Answer: Pipotiazine
Explanation:Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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When do most children acquire the capacity to identify and utilize gender labels in their language?
Your Answer: 18-24 months
Explanation:Gender Development
Gender identity is the sense of oneself as male of female, which is different from a person’s assigned sex at birth. Gender dysphoria occurs when a person’s gender does not match their sex. Infants as young as 10 months old can form stereotypic associations between faces of women and men and gender-typed objects. By 18-24 months, most children can label gender groups and use gender labels in their speech. Children typically develop gender awareness of their own self around 18 months and declare a gender identity of male of female by age 5-6. It is normal for children to experiment with gender expression and roles. For the majority of pre-pubertal children, gender dysphoria does not persist into adolescence, with only a minority (15%) experiencing persistent gender dysphoria. (Levy, 1994; Martin, 2010; Steensma, 2011).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 20
Correct
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Which type of memory disturbance is linked to alcoholic blackouts?
Your Answer: Anterograde amnesia
Explanation:Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes
Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 21
Correct
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What is the most effective approach to managing narcolepsy?
Your Answer: Modafinil
Explanation:Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement
Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 22
Correct
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Who were the pioneers in publishing clinical reports that showcased the efficacy of chlorpromazine as a valuable medication for psychiatric treatment?
Your Answer: Delay and Deniker
Explanation:A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the most prevalent type of mental illness among male inmates in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Substance dependence in sentenced prisoners
Correct Answer: Personality disorder in remanded prisoners
Explanation:Mental health problems are prevalent among prisoners, with approximately 75% of them experiencing a mental disorder. Personality disorder is the most frequent type of mental disorder among prisoners, and those who are on remand have a higher likelihood of being diagnosed with a mental disorder compared to those who have been sentenced. The diagnosis rates for psychotic disorder, neurotic disorder, and drug dependence are 7 and 10, 40 and 59, and 43 and 51, respectively, for sentenced and remand prisoners.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 24
Correct
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A woman has a particular song that reminds her of an old boyfriend that broke up with her. Every time it is played she feels a deep sense of sadness. A classmate in her school often sings the song and the woman eventually finds herself feeling sad when she sees this classmate even when he no longer sings the song. This is an example of which of the following?
Your Answer: Higher order conditioning
Explanation:The original response is elicited by the song, which serves as the conditioned stimulus. Through higher order conditioning, the colleague becomes associated with the song and also elicits the original response.
When a response conditioned to a specific stimulus occurs in response to other stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus, this is known as stimulus generalisation. For instance, if someone experiences fear after being stung by a bee (CS), they may also feel fearful towards other small flying insects due to their similarity to the conditioned stimulus.
In the given scenario, the colleague is dissimilar to the song and therefore cannot be considered as a similar stimulus. Hence, higher order conditioning is the appropriate term to describe the process.Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.
Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 25
Correct
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What condition primarily impacts females?
Your Answer: Rett syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Conditions and Their Features
Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:
– Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
– Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
– Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
– Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
– Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
– Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
– Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
– Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
– Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
– Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
– Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
– Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
– Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
– Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
– Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
– Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
– Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
– Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
– Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
– Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following antidepressant medications is recognized for having a comparatively elevated level of toxicity in case of an overdose?
Your Answer: Phenelzine
Explanation:Toxicity in Overdose: Comparing MAOIs, SSRIs, Tricyclics, and Mirtazapine
When it comes to the risk of overdose, not all antidepressants are created equal. MAOIs (except for moclobemide) have a high toxicity level, with as little as 400 mg of phenelzine being potentially fatal. On the other hand, SSRIs are considered relatively safe in overdose. Tricyclics, except for lofepramine, have a higher risk of toxicity in overdose. However, lofepramine is relatively safe in overdose. Mirtazapine, while sedative, has a low risk of toxicity even in large doses, and may not produce any symptoms. It’s important to note that regardless of the perceived safety of a medication, any overdose should be taken seriously and medical attention should be sought immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which researcher proved that the capacity of short-term memory is restricted to seven chunks of data?
Your Answer: Atkinson and Shiffrin
Correct Answer: Ebbinghaus
Explanation:In 1913, Ebbinghaus found that short-term memory had a limit of seven (+/- two) ‘chunks’ of information, which was later supported by George Miller in 1956 and is now known as Miller’s law. Atkinson and Shiffrin proposed a two-part memory store, one for current information and one for long-term storage. Baddely and Hitch suggested replacing short-term memory with working memory, which includes central executive, articulatory (phonological) loop, and visuospatial scratch pad functions. According to Lloyd, less than one hundredth of the information sensed by humans reaches the short-term memory store. Solso proposed passive decay theory to explain the forgetting of long-term memory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Psychological Processes
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of the following is most strongly linked to delirium?
Your Answer: Pethidine
Explanation:Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences
Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.
Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.
According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).
Medications Linked to Mood Changes
The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:
– Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
– Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
– Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
– Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
– Antidepressants can precipitate mania.Medications Linked to Psychosis
The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:
– Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
– CorticosteroidsMedications Linked to Anxiety
The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:
– Stimulants
– β adrenergic inhalers -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 29
Correct
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What is the tool used to evaluate the intelligence of children?
Your Answer: WISC
Explanation:The WISC, a commonly utilized IQ assessment for children, consists of ten distinct evaluations that generate performance and verbal IQ scores, as well as an overall IQ score. NART, on the other hand, is a measure of premorbid IQ, while Rivermead assesses visual memory. WAIS is the adult version of the Wechsler intelligence scale, and the Wisconsin card sorting test evaluates executive function, specifically the frontal lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
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Question 30
Correct
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What is a true statement about the tau protein?
Your Answer: It is the main component of neurofibrillary tangles
Explanation:The defining feature of Lewy body dementia is the presence of alpha-synuclein protein clumps known as Lewy bodies.
Tau and Tauopathies
Tau proteins are essential for maintaining the stability of microtubules in neurons. Microtubules provide structural support to the cell and facilitate the transport of molecules within the cell. Tau proteins are predominantly found in the axons of neurons and are absent in dendrites. The gene that codes for tau protein is located on chromosome 17.
When tau proteins become hyperphosphorylated, they clump together, forming neurofibrillary tangles. This process leads to the disintegration of cells, which is a hallmark of several neurodegenerative disorders collectively known as tauopathies.
The major tauopathies include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia), progressive supranuclear palsy, and corticobasal degeneration. These disorders are characterized by the accumulation of tau protein in the brain, leading to the degeneration of neurons and cognitive decline. Understanding the role of tau proteins in these disorders is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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