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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old male presents to the emergency department with feverish symptoms and a...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male presents to the emergency department with feverish symptoms and a painful right knee. He had a Chlamydia trachomatis infection two weeks ago. His vital signs are as follows:
      Respiratory rate 17 breath/min
      Heart rate 84 beats/min
      Blood pressure 122/76 mmHg
      Temperature 37.3ºC
      Oxygen saturations 97% on room air
      What is the most likely finding in a synovial fluid sample taken from this patient's knee?

      Your Answer: Sterile synovial fluid with a high white blood cell count

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is synovial fluid that is sterile but has a high white blood cell count. The patient’s symptoms suggest reactive arthritis, which is a type of seronegative spondyloarthritis that typically affects the lower limbs and occurs after a gastrointestinal or urogenital infection. The condition is aseptic, meaning that no bacteria are present in the synovial fluid, but it can cause an increase in white blood cells, particularly polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Chlamydia trachomatis is an incorrect answer because while it may be the cause of reactive arthritis, the condition itself is aseptic. Staphylococcus aureus is also an incorrect answer because it is more commonly associated with septic arthritis, which is not suggested by the patient’s symptoms or test results. Negatively birefringent crystals are commonly seen in gout, while positively birefringent crystals are associated with calcium pyrophosphate deposition (pseudogout).

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.

      Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient is having an emergency laparotomy for a likely sigmoid perforation secondary...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is having an emergency laparotomy for a likely sigmoid perforation secondary to diverticular disease. She is 84, has known ischaemic heart disease under medical management, and was in new atrial fibrillation (AF) pre-operatively. You find that she has two quadrant peritonitis and despite fluid resuscitation her blood pressure is becoming low. You start Noradrenaline. She is going to intensive care unit (ICU) postoperatively.
      Which scoring system is generally used in this context to predict outcome?

      Your Answer: APACHE

      Correct Answer: P-POSSUM

      Explanation:

      Scoring Systems Used in Critical Care: An Overview

      In critical care, various scoring systems are used to assess patient outcomes and predict mortality and morbidity. The most commonly used systems include POSSUM, P-POSSUM, APACHE, SOFA, SAPS, and TISS.

      POSSUM (Physiological and Operative Severity Score for the enUmeration of Mortality and Morbidity) is a scoring system that utilizes surgical data to predict outcomes in emergency abdominal surgery. P-POSSUM is a modification of POSSUM that is more accurate in predicting outcomes.

      APACHE (Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation) is an ICU scoring system that is based on physiology. SOFA (Sequential Organ Failure Assessment) and SAPS (Simplified Acute Physiology Score) are also ICU scoring systems that are based on physiology.

      TISS (Therapeutic Intervention Scoring System) is a scoring system that measures patient interventions in the ICU. It is used to measure ICU workload and cost, rather than patient outcome.

      In critical care, these scoring systems are essential tools for assessing patient outcomes and predicting mortality and morbidity. Each system has its own strengths and limitations, and healthcare professionals must choose the most appropriate system for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      102.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man without significant medical history presents with a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man without significant medical history presents with a lump in his right groin that he noticed while showering. The lump has been present for two weeks and disappears when he lies down. He does not experience any discomfort, and there are no other gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, a small reducible swelling is found in the right groin, consistent with an inguinal hernia. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Advise no action as will probably improve with time

      Correct Answer: Routine referral for surgical repair

      Explanation:

      This patient has an inguinal hernia without any symptoms. Research suggests that conservative treatment is often ineffective as many patients eventually develop symptoms and require surgery. Therefore, most healthcare providers would recommend surgical repair, especially since the patient is in good health. It is important to note that inguinal hernias cannot heal on their own.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.

      The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.

      Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages and is afraid her husband will leave her. The patient gave the history of bruising even with minor injuries and several spontaneous miscarriages. On examination, the patient is noted to have a rash in a butterfly distribution on the nose and cheeks. Tests reveal 1+ proteinuria only.
      What is the most likely cause of her main concern?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APLS) and its Link to Recurrent Spontaneous Abortions

      When a young woman experiences multiple spontaneous abortions, it may indicate an underlying disorder. One possible cause is antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS), a hypercoagulable state with autoantibodies against phospholipid components. This disorder can lead to recurrent spontaneous abortions during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, and approximately 9% of APLS patients also have renal abnormalities.

      Other potential causes of recurrent spontaneous abortions include poorly controlled diabetes, nephritic syndrome, dermatomyositis, and anatomic defects like a bicornuate uterus. However, the examination and test results in this case suggest a systemic etiology, making APLS a strong possibility.

      Diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which can also cause nephritic or nephrotic syndrome, requires meeting at least 4 out of 11 criteria established by the American Rheumatism Association (ARA).

      Understanding these potential causes and their links to recurrent spontaneous abortions can help healthcare providers identify and treat underlying disorders in women of reproductive age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      32.7
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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing a strange episode. He appears confused and unable to provide a clear history, but his wife reports being awakened by him shaking around in bed. She notes that her husband has been complaining of headaches for the past five days and mentioned earlier today that his left hand felt weak. His vital signs are BP 128/85 mmHg, heart rate 82/min, temperature 39.5ºC, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, and respiratory rate 18/min. His blood glucose level is 5.6mmol/L, and his ECG is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brain abscess

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, headache, and a focal neurological deficit, such as arm weakness, suggests a brain abscess as the correct diagnosis. Additionally, the patient’s history of seizures supports this diagnosis. However, diagnosing a brain abscess can be challenging, as the classic triad of symptoms is only present in a minority of cases. Epilepsy is unlikely due to the presence of fever and arm weakness, and the absence of a seizure history. Hypoglycemia is not the correct answer as the patient’s blood glucose level is within the normal range. Meningitis is a key differential diagnosis, but it is less likely to cause focal neurological abnormalities and tends to present with reduced consciousness or confusion in addition to fever and headache.

      Understanding Brain Abscesses

      Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a considerable mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include dull and persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.

      To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered. Additionally, intracranial pressure management with dexamethasone may be necessary.

      Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options can help individuals seek medical help early and improve their chances of recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      102.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are creating guidelines to minimize the transmission of MRSA in a nursing...

    Correct

    • You are creating guidelines to minimize the transmission of MRSA in a nursing home.
      What approach is expected to be the most successful?

      Your Answer: Swabbing all elective patients pre-admission to detect MRSA carriage

      Explanation:

      Managing MRSA Carriage in Healthcare Settings

      MRSA carriage is a challenging issue to address in both patients and healthcare workers, often requiring prolonged treatment. Therefore, the best approach is to identify carriers as early as possible and isolate them. Hospitals have implemented a policy of MRSA swabbing upon admission to detect carriers and subject them to isolation procedures.

      Mupirocin is a medication used to eliminate nasal carriage of MRSA in healthcare workers. Patients who test positive for MRSA are isolated, while those who have recently undergone surgery are typically not isolated. Rifampicin is an oral therapy used to treat subcutaneous MRSA infections.

      In summary, managing MRSA carriage in healthcare settings involves early identification and isolation of carriers, as well as targeted treatment with medications like mupirocin and rifampicin. By implementing these measures, healthcare facilities can help prevent the spread of MRSA and protect both patients and staff.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.5
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after collapsing at home. She...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after collapsing at home. She has a medical history of COPD, recurrent urinary tract infections, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. Recently, she visited her general practitioner for a chest infection and was prescribed antibiotics and medications for symptom control. Additionally, she started taking medications for newly diagnosed hypertension. During her examination, there were no notable findings. However, her twelve lead ECG revealed a significantly prolonged QTc interval of 560ms. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of this ECG abnormality?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Macrolides have the potential to cause prolongation of the QT interval, which may have been a contributing factor to the marked QT interval prolongation observed in this patient following recent use of clarithromycin. Cyclizine, doxycycline, and lercanidipine are not known to affect the QT interval.

      Macrolides: Antibiotics that Inhibit Bacterial Protein Synthesis

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation, which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated.

      Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA. Adverse effects of macrolides include prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, with nausea being less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin. Cholestatic jaundice is also a potential risk, although using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which can cause interactions with other medications. For example, taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, macrolides are a useful class of antibiotics that can effectively treat bacterial infections. However, it is important to be aware of their potential adverse effects and interactions with other medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with a 2-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with a 2-month history of fatigue and difficulty concentrating. He experiences shortness of breath when walking short distances, which was not previously an issue. Upon examination, he appears pale and there are no notable findings in his cardiorespiratory or neurological exams. Blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 100 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160), Platelets 165* 109/L (150-400), WBC 4.2* 109/L (4.0-11.0), and a blood film with hypersegmented polymorphs. His Vitamin B12 level is 110 ng/L (>200) and his Folate level is 1.5 ng/mL (2-10). What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Folate replacement intramuscularly prior to B12 replacement

      Correct Answer: B12 replacement - intramuscular replacement

      Explanation:

      The management of vitamin B12 deficiency typically involves intramuscular replacement of B12, with a loading regimen followed by injections every 2-3 months. Patients with this deficiency may experience symptoms such as fatigue, poor concentration, and pallor, and blood tests may confirm the presence of anemia, low B12, low folate, and hypersegmented polymorphs on a blood film. In some cases, patients may also experience thrombocytopenia due to the role of B12 as a co-factor in bone marrow cell synthesis. While patients with neurological symptoms or who are pregnant should be urgently referred, this patient does not meet those criteria. Referral to haematology may be necessary if the patient has a suspected blood disorder or malignancy, fails to respond to treatment, or has a persistently high mean cell volume. Referral to gastroenterology may be necessary if the patient has a malabsorption syndrome, gastric cancer, or pernicious anemia with gastrointestinal symptoms. Intramuscular replacement of B12 is preferred over oral replacement, as per NICE guidelines, and should always be administered prior to folate replacement to avoid spinal cord degeneration.

      Understanding Pernicious Anaemia

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.

      The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.

      Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.

      Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      74.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the GP by concerned parents who have...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the GP by concerned parents who have noticed swelling of the foreskin during urination and inability to retract it. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage this condition?

      Your Answer: Referral to paediatric surgeons

      Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 6-months

      Explanation:

      Forcible retraction should be avoided in younger children with phimosis, as it can lead to scar formation. It is important to note that phimosis is normal in children under the age of 2 and typically resolves on its own over time. Therefore, there is no urgent need for referral to paediatrics or paediatric surgeons. While lubricant is not helpful in managing phimosis, topical steroids have been found to be beneficial.

      Phimosis in Children: When to Seek Treatment

      Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted. In children under two years old, this may be a normal physiological process that will resolve on its own. The British Association of Paediatric Urologists recommends an expectant approach in such cases, as forcible retraction can lead to scarring. However, personal hygiene is important to prevent infections. If the child is over two years old and experiences recurrent balanoposthitis or urinary tract infections, treatment can be considered.

      It is important to note that parents should not attempt to forcibly retract the foreskin in young children. This can cause pain and scarring, and may not even be necessary. Instead, parents should focus on teaching their child good hygiene habits to prevent infections. If the child is experiencing recurrent infections or other symptoms, it may be time to seek medical treatment. By following these guidelines, parents can help their child manage phimosis and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      27.1
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  • Question 10 - A 23-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of low back pain and...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of low back pain and stiffness that has persisted for over 3 months. He denies any history of injury. The patient reports that his symptoms are worse in the morning but improve with exercise. Routine blood tests were normal except for an ESR of 30 mm/hour (normal range: 0-15) and a CRP of 15 mg/L (normal range: <10). A plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints reveals erosions, sclerosis, and joint space widening, leading to a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis. What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Exercise and NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is primarily managed through exercise and NSAIDs. NSAIDs are effective in relieving symptoms and preventing functional limitations, while regular exercise, including postural training, range of motion exercises, stretching, and recreational activities like swimming, can help reduce and prevent functional limitations.

      To measure disease activity, the Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Score (ASDAS) is used, which categorizes disease activity as inactive, low, high, or very high. If a patient has persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments with NSAIDs, anti-tumor necrosis factor (TNF) therapy may be considered. However, the disease activity must be at least high (≥2.1) on ASDAS to warrant biologic therapy.

      Glucocorticoids are not recommended for patients with ankylosing spondylitis. Methotrexate may be prescribed if conventional treatment with NSAIDs does not control symptoms, specifically for persistent peripheral arthritis.

      In severe cases where the disease has progressed, surgery may be necessary. Hip and spine surgery may be beneficial for select patients with persistent pain or severe limitation in mobility, neurologic impairment, or severe flexion deformities.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 7 week old baby girl is brought to the clinic by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 week old baby girl is brought to the clinic by her father. He is worried because although the left testis is present in the scrotum the right testis is absent. He reports that it is sometimes palpable when he bathes the child. On examination the right testis is palpable at the level of the superficial inguinal ring. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Re-assess in 5 years

      Correct Answer: Re-assess in 6 months

      Explanation:

      At 3 months of age, children may have retractile testes which can be monitored without intervention.

      Cryptorchidism is a condition where a testis fails to descend into the scrotum by the age of 3 months. It is a congenital defect that affects up to 5% of male infants at birth, but the incidence decreases to 1-2% by the age of 3 months. The cause of cryptorchidism is mostly unknown, but it can be associated with other congenital defects such as abnormal epididymis, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, Wilms tumour, and abdominal wall defects. Retractile testes and intersex conditions are differential diagnoses that need to be considered.

      It is important to correct cryptorchidism to reduce the risk of infertility, allow for examination of the testes for testicular cancer, avoid testicular torsion, and improve cosmetic appearance. Males with undescended testes are at a higher risk of developing testicular cancer, particularly if the testis is intra-abdominal. Orchidopexy, which involves mobilisation of the testis and implantation into a dartos pouch, is the preferred treatment for cryptorchidism between 6-18 months of age. Intra-abdominal testes require laparoscopic evaluation and mobilisation, which may be a single or two-stage procedure depending on the location. If left untreated, the Sertoli cells will degrade after the age of 2 years, and orchidectomy may be necessary in late teenage years to avoid the risk of malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old patient presents with an upper limb nerve injury. The patient reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with an upper limb nerve injury. The patient reports weak finger abduction and adduction with reduced sensation over the ulnar border of the hand. Clawing of the 4th and 5th digits is observed during examination. The patient experiences worsening of this deformity during recovery before eventually resolving. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Damage to ulnar nerve at the wrist

      Correct Answer: Damage to ulnar nerve at the elbow

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.

      Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      158.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden paralysis in their right leg and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden paralysis in their right leg and left arm, four weeks after being involved in a car accident. Despite being discharged from the hospital without injuries, they woke up this morning unable to move these limbs. There is no pain, but the paralysis is causing significant distress. On examination, there are no visible injuries, normal tone, and intact sensation in all four limbs. All reflexes are normal, but power in the affected limbs is MRC 0/5, while the contralateral limbs are MRC 5/5. Hoover's sign is positive on the affected leg, and there are no abnormalities in the cranial nerve exam. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Correct Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      Conversion disorder is a condition that typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function and may be triggered by stress. In this case, the patient has experienced a stressful accident and is now exhibiting functional paralysis, without voluntary movement but some involuntary movements due to reflexes and a positive Hoover’s sign. This sign indicates that the unaffected leg is compensating for the affected leg’s lack of movement by contracting synergistically.

      It is unlikely that the patient is suffering from factitious disorder, which involves feigning symptoms to gain attention from healthcare professionals. This is because the neurological symptoms and the recent stressful event suggest conversion disorder, and the presence of Hoover’s sign is not consistent with feigned paralysis.

      Lacunar strokes, which cause paralysis on one side with contralateral sensory loss, would not present with this pattern of paralysis and would not be delayed in onset after the accident. Malingering, or faking symptoms for personal gain, is also unlikely at this stage.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      37.9
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  • Question 14 - Which structure, containing both white and red pulp, is responsible for trapping foreign...

    Correct

    • Which structure, containing both white and red pulp, is responsible for trapping foreign substances present in the blood?

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Lymphoid Organs and Non-Lymphoid Organs

      The human body contains various organs that serve different functions. Among these are the lymphoid organs, which play a crucial role in the immune system. In this article, we will compare the characteristics of three lymphoid organs (spleen, lymph node, and thymus) with two non-lymphoid organs (heart and thyroid gland).

      Spleen
      The spleen is the largest secondary lymphoid organ. It is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen and contains both white pulp (lymphatic tissue and macrophages) and red pulp (sinusoids and red blood cells). One of its functions is to filter foreign substances from the blood.

      Lymph Node
      Lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid organs that contain structures where mature lymphocytes are stimulated by antigens to undergo further division and differentiation. They do not contain white and red pulp.

      Thymus
      The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ where T lymphocytes mature, differentiate, and proliferate. It does not contain white and red pulp.

      Heart
      The heart is the main organ of the circulatory system and does not contain white and red pulp.

      Thyroid Gland
      The thyroid gland is located in the anterior neck and is part of the endocrine system. It does not contain white and red pulp.

      In summary, lymphoid organs play a crucial role in the immune system, while non-lymphoid organs serve other functions. Understanding the characteristics of these organs can help us appreciate the complexity and diversity of the human body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      18
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  • Question 15 - A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The attack caused an oblique fracture in the middle of the humerus.
      Which nerve is most likely to be damaged during a midshaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and runs alongside the deep brachial artery in the spiral groove of the humeral shaft. It is susceptible to damage during midshaft humeral fractures, resulting in loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the hand and weakness in wrist extension. The ulnar nerve is located medially to the radial nerve and is not typically affected by midshaft humeral fractures. However, it can be injured by a fracture of the medial epicondyle, resulting in weakness in wrist flexion and loss of adduction and sensation in the medial aspect of the hand. The axillary nerve branches closer to the shoulder and is prone to injury with shoulder dislocation, causing weakness in the deltoid muscle. The median nerve is not located near the midshaft of the humerus but can be injured in various ways, resulting in sensory and motor deficits. The musculocutaneous nerve passes over the brachialis muscle and can be affected by entrapment or upper brachial plexus injury, causing weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination and sensory loss on the radial aspect of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      193.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old woman is visited by her general practitioner and found to be...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is visited by her general practitioner and found to be suffering from constipation. This began after she was started on a new medication. She suffers from ischaemic heart disease, osteoarthritis, atrial fibrillation and moderate depression.
      Which drug is most likely to have resulted in this woman’s symptoms?

      Your Answer: Codeine phosphate

      Explanation:

      Codeine phosphate and dihydrocodeine are drugs that activate the μ opioid receptor and are commonly used to alleviate moderate pain. Codeine can also be used as a cough suppressant, but it should be avoided in cases of acute infective diarrhea and ulcerative colitis. Long-term use in the elderly is not recommended due to its constipating effects and potential contribution to delirium. Co-prescribing with a laxative is advisable for those at risk. Digoxin, on the other hand, does not cause constipation but may lead to arrhythmias, blurred vision, conduction disturbances, diarrhea, dizziness, eosinophilia, nausea, rash, vomiting, and yellow vision. Carvedilol and atenolol are beta blockers that are not commonly associated with constipation. While atenolol may cause gastrointestinal disturbances, its side-effects are not well documented. Paroxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, is used to treat anxiety and major depression. It may cause constipation and abdominal pain, but its side-effects are dose-dependent, and in this case, codeine is more likely to be the cause of constipation than paroxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain. She is currently receiving peritoneal dialysis, and the physician suspects that she may be suffering from peritonitis.
      What is the most indicative sign or symptom of peritonitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduced abdominal wall rigidity

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Peritonitis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Peritonitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the serosa that lines the abdominal cavity and viscera. It is commonly caused by the introduction of an infective organism, perforation of an abdominal organ, trauma, or collection formation. Patients may also present with sterile peritonitis due to irritants such as bile or blood. Risk factors include existing ascites, liver disease, or peritoneal dialysis.

      Symptoms of peritonitis include abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, with reduced or absent bowel sounds. Movement and coughing can worsen pain symptoms. Patients may have a fever and become tachycardic as the condition progresses due to intracapsular hypovolemia, release of inflammatory mediators, and third space losses. As the condition worsens, patients may become hypotensive, indicating signs of sepsis.

      Treatment for peritonitis involves rapid identification and treatment of the source, aggressive fluid resuscitation, and targeted antibiotic therapy.

      It is important to note that hyperactive tinkling bowel sounds are suggestive of obstruction, whereas patients with peritonitis typically present with a rigid abdomen and increased abdominal guarding. Pain tends to worsen with movement, as opposed to conditions such as renal colic where the patient may writhe around in pain.

      In severe cases, patients with peritonitis may become hypothermic, but this is not a common presentation. Understanding the symptoms and treatment of peritonitis is crucial for prompt and effective management of this serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      41.1
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  • Question 18 - A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of vomiting and abdominal pain. He has a medical history of heart failure and COPD. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 105/72 mmHg, pulse 94 bpm, respiratory rate 14/min, and temperature 36.9 deg C. His initial blood tests reveal hyponatremia with a sodium level of 123 mmol/L (135 - 145). What is the best approach to manage this patient's hyponatremia?

      Your Answer: IV 3% sodium chloride

      Correct Answer: IV isotonic normal saline

      Explanation:

      Hypertonic saline is not the appropriate treatment for this patient as they do not have acute severe hyponatraemia with symptoms.

      Treating Hyponatremia: Factors to Consider

      Hyponatremia, if left untreated, can lead to cerebral edema and brain herniation. Therefore, it is crucial to identify and treat it promptly. However, the management of hyponatremia is complex and depends on several factors. These include the duration and severity of hyponatremia, the patient’s symptoms, and the suspected cause of hyponatremia. Over-rapid correction can also result in osmotic demyelination syndrome, which can cause irreversible symptoms.

      In all patients, initial steps include ruling out a spurious result and reviewing medications that may cause hyponatremia. For chronic hyponatremia without severe symptoms, the treatment approach depends on the suspected cause. If hypovolemic, normal saline may be given as a trial. If euvolemic, fluid restriction and medications such as demeclocycline or vaptans may be considered. If hypervolemic, fluid restriction and loop diuretics or vaptans may be used.

      For acute hyponatremia with severe symptoms, patients require close monitoring and may need hypertonic saline to correct the sodium level more quickly. However, over-correction can lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome, which can cause irreversible symptoms.

      Vasopressin/ADH receptor antagonists (vaptans) can be used in some cases but should be avoided in patients with hypovolemic hyponatremia and those with underlying liver disease. They can also stimulate thirst receptors, leading to the desire to drink free water.

      Overall, treating hyponatremia requires careful consideration of various factors to avoid complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      39.5
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old new mum is seen by the midwife three days post-giving birth....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old new mum is seen by the midwife three days post-giving birth. She is tearful, has lost her appetite and worries she is a bad mother. Her midwife reassures her that this is most likely postpartum blues or ‘baby blues’.
      What is the incidence of this condition in new mothers?

      Your Answer: 50-75%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders: From Baby Blues to Postpartum Psychosis

      Postpartum mood disorders are common among new mothers, but they can range from mild and transient to severe and potentially life-threatening. The most common form of postpartum mood disorder is postpartum blues, which affects an estimated 50-75% of mothers in the days following childbirth. Symptoms include crying, fatigue, anxiety, irritability, and labile mood, and typically last from hours to a few days. Postpartum blues is thought to be caused by hormonal changes in the body after labor and can be managed with supportive, non-pharmacological measures.

      Postpartum depression is a more serious condition that can occur up to a year after birth and affects 10-15% of pregnancies. It is similar to major depression and requires screening by midwives and at the 6-week postnatal check. The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) is a screening questionnaire used to identify women with postnatal depression, and it is important to follow up with mothers who may be depressed on a regular basis.

      Postpartum psychosis is a rare but very serious mental health condition that usually develops in the days or weeks following childbirth and affects 0.1-0.5% of mothers. Symptoms may include mania, severe depression, hallucinations, abnormal behavior, and delusions. It is a medical emergency and typically requires inpatient psychiatric treatment.

      Understanding the different types of postpartum mood disorders and their symptoms is crucial for healthcare providers to provide appropriate support and treatment for new mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      31.8
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  • Question 20 - A 62-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) for his routine diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) for his routine diabetes assessment. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes one month ago. He also has a history of hypertension, obesity and hyperlipidaemia and smoking. He was recently commenced on metformin, ramipril, atorvastatin and aspirin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. The following laboratory results are obtained:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Glucose 8 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Urea 5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient’s hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and recheck in one week

      Explanation:

      Managing Mild Hyperkalaemia in Primary Care

      Mild hyperkalaemia, with potassium levels between 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, can be managed in primary care with a review of medication and diet, as well as regular monitoring of serum potassium levels. In cases where the hyperkalaemia is likely secondary to ACE inhibitor therapy, it is recommended to discontinue the medication and recheck potassium levels in one week. Renal function should also be monitored before and after starting ACE inhibitor/ARB treatment.

      In contrast, metformin does not usually cause hyperkalaemia and should not be discontinued unless there are other underlying causes of elevated lactate levels. Hospital admission and administration of IV insulin and dextrose or bicarbonate are not necessary for mild hyperkalaemia with normal renal function and a normal ECG.

      Adding a loop diuretic is also not recommended as the treatment for mild hyperkalaemia is to stop the offending agent and recheck potassium levels. It is important to manage mild hyperkalaemia appropriately to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      161.8
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of a painful lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of a painful lump on the border of her left eyelid. She has no medical history and is generally healthy. Upon examination, a small abscess filled with pus is observed in the area. Her visual field is unaffected. What treatment should be recommended for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral antibiotics and review again in three days

      Correct Answer: Regular warm steaming or soaking with a warm flannel

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to use regular warm steaming as the initial treatment for a stye. This is the most appropriate course of action based on the given information. Other treatments mentioned are not necessary for this particular condition. Styes are commonly caused by staphylococcus bacteria.

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.

      Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21.2
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  • Question 22 - Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a burning...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a burning pain on the outer part of her left knee. The pain is felt during movement and she has not observed any swelling of the knee. There is no history of injury and no locking of the knee joint. Samantha is a long-distance runner and is preparing for a marathon. During examination, there is tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. She has a good range of motion of her knee joint. However, a snapping sensation is noticed on the lateral aspect of the knee when her joint is repeatedly flexed and extended. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meniscal tear

      Correct Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lateral knee pain in runners is often caused by iliotibial band syndrome. This condition can result in a sharp or burning sensation around the knee joint line. Meniscal tears, on the other hand, can cause joint locking, pain, and swelling. Patellofemoral syndrome may lead to knee cap pain that worsens with stair climbing and prolonged use. Meanwhile, rheumatoid arthritis usually affects the small joints in the hands and feet initially, causing stiffness, pain, and swelling in other joints as well.

      Understanding Iliotibial Band Syndrome

      Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent condition that causes lateral knee pain in runners. It affects approximately 10% of people who engage in regular running. The condition is characterized by tenderness 2-3 cm above the lateral joint line.

      To manage iliotibial band syndrome, activity modification and iliotibial band stretches are recommended. These measures can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, it is advisable to seek physiotherapy referral for further assessment and treatment.

      In summary, iliotibial band syndrome is a common condition that affects runners. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate management to prevent further complications. With the right treatment, individuals can continue to engage in running and other physical activities without experiencing pain and discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33.5
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old male with depression is evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male with depression is evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses his ongoing depressed mood and shares with his psychiatrist that he experiences a sense of detachment from reality.

      Which term best describes the abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer: Depersonalisation

      Explanation:

      Depersonalisation and Derealisation

      Depersonalisation and derealisation are two distinct experiences that can occur in individuals with mental health conditions. Depersonalisation refers to the feeling that one’s own self is not real, while derealisation refers to the feeling that the world around them is not real.

      In depersonalisation, individuals may feel as though they are observing themselves from outside of their body or that they are disconnected from their thoughts and emotions. This can be a distressing experience and may lead to feelings of detachment and isolation.

      On the other hand, derealisation can cause individuals to feel as though the world around them is unreal or dreamlike. This can lead to feelings of confusion and disorientation, as well as difficulty with concentration and memory.

      It is important to note that these experiences can occur in a variety of mental health conditions, including anxiety, depression, and dissociative disorders. While anhedonia, delusions of guilt, and reduced affect display may be present in some individuals with depression, they are not necessarily associated with depersonalisation or derealisation.

      Overall, these experiences can help individuals and their loved ones better recognize and manage symptoms of mental illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What would be the natural response to hypocalcaemia in a normal and healthy...

    Correct

    • What would be the natural response to hypocalcaemia in a normal and healthy individual, considering the various factors that influence serum calcium levels, including hormones?

      Your Answer: Decreased kidney phosphate reabsorption, high PTH, low calcitonin

      Explanation:

      The likely cause of haematemesis in IHD patients is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and management. The history of patients with Ischemic Heart Disease (IHD) is crucial in determining the cause of their current presentation with haematemesis. As most of these patients are receiving aspirin, it is important to consider the possibility of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced peptic ulceration as the likely cause. To confirm this, an endoscopy should be performed, and the patient should be started on proton pump inhibition.

      It is important to note that gastric carcinoma typically presents with dysphagia and weight loss, while gastritis and oesophagitis present with a burning sensation in the chest and epigastric area, worsened by lying flat and triggered by certain foods or drinks. On the other hand, a Mallory-Weiss tear usually presents with haematemesis after multiple vomiting episodes due to abrasion and trauma to the oesophageal endothelium.

      The likely cause of haematemesis in IHD patients is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and management. By considering the patient’s medical history and conducting necessary tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition, ensuring the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      93.7
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  • Question 25 - An 82-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department, having suffered from a...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department, having suffered from a fall in his home. He has bruising to his face and legs and a ‘dinner fork’ deformity of his left wrist. His pulse is 70 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 110/90 mmHg, temperature 37.2 °C and oxygen saturations 98%. His plan includes an occupational therapy and risk assessment for falls, with a view to modification of his home and lifestyle to prevent future recurrence.
      Approximately what percentage of people aged over 80 suffer from falls?

      Your Answer: 65%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Falls in Older Adults: Prevalence and Risk Factors

      Falls are a common occurrence in older adults, with approximately 30% of those over 65 and 50% of those over 80 experiencing a fall each year. These falls can lead to serious consequences, such as neck of femur fractures, loss of confidence, and increased anxiety.

      There are several risk factors for falls, including muscle weakness, gait abnormalities, use of a walking aid, visual impairment, postural hypotension, cluttered environment, arthritis, impaired activities of daily living, depression, cognitive impairment, and certain medications.

      To prevent falls, interventions such as balance and exercise training, medication rationalization, correction of visual impairments, and home assessments can be implemented. Additionally, underlying medical conditions should be treated, and osteoporosis prophylaxis should be considered for those with recurrent falls.

      Overall, falls in older adults are a significant concern, but with proper prevention and management strategies, their impact can be minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      32.2
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  • Question 26 - An 81-year-old man with heart failure and depression presents with a sodium level...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man with heart failure and depression presents with a sodium level of 130. He is currently asymptomatic and his heart failure and depression are well managed. He has mild pitting pedal oedema and is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, simvastatin and citalopram. What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous saline over 1 hour and then recheck

      Correct Answer: Restrict his fluid input to 1.5 l/day and recheck in 3 days

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyponatraemia: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low serum sodium levels, requires careful management to avoid potential complications. The first step in treating hyponatraemia is to restrict fluid intake to reverse any dilution and address the underlying cause. Administering saline should only be considered if fluid restriction fails, as treating hyponatraemia too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.

      In cases where medication may be contributing to hyponatraemia, such as with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it is important to weigh the benefits and risks of discontinuing the medication. Abruptly stopping SSRIs can cause withdrawal symptoms, and patients should be gradually weaned off over several weeks or months.

      Other treatment options, such as increasing salt intake or administering oral magnesium supplementation, may not be appropriate for all cases of hyponatraemia. It is important to consider the patient’s overall clinical picture and underlying conditions, such as heart failure, before deciding on a course of treatment.

      Overall, managing hyponatraemia requires a careful and individualized approach to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      36.4
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  • Question 27 - An 81-year-old man has fallen off his bike and hit his head. His...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man has fallen off his bike and hit his head. His friend at the scene reports that he was unconscious for less than a minute. The man was cycling slowly on a path beside a canal. Upon initial assessment, he has some bruising on his upper and lower limbs, a Glasgow coma score (GCS) of 15, and no neurological deficit. He has not experienced vomiting or seizures since the accident and was able to describe the incident. He takes antihypertensives but has no significant medical history. What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Perform a CT head scan within 1 hour

      Correct Answer: Perform a CT head scan within 8 hours

      Explanation:

      When it comes to detecting significant brain injuries in the acute setting, CT imaging of the head is currently the preferred method of investigation. MRI is not typically used due to safety concerns, logistical challenges, and resource limitations.

      According to NICE guidelines, patients over the age of 65 who experience a head injury resulting in loss of consciousness or amnesia should undergo a CT head scan within 8 hours. However, if there is an indication for a CT head scan within 1 hour, that should take priority. The specific indications for CT head scans within 1 hour and 8 hours can be found below.

      Reference:
      NICE (2014): Head injury: assessment and early management.

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      106.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 3-year-old child has a 24-hour history of being generally unwell with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child has a 24-hour history of being generally unwell with a barking cough. Their parent says they make a loud noise when they breathe in and their symptoms are worse at night. They have a temperature of 38.5 °C.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Inspiratory Stridor and Barking Cough

      Croup is a common respiratory illness in children under 2 years old, characterized by inspiratory stridor and a barking cough. Other symptoms include hoarseness, fever, and dyspnea, which are usually worse at night. The illness can last up to 7 days, with the first 24-48 hours being the most severe.

      Asthma, on the other hand, presents differently with wheezing and chest tightness, rather than inspiratory stridor. While shortness of breath, especially at night, is a common symptom, it does not account for the fever.

      Simple viral cough is a possible differential, but the absence of other systemic symptoms makes croup more likely.

      Whooping cough is not indicated by this history.

      Bronchiolitis usually presents less acutely, with difficulty feeding and general malaise during the incubation period, followed by dyspnea and wheezing. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      14.9
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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation for her dating scan. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation for her dating scan. The radiographer calls you in to speak to the patient, as the gestational sac is small for dates and she is unable to demonstrate a fetal heart rate. On further questioning, the patient reports an episode of bleeding while abroad at nine weeks’ gestation, which settled spontaneously.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Incomplete miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Missed miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Miscarriage: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Miscarriage is the loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks’ gestation. There are several types of miscarriage, each with its own symptoms and diagnosis.

      Missed miscarriage is an incidental finding where the patient presents without symptoms, but the ultrasound shows a small gestational sac and no fetal heart rate.

      Complete miscarriage is when all products of conception have been passed, and the uterus is empty and contracted.

      Incomplete miscarriage is when some, but not all, products of conception have been expelled, and the patient experiences vaginal bleeding with an open or closed os.

      Inevitable miscarriage is when the pregnancy will inevitably be lost, and the patient presents with active bleeding, abdominal pain, and an open cervical os.

      Threatened miscarriage is when there is an episode of bleeding, but the pregnancy is unaffected, and the patient experiences cyclical abdominal pain and dark red-brown bleeding. The cervical os is closed, and ultrasound confirms the presence of a gestational sac and fetal heart rate.

      It is important to seek medical attention if any symptoms of miscarriage occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      40.8
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  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge, without itching...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge, without itching or bleeding. She is normally fit and well, without past medical history. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. She is sexually active and has a progesterone implant for contraception.
      Examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen. On pelvic examination, you notice the vagina has a white-grey coating on the walls and a fishy odour. A small amount of grey vaginal discharge is also seen. The cervix looks normal, and there is no cervical excitation. Observations are stable.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Candidiasis

      Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Vaginal Discharge: Symptoms and Treatment

      Bacterial vaginosis, Trichomonas vaginalis, Candidiasis, gonorrhoeae, and Pelvic inflammatory disease are some of the most common causes of vaginal discharge in women.

      Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and loss of lactobacilli in the vagina. It presents with a grey-white, thin discharge with a fishy odour and an increased vaginal pH. Metronidazole is the treatment of choice.

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection that presents with a yellow-green discharge and an erythematosus cervix with a punctate exudate.

      Candidiasis is a fungal infection associated with pruritus, burning, erythema, and oedema of the vestibule. The vaginal discharge is thick, curd-like, and white.

      gonorrhoeae can be asymptomatic or present with abdominal pain, mucopurulent discharge, cervicitis, dyspareunia, or abnormal bleeding.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease is the result of an ascending infection and presents with dyspareunia, lower abdominal pain, menstrual irregularities, irregular bleeding, and a blood stained, purulent vaginal discharge. Cervicitis and cervical excitation are also present.

      Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve the quality of life of affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation visits her midwife for a...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation visits her midwife for a routine booking appointment. She has sickle cell anaemia. Her partner’s sickle cell status is Hb AS. Her haemoglobin is 9.2 g / dl.
      What is the likelihood of her baby having sickle cell disease?

      Your Answer: 1 in 2

      Explanation:

      Probability of Inheriting Sickle Cell Disease

      Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive condition that affects the haemoglobin in red blood cells. The probability of a baby inheriting the disease depends on the genotypes of the parents.

      If one parent has sickle cell disease (HbSS) and the other is a carrier (HbAS), the baby has a 1 in 2 chance of inheriting the disease and a 1 in 2 chance of being a carrier.

      If both parents are carriers (HbAS), the baby has a 1 in 4 chance of inheriting the disease.

      If one parent has sickle cell disease (HbSS) and the other is unaffected (HbAA), the baby will be a carrier (HbAS).

      If both parents have sickle cell disease (HbSS), the baby will inherit the disease.

      It is important for individuals to know their carrier status and to receive genetic counselling before planning a family to understand the risks of passing on genetic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      39.5
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  • Question 32 - A 67-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue. Routine blood tests reveal Hb...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue. Routine blood tests reveal Hb of 105 g/L, MCV of 104 fL, platelets of 305 * 109/L, and WBC of 9.3 * 109/L. Further tests reveal positive intrinsic factor antibodies. During the discussion of the diagnosis with the patient, the potential serious complications are brought up. What is one serious complication that can arise from this condition?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Gastric cancer

      Explanation:

      The presence of pernicious anaemia, as indicated by the patient’s macrocytic anaemia and positive intrinsic factor antibodies, can increase the risk of developing gastric carcinoma. Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disease that impairs the production of intrinsic factor, leading to low levels of vitamin B12 and anaemia. While chronic lymphocytic leukaemia and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma are not strongly linked to pernicious anaemia, they may be associated with genetic mutations acquired over time. Gastritis, which is not a serious complication, is more commonly associated with conditions such as Helicobacter pylori infection.

      Understanding Pernicious Anaemia

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.

      The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.

      Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.

      Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 49-year-old woman has been newly diagnosed with breast cancer. She receives a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman has been newly diagnosed with breast cancer. She receives a wide-local excision and subsequently undergoes whole-breast radiotherapy. The pathology report reveals that the tumour is negative for HER2 but positive for oestrogen receptor. She has a medical history of hypertension and premature ovarian failure. What adjuvant treatment is she expected to receive?

      Your Answer: Herceptin

      Correct Answer: Anastrozole

      Explanation:

      Anastrozole is the correct adjuvant hormonal therapy for postmenopausal women with ER+ breast cancer. This is because the tumour is positive for oestrogen receptors and negative for HER2 receptors, and aromatase inhibitors are the preferred treatment for postmenopausal women due to the majority of oestrogen production being through aromatisation. Goserelin is used for ovarian suppression in premenopausal women, while Herceptin is used for HER2 positive tumours. Imatinib is not used in breast cancer management.

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 34 - A 30-year-old man with end stage renal failure due to IgA nephropathy underwent...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with end stage renal failure due to IgA nephropathy underwent a kidney transplant from a deceased brainstem donor and experienced successful primary graft function. After being discharged eight days post-surgery, his creatinine levels stabilized at 85 umol/l with regular clinic visits. However, at seven weeks post-transplant, his creatinine levels increased to 190 umol/l despite being asymptomatic. As a result, he was admitted for further evaluation. What would be your initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Send serum for donor specific antibodies

      Correct Answer: Request a renal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The patient’s sudden rise in creatinine after stent removal suggests obstruction leading to hydronephrosis. This is the most likely diagnosis, but other possibilities include acute rejection, calcineurin toxicity, infection, or surgical complications. A renal ultrasound is needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other issues before a renal biopsy can be considered. Donor specific antibodies may also be tested, but a biopsy is still necessary for confirmation and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      36.6
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  • Question 35 - A 32-week neonate is brought to the neonatal intensive care unit. The baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-week neonate is brought to the neonatal intensive care unit. The baby was delivered via emergency Caesarean section to a 17-year-old mother who had not received adequate antenatal care. The mother had a history of significant tobacco and alcohol use. During examination, it was observed that the baby had intestinal loops protruding through a hole on the left side of the umbilicus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

      Correct Answer: Gastroschisis

      Explanation:

      Socioeconomic deprivation, maternal alcohol/tobacco use, and maternal age under 20 are all associated with gastroschisis.

      While gastroschisis and omphalocele have similar presentations, gastroschisis refers to a defect located to the side of the umbilicus, while omphalocele refers to a defect in the umbilicus itself.

      Foetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by a small head, flattened philtrum, and thin upper lip.

      Anencephaly is a neural tube defect that results in the absence of the brain, skull, and scalp.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 36 - A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer presents with bony leg pain, constipation...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer presents with bony leg pain, constipation for 4 days, abdominal pain, thirst and disorientation. On examination, he is cachectic and dehydrated. He is apyrexial and haemodynamically stable. He has a past medical history of hypertension and is an ex-smoker. He has no known drug allergies. His calcium is 3.1 mmol/l and he has normal renal function.
      What is the most suitable initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent chemotherapy

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (iv) 0.9% normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypercalcaemia in Cancer Patients

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical emergency commonly seen in cancer patients. It presents with symptoms such as lethargy, anorexia, nausea, constipation, dehydration, polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, confusion, and generalised aches. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include primary and tertiary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, myeloma, and vitamin D excess. The management of hypercalcaemia involves intravenous (iv) normal saline and bisphosphonates. Local protocols should be referenced for specific guidelines.

      Steroids such as dexamethasone are not recommended for patients who do not have cord compression. Furosemide may be used alongside iv fluids if the patient is at risk of fluid overload, such as in heart failure. Bisphosphonates, such as iv pamidronate, act over 48 hours by preventing bone resorption and inhibiting osteoclasts. Urgent chemotherapy is not recommended for hypercalcaemia as it does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms.

      In conclusion, hypercalcaemia in cancer patients requires prompt management with iv normal saline and bisphosphonates. Other treatment options should be considered based on the patient’s individual needs and local protocols.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 37 - A 56-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a complaint of urinary incontinence. She recently experienced a significant episode when she leaked urine while running to catch a bus. Previously, she had only noticed small leaks when coughing or laughing, and did not want to make a fuss. She reports no abdominal pain and has not had a menstrual period in 3 years. She has two children, both of whom were delivered vaginally and were large babies. Physical examination is unremarkable and a urine dipstick test is negative.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscle training

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Stress Urinary Incontinence

      Stress urinary incontinence is a common condition in women, especially those who have had vaginal deliveries and are getting older. It is caused by weak sphincter muscles, leading to leakage during activities such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercising. The first-line treatment for this condition is pelvic floor muscle training, which involves a minimum of eight contractions three times per day for 12 weeks.

      However, it is important to note that other treatment options, such as oxybutynin, pelvic ultrasound scans, urodynamic studies, and bladder training, are not recommended for stress urinary incontinence. Oxybutynin is used for overactive bladder or mixed urinary incontinence, while pelvic ultrasound scans are not indicated for urinary incontinence. Urodynamic studies are not recommended for women with simple stress incontinence on history and examination, and bladder training is used for urgency or mixed urinary incontinence, not stress incontinence. Therefore, pelvic floor muscle training remains the most effective treatment option for stress urinary incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 38 - What study design would be most useful in testing the hypothesis that metal...

    Incorrect

    • What study design would be most useful in testing the hypothesis that metal industry workers are more likely to develop a rare neurological disorder due to exposure to a particular type of heavy metal residue, given that the prevalence of the disease is 1 in 1,000,000?

      Your Answer: Cohort study

      Correct Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      Different Study Designs for Investigating Rare Diseases

      When investigating a rare disease, it is important to choose the appropriate study design to ensure accurate and reliable results. Here are some common study designs and their suitability for studying rare diseases:

      1. Case-control study: This design compares individuals affected by the disease (cases) with those not affected (controls) to identify potential risk factors. It is useful for rare diseases, but careful selection of controls is necessary to avoid bias.

      2. Cohort study: This design follows a group of individuals with a particular exposure or characteristic over time to determine if they develop the disease. While useful, it requires a large cohort and a long follow-up period for rare diseases.

      3. Placebo-controlled randomized trial: This design tests interventions prospectively and is not helpful for investigating rare diseases.

      4. Descriptive study: This design does not determine exposure to the hypothesized cause of the disease and is not helpful for investigating rare diseases.

      5. Cross-sectional survey: This design records health information from a random sample of people and requires a large sample size for rare diseases.

      Choosing the appropriate study design is crucial for investigating rare diseases and obtaining accurate results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 39 - A study examines the effectiveness of a new antiplatelet agent versus aspirin in...

    Correct

    • A study examines the effectiveness of a new antiplatelet agent versus aspirin in preventing stroke in a diabetic population over a ten year period. The results show that the incidence of stroke in the aspirin treated group is 6%, while the group treated with the new drug has a rate of 3% (p <0.001). What is the relative risk reduction in stroke associated with the new medication?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Relative Risk Reduction in Medical Publications

      When reading medical publications, it is important to understand the concept of relative risk reduction. This calculation compares the risk of an event occurring in one group (such as patients taking a new medication) to the risk in another group (such as patients taking a standard medication).

      For example, if a study found that a new medication reduced the risk of stroke by 1.5%, compared to a standard medication, the absolute risk reduction would be 1.5%. However, the relative risk reduction would be 50%, because the new medication reduced the risk of stroke by half compared to the standard medication.

      It is important to note that while a relative risk reduction may sound impressive, it is crucial to also consider the absolute risk reduction. In the example above, while the relative risk reduction is 50%, the actual number of strokes prevented is only 15 per 1000 patients treated. both the relative and absolute risk reduction can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 40 - A 48 month study compared two treatments for hypertension in patients over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 48 month study compared two treatments for hypertension in patients over the age of 60.
      The null hypothesis was that there was no difference between the two treatments.
      The primary outcome was reduction of systolic blood pressure below 140 mmHg. This outcome was reached in 75% of patients taking treatment A and 80% of patients taking treatment B. The results were reported as being significant with a p-value of 0.05.
      What is the correct interpretation of the P value?

      Your Answer: There is a 20% chance that regimen B is better than regimen A

      Correct Answer: There is a 5% probability of finding this result if there is no difference between the regimens

      Explanation:

      The Misunderstood P Value

      The P value is often misunderstood and over-interpreted. It is important to note that the P value only indicates the probability of obtaining the results by chance if there was no difference between the regimens being compared. It does not provide information on the actual difference between the regimens or the likelihood of one being better than the other. This confusion has led to the increased use of confidence intervals as a more informative measure.

      Goodman SN’s article Toward Evidence-Based Medical Statistics delves deeper into this issue and highlights the fallacy of relying solely on P values. It is crucial to understand the limitations of the P value and to use it in conjunction with other statistical measures to draw accurate conclusions. By doing so, we can ensure that our research is evidence-based and reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 41 - A patient in a small hospital in the Highlands of Scotland has been...

    Correct

    • A patient in a small hospital in the Highlands of Scotland has been detained under an emergency detention order. A psychiatrist attends the patient after 26 hours and conducts an examination of the patient’s mental state. She finds that the patient has paranoid ideation, believing that hospital staff are trying to kill him, is experiencing auditory hallucinations and is talking of causing harm to his wife, who ‘got’ him ‘into all this.’
      What is the psychiatrist’s most likely course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange for a mental health officer to attend with a view to issuing a short-term detention certificate

      Explanation:

      Steps for Managing a Patient with Mental Health Issues

      When dealing with a patient who is showing signs of a mental disorder and poses a risk to others, it is important to take appropriate steps to ensure their safety and well-being. Here are the steps that should be taken:

      1. Arrange for a mental health officer to attend with a view to issuing a short-term detention certificate. This will allow the patient to be detained in hospital and assessed for necessary medical treatment.

      2. Once the patient has been assessed, a management plan needs to be put into place. It is important to prescribe medication and monitor the patient’s condition.

      3. If the patient is not willing to consent to treatment, contact the Mental Health Tribunal to request a Compulsory Treatment Order be granted. This can only be done after the patient has been placed on a short-term detention certificate.

      4. Make an appointment for the patient to attend their outpatient clinic when they are discharged from the current hospital. This will ensure that they continue to receive necessary treatment and support.

      By following these steps, healthcare professionals can effectively manage patients with mental health issues and ensure their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 42 - At what age do children typically begin to play alongside their peers without...

    Correct

    • At what age do children typically begin to play alongside their peers without actively engaging with them?

      Your Answer: 2 years

      Explanation:

      The table summarizes developmental milestones for social behavior, feeding, dressing, and play. Milestones include smiling at 6 weeks, using a spoon and cup at 12-15 months, and playing with other children at 4 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 43 - A 45-year-old man is recovering on the surgical ward three days after a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is recovering on the surgical ward three days after a laparotomy and right hemicolectomy for cancer. You are asked to see him as he has developed a temperature of 38.5ºC and is tachycardic at 120 bpm and tachypnoeic at 25 breaths per minute. On examination his abdomen is soft and not distended but tender around his midline wound. There is some discharge seeping through the dressing. His chest is clear and he has no signs of a deep vein thrombosis.
      What is the most probable cause of this man's elevated temperature?

      Your Answer: Wound infection

      Explanation:

      Abdominal wound infections can lead to post-operative fevers after a few days and may be accompanied by signs of systemic infection. This is a common urgent call for junior surgeons, and the two main differentials to consider are infection and thrombosis, as they are the most serious causes of post-operative fever. Given that the operation involved the bowel and was not sterile, a wound infection is the most likely differential, especially with the presence of discharge and tenderness. While an anastomotic leak is possible, it would typically present with a painful, firm abdomen and severe sepsis. There are no indications of a chest pathology from the patient’s history or examination. A physiological cause of fever would not be associated with systemic inflammation symptoms, as seen in this case.

      Post-operative pyrexia, or fever, can occur after surgery and can be caused by various factors. Early causes of post-op pyrexia, which typically occur within the first five days after surgery, include blood transfusion, cellulitis, urinary tract infection, and a physiological systemic inflammatory reaction that usually occurs within a day following the operation. Pulmonary atelectasis is also often listed as an early cause, but the evidence to support this link is limited. Late causes of post-op pyrexia, which occur more than five days after surgery, include venous thromboembolism, pneumonia, wound infection, and anastomotic leak.

      To remember the possible causes of post-op pyrexia, it is helpful to use the memory aid of the 4 W’s: wind, water, wound, and what did we do? (iatrogenic). This means that the causes can be related to respiratory issues (wind), urinary tract or other fluid-related problems (water), wound infections or complications (wound), or something that was done during the surgery or post-operative care (iatrogenic). It is important to identify the cause of post-op pyrexia and treat it promptly to prevent further complications. This information is based on a peer-reviewed publication available on the National Center for Biotechnology Information website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 44 - You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone an anomaly scan and is undergoing a routine review. During the consultation, she expresses her concern about not feeling any fetal movement yet, despite experiencing it by 18 weeks gestation in her previous pregnancies.
      At what point in her gestation would it be appropriate to refer her to the maternal fetal medicine unit for further evaluation?

      Your Answer: 22 weeks

      Correct Answer: 24 weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral to a maternal fetal medicine unit is recommended if fetal movements have not been felt by 24 weeks, as reduced movements can be a sign of fetal distress and hypoxia. While most women feel their babies move around 18-20 weeks, it can happen earlier in some cases. Although singular episodes of reduced movements may not be harmful, they can also indicate stillbirths and restricted growth. The absence of movements is particularly concerning and requires further investigation. The RCOG has set the 24 week cut off as a guideline.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 45 - A 31-year-old man and his wife, who have been trying to have a...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old man and his wife, who have been trying to have a baby, visit a Fertility Clinic to receive the results of their tests. The man's semen sample has revealed azoospermia. Upon further inquiry, the man reports having a persistent cough that produces purulent sputum. What test would confirm the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) genetic screening and sweat test

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Male Infertility: A Case of Azoospermia and Bronchiectasis

      Azoospermia, or the absence of sperm in semen, can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders and respiratory diseases. In this case, a man presents with a longstanding cough productive of purulent sputum and is found to have azoospermia. The combination of azoospermia and bronchiectasis suggests a possible diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF), a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory and reproductive systems.

      CF is diagnosed via a sweat test showing high sweat chloride levels and genetic screening for two copies of disease-causing CFTR mutations. While most cases of CF are diagnosed in infancy, some are diagnosed later in life, often by non-respiratory specialties such as infertility clinics. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, can also cause non-obstructive azoospermia and is diagnosed by karyotyping.

      Computed tomography (CT) thorax can be helpful in diagnosing bronchiectasis, but the underlying diagnosis in this case is likely to be CF. Testicular biopsy and testing FSH and testosterone levels can be used to investigate the cause of azoospermia, but in this case, investigating for CF is the most appropriate next step. Nasal biopsy can diagnose primary ciliary dyskinesia, another cause of bronchiectasis and subfertility, but it is not relevant in this case.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of male infertility should include a comprehensive medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations to identify any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 46 - A 58-year-old man, with a history of acromegaly, presents with a swollen, red,...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man, with a history of acromegaly, presents with a swollen, red, hot, and painful right knee that developed over the past three days. He denies having a fever and was previously healthy. He receives monthly octreotide for his acromegaly and does not take any diuretics. An X-ray reveals chondrocalcinosis. What results would you anticipate from the joint fluid microscopy?

      Your Answer: Weakly positive birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly patients are at an increased risk of developing pseudogout, which is characterized by chondrocalcinosis. The crystals involved in pseudogout are rhomboid-shaped and weakly positively birefringent. It is important to note that negatively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals do not cause crystal arthropathy, while negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals are associated with gout crystal arthropathy. Additionally, weakly positive birefringent needle-shaped crystals are not known to cause crystal arthropathy.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 47 - A 50-year-old man presents with painless bleeding per rectum for two days. The...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with painless bleeding per rectum for two days. The blood was mixed with stool every time. There was no pain or tenesmus. There has been no loss of weight.

      He has never experienced these symptoms before, although he has suffered from constipation over the past three years. At the clinic, he complained of mild fever, although on examination, his temperature was normal.

      He has recently returned from a trip to India where he took part in a mountain expedition to Kedarnath. He takes no drugs, with the exception of thyroxine which he has taken for the past two years.

      What is the immediate management?

      Your Answer: Stool microscopy & culture

      Explanation:

      Rectal Bleeding in a Patient with a Recent Mountain Expedition

      This patient has recently returned from a mountain expedition in a tropical country, where his diet and water intake may have been irregular. As a result, he is at risk of food and water-borne infections such as amoebiasis, which can cause bloody stools. To determine the cause of the bleeding, stool tests and microscopy should be conducted before treatment is initiated.

      It is important to note that laxatives should not be used until the cause of the bloody stool is identified. In cases of colonic cancer, laxatives can cause intestinal obstruction, while in conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease, they can irritate the bowel walls and worsen the condition. The patient’s history of constipation is likely due to hypothyroidism, which is being treated.

      While chronic liver disease can cause rectal bleeding, there is no indication of such a condition in this patient. When bleeding is caused by piles, blood is typically found on the toilet paper and not mixed with stools. Lower GI endoscopy may be necessary if the bleeding persists, but invasive tests should only be conducted when fully justified.

      Observation is not an appropriate course of action in this case. In older patients, rectal bleeding should always be taken seriously and thoroughly investigated to determine the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 48 - A 70-year-old man is admitted at the request of his family due to...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted at the request of his family due to a 3-month history of increasing confusion and unsteady gait. They have also noted intermittent jerking movements of both upper limbs. He was previously healthy and till the onset of symptoms, had continued to work part-time as a carpenter. On examination, he is not orientated to time, person or place. Myoclonic jerks of both upper limbs are noted together with non-specific cerebellar signs. CT brain and blood work-up for common causes of dementia is normal.
      Which of the following tests will help in diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI of the brain

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Procedures for Suspected Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

      Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) is a rare and fatal neurological disorder that presents with rapidly progressive dementia and other non-specific neurological symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic procedures that are typically used when sCJD is suspected.

      Clinical diagnosis of sCJD is based on a combination of typical history, MRI findings, positive CSF 14-3-3 protein, and characteristic EEG findings. Definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy, but this is often not desirable due to the difficulty in sterilizing equipment.

      Renal biopsy is not indicated in cases of suspected sCJD, as the signs and symptoms described are not indicative of renal dysfunction. Echocardiography is also not necessary, as sCJD does not affect the heart.

      Muscle biopsy may be indicated in suspected myopathic disorders, but is not useful in diagnosing sCJD. Similarly, bone marrow biopsy is not of diagnostic benefit in this case.

      Overall, a combination of clinical history, imaging, and laboratory tests are used to diagnose sCJD, with biopsy reserved for cases where definitive diagnosis is necessary. It is important to note that there is currently no curative treatment for sCJD, and the disease is invariably fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 49 - A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly check-up with his GP. He...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly check-up with his GP. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Upon physical examination, there are no notable findings and no signs of fluid overload. His blood pressure is 126/84 mmHg, and his heart rate is 67 bpm. A urine dipstick test shows only 1+ protein.

      The results of his routine blood panel are as follows:
      - Haemoglobin: 139 g/L (125-175)
      - White cell count: 5.7 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Mean cell volume: 82 fL (75-100)
      - Platelets: 359 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Sodium: 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      - Potassium: 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      - Urea: 8.9 mmol/L (2-7)
      - Creatinine: 169 μmol/ (75-110)
      - Glucose: 6.7 mmol/L (4-7)
      - HbA1c: 48 mmol/mol (42-53)
      - eGFR: 29 ml/min (>60)
      - Lactate: 2.4 mmol/L (0.5-2)
      - Venous pH: 7.35 (7.35-7.45)

      Currently, the patient is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, bisoprolol 5 mg daily, gliclazide 80 mg twice daily, metformin 1 g twice daily, and ramipril 2.5 mg daily. Based on this information, which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medications and Renal Impairment

      Metformin is a commonly used oral antidiabetic drug that inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis, making it a first-line agent in the treatment of type 2 diabetes. However, it should be closely monitored in patients with impaired renal function due to the risk of developing lactate acidosis. Current guidelines recommend avoiding metformin in renal impairment if possible, reducing the dose if eGFR is less than 45 ml/min, and discontinuing it if less than 30 ml/min. Gliclazide, another antidiabetic drug, stimulates insulin release and is mostly cleared by the liver, but should be avoided in severe renal impairment and monitored in mild to moderate cases. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor used in hypertension and heart failure, is beneficial in delaying diabetic nephropathy but may require dose adjustments in established renal impairment. Aspirin, commonly used in cardiovascular pathologies, should be avoided in severe renal failure but can be continued in moderate impairment. Bisoprolol, a cardio-specific beta-blocker, is safe to continue in renal impairment, with dose adjustments only needed when eGFR is less than 20 ml/min.

      Overall, it is important to closely monitor medication use in patients with renal impairment and adjust doses or discontinue use as necessary to prevent adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 50 - A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic exhibiting typical symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic exhibiting typical symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. He also reports experiencing eye itchiness. What is the most probable diagnosis to accompany seborrhoeic dermatitis in this case?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis, dry eye syndrome, and acne rosacea are conditions that may be linked to blepharitis. However, the treatment for blepharitis remains consistent, with patients advised to clean their eyelids twice daily and use a warm compress with their eyes closed for 5-10 minutes. There is no apparent reason for an elevated risk of the other conditions mentioned.

      Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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