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Question 1
Incorrect
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How would you describe March fracture?
Your Answer: Compression fracture of the calcaneus
Correct Answer: Stress fracture of the neck of the second metatarsal
Explanation:March Fracture: A Common Injury in Active Individuals
March fracture is a type of stress fracture that affects the metatarsals, commonly seen in individuals who engage in repetitive activities such as running or walking. This injury is often observed in army recruits, nurses, and runners. One of the primary symptoms of March fracture is the development of a tender lump on the back of the foot, which can be felt just below the midshaft of a metatarsal bone, usually the second one.
While early radiology tests may not show any abnormalities, later tests may reveal a hairline fracture or the formation of callus in more severe cases. Fortunately, March fracture does not cause any displacement, so there is no need for reduction or splinting. Instead, normal walking is encouraged, and the forefoot may be supported with elastoplast to alleviate pain.
It typically takes around five to six weeks for the pain to subside, as the fracture heals and unites. the symptoms and treatment options for March fracture can help individuals who engage in repetitive activities take the necessary precautions to prevent this common injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 38-year-old female who was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) following a car accident two years ago. Similar to Steven, Sarah has been experiencing difficulty with sleep since the accident. She frequently wakes up in the middle of the night due to nightmares and struggles to fall back asleep. This has been affecting her daily life as she no longer has the energy to keep up with her young children.
Sarah has undergone several sessions of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), but unfortunately, she has not seen any significant improvement in her symptoms.
What would be the appropriate medication to manage Sarah's condition?Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:If CBT or EMDR therapy prove ineffective in treating PTSD, the recommended first-line drug treatments are venlafaxine or a SSRI. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline may also be used under the supervision of a mental health specialist, but they are not currently part of NICE guidance. Diazepam and zopiclone are only recommended for short-term management of severe symptoms or acute exacerbations of insomnia, and do not address the underlying cause of PTSD. Risperidone may be considered for patients with disabling symptoms or behaviors that have not responded to other treatments.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old student comes to her doctor with worries about her hands. When it's cold outside, her hands become extremely cold and slightly painful, and they change color. They start off very pale, then turn blue, and finally turn red. Upon examining her hands, there are no scars or signs of ulcers. She has no significant medical history.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Blue finger syndrome
Correct Answer: Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon
Explanation:Common Causes of Hand Discoloration and Pain
Hand discoloration and pain can be caused by various conditions. One of the most common causes is Raynaud’s phenomenon, also known as Raynaud’s disease. This condition is characterized by a color change in the hands from white to blue to red. Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is benign and usually affects young women. Chemical hand warmers can be used for symptomatic relief. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s or Raynaud’s syndrome is caused by an underlying disease process or medication. It can cause pain, scarring, and ulceration of the fingertips.
Thoracic outlet syndrome is another condition that can cause hand pain and paraesthesiae. It is characterized by unilateral symptoms and can affect various areas such as the neck, arm, and hand. Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a rare disease that causes inflammation and thrombosis of small and medium arteries. This leads to symptoms similar to acute ischaemia such as pain, claudication, and absent pulses.
Vibration white finger is a condition that can occur after prolonged use of power tools. It causes whiteness, numbness, and loss of dexterity in the fingers. Finally, blue finger syndrome is a rare condition that results from spontaneous thrombosis of one finger.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 4
Correct
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A 39-year-old male patient with a medical history of Marfan's syndrome presents to the Emergency department with a sudden tearing pain in his chest that spreads to his back. He also reports experiencing left-sided weakness and difficulty speaking coherently. Based on these symptoms, you suspect a dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm. Which artery is most likely to be affected by the aneurysm?
Your Answer: Brachiocephalic trunk
Explanation:Aortic aneurysms are caused by degeneration of collagen and elastic tissue in the media, often in patients with hypertension or collagen diseases. Aortic dissection is classified by the DeBakey or Stanford systems, with Stanford type A being the most common. The brachiocephalic trunk is the first and largest branch of the aortic arch, and is the most likely artery to be involved in an aneurysm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents after he fell off his bike and landed on his arm. Upon examination, his arm is swollen and causing him pain. There are no visible breaks in the skin and no neurovascular deficits were detected. X-rays were taken and the child was diagnosed with an unstable displaced supracondylar fracture of the humerus.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Reduction under anaesthesia pin fixation and application of a collar and cuff with the arm in flexion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Supracondylar Fracture of the Humerus in Children
A supracondylar fracture of the humerus is a common injury in children, typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. This type of fracture can cause pain, swelling, and resistance to arm examination. It is crucial to check and record the child’s neurovascular status, as a displaced fracture can compress or damage the brachial artery.
One treatment option for an unstable displaced fracture is reduction under anaesthesia and the insertion of pins to stabilise the fracture. After this procedure, the arm should be maintained in flexion with a collar and cuff, which acts as a natural splint. The degree of flexion should be determined by the presence of the radial pulse, and the child should be carefully observed for 24 hours after the operation to monitor for compartment syndrome.
While stabilisation is necessary after reduction, a below-elbow plaster is not appropriate for a supracondylar fracture. Instead, an above-elbow plaster or a collar and cuff is preferred. It is essential to choose the appropriate treatment option to minimise the risk of the fracture becoming displaced after reduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are informed that a new antihypertensive has been linked to spontaneous reports of upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage in elderly patients. The MHRA has received 60 yellow card cases, and it is estimated that 120,000 people aged 65 and above have used the medication since launch. The clinical programme for the development and registration of the drug involved 3,800 elderly subjects. What is the most suitable study to investigate this adverse event?
Your Answer: Retrospective database analysis
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:Study Design for Investigating Adverse Events
The rate of adverse events (AEs) associated with a medication is extremely low, as reported in only 60 patients. Even though yellow cards only account for a small proportion of AEs, a further clinical study or a prospective cohort study is unlikely to provide meaningful outputs over the required period. Mechanistic animal studies can generate a scientific hypothesis, but they cannot confirm the cause of an important AE. On the other hand, a case-control study can provide a readout on risk factors associated with a specific AE compared to control patients over a relatively short period.
In summary, the study design for investigating AEs depends on the number of reported cases and the required period for obtaining meaningful outputs. While clinical and prospective cohort studies are suitable for investigating rare AEs with a large sample size, case-control studies are more appropriate for investigating specific AEs with a smaller sample size over a shorter period. Mechanistic animal studies can provide a scientific hypothesis, but they cannot confirm the cause of an important AE. Therefore, researchers should choose the appropriate study design based on the specific AE and the research question.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace herself against the ground and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to the Emergency Department and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture.
Which of the following deficits is this child most likely to suffer?Your Answer: Atrophy of the biceps brachii muscle
Correct Answer: Weakness to the right index finger
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Hand Function
Weakness to the right index finger may indicate an anterior interosseous nerve injury, commonly seen in supracondylar fractures. Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand may result from an ulnar nerve injury, often associated with supracondylar humeral fractures. Atrophy of the biceps brachii muscle may occur with damage to the musculocutaneous nerve, which can be compressed between the biceps and brachialis fascia or injured in upper brachial plexus injuries. Weakness of wrist flexion may result from median nerve injury, which can also cause sensory loss and motor deficits in the forearm and thumb. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the hand is likely due to radial nerve damage, often seen in mid-humeral shaft fractures. Understanding these common nerve injuries and their effects on hand function can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What virus has a single stranded RNA genome and a 3% vertical transmission rate through blood?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation:Different Types of Hepatitis and CMV Infections
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a type of DNA herpes virus that infects 50-80% of adults. It is a common and widespread infection.
Hepatitis A, on the other hand, is a picornavirus that spreads through the fecal-oral route. This virus has a single-stranded, positive-sense genome.
Hepatitis B is a member of the Hepadnaviridae family and has a unique partially double-stranded circular genome. It has a high vertical transmission rate of 90%, meaning it can easily be passed from mother to child during childbirth.
Lastly, Hepatitis D is an incomplete virus with a small RNA genome. It can only infect patients who are already infected with Hepatitis B (HBV).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male construction worker presents to the Emergency Department with new onset frank haematuria. He has been passing blood and clots during urination for the past three days. He denies any dysuria or abdominal pain. His vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 80 bpm and blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft without tenderness or palpable masses in the abdomen or renal angles. He has a 30 pack-year history of smoking. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to determine the cause of his haematuria?
Your Answer: CT scan of the thorax, abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast
Correct Answer: Flexible cystoscopy
Explanation:When lower urinary tract tumour is suspected based on the patient’s history and risk factors, cystoscopy is the preferred diagnostic method for bladder cancer. If a bladder tumour is confirmed, a CT scan or PET-CT may be necessary to evaluate metastatic spread. While a CT-angiogram can identify a bleeding source, it is unlikely to be useful in this case as the patient is stable and a bleeding source is unlikely to be detected.
Bladder cancer is the second most common urological cancer, with males aged between 50 and 80 years being the most commonly affected. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons such as 2-Naphthylamine increase the risk of the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, including inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are uncommon.
Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma is the most common type of bladder malignancy, accounting for over 90% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are less common. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with up to 70% having a papillary growth pattern. Superficial tumors have a better prognosis, while solid growths are more prone to local invasion and may be of higher grade, resulting in a worse prognosis. TNM staging is used to determine the extent of the tumor and the presence of nodal or distant metastasis.
Most patients with bladder cancer present with painless, macroscopic hematuria. Incidental microscopic hematuria may also indicate malignancy in up to 10% of females over 50 years old. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy and biopsies or transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), with pelvic MRI and CT scanning used to determine locoregional spread and distant disease. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, or radical radiotherapy, depending on the extent and grade of the tumor. Prognosis varies depending on the stage of the tumor, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T with N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 59-year-old man is admitted with pneumonia. He drinks 25 units of alcohol per day. His liver function is normal.
After 12 hours of admission, he suddenly becomes unwell. His vital signs are as follows:
- Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/minute
- Oxygen saturations: 96%
- Blood pressure: 123/76 mmHg
- Heart rate: 106 bpm
- Capillary blood glucose: 4.1 mmol/L
An ECG shows sinus tachycardia at a rate of 103 bpm. Upon examination, he appears tremulous and sweaty and complains of feeling anxious.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide regimen and regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement
Explanation:The administration of glucose IV is not necessary as the patient is not experiencing hypoglycemia. Simply providing regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement is insufficient as the patient also requires a benzodiazepine regimen for alcohol withdrawal. A stat dose of bisoprolol is not appropriate as the patient’s sinus tachycardia is a result of alcohol withdrawal and will not be effectively treated with bisoprolol.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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