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Question 1
Correct
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A 71-year-old man attends the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of a warm, red, tender right lower leg. He thinks it is the result of banging his leg against a wooden stool at home. He has a past medical history of diabetes. He is unable to recall his drug history and is unsure of his allergies, although he recalls having ‘a serious reaction’ to an antibiotic as a child.
You diagnose cellulitis and prescribe an initial dose of flucloxacillin, which is shortly administered. Several minutes later, the nurse asks for an urgent review of the patient since the patient has become very anxious and has developed a hoarse voice. You attend the patient and note swelling of the tongue and lips. As you take the patient’s wrist to feel the rapid pulse, you also note cool fingers. A wheeze is audible on auscultation of the chest and patchy erythema is visible. You ask the nurse for observations and she informs you the respiratory rate is 29 and systolic blood pressure 90 mmHg. You treat the patient for an anaphylactic reaction, administering high-flow oxygen, intravenous (iv) fluid, adrenaline, hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine.
What is the dose of adrenaline you would use?Your Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 in 1000 intramuscular (im)
Explanation:Anaphylaxis and the ABCDE Approach
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate medical attention. It is characterized by respiratory and circulatory compromise, skin and mucosal changes, and can be triggered by various agents such as foods and drugs. In the case of anaphylaxis, the ABCDE approach should be used to assess the patient. Adrenaline is the most important drug in the treatment of anaphylaxis and should be administered at a dose of 0.5 mg (0.5 ml of 1 in 1000) intramuscularly. The response to adrenaline should be monitored, and further boluses may be required depending on the patient’s response. Other medications that should be given include chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone, as well as intravenous fluids. It is crucial to recognize and treat anaphylaxis promptly to prevent severe complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of depression and non-paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is brought to the emergency department by her daughter after being found unconscious with an empty bottle of medication. She is disoriented and complains of feeling nauseous. Shortly after arriving at the hospital, she experiences visual hallucinations and yellowing of her vision.
The patient denies smoking or substance abuse and leads a sedentary lifestyle. On examination, her pulse is irregular with a rate of 70 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. An ECG shows frequent premature ventricular contractions and ventricular bigeminy.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and what management should be implemented for this patient?Your Answer: Administer N-acetylcysteine based on body weight of the patient intravenously
Correct Answer: Administer digoxin-specific antibody fab fragments (Digibind) intravenously
Explanation:In cases of non-paroxysmal atrial fibrillation with a sedentary lifestyle, digoxin monotherapy is recommended as the first line treatment according to NICE guidelines from 2014. However, if a patient experiences severe digoxin toxicity due to an overdose with suicidal intention, Digibind, which contains digoxin-specific antibody fab fragments, is the recognized antidote. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal issues, visual disturbances, cardiovascular problems, and central nervous system complications. N-acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for paracetamol overdose, while naloxone and diazepam are used for opioid overdose and alcohol withdrawal, respectively. Cardioversion should be avoided if possible due to the risk of asystole, and if necessary, the lowest energy possible should be used.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65 year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. There was an associated dry cough, but no fever. Examination revealed scattered wheezes and some expiratory high-pitched sounds. C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal. Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry revealed the following report:
FEV1 51%
FVC 88%
FEV1/FVC 58%
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO)
Explanation:Respiratory Disorders: Bronchiolitis Obliterans, ARDS, Pneumocystis Pneumonia, COPD Exacerbation, and Idiopathic Pulmonary Hypertension
Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a respiratory disorder that may occur after bone marrow, heart, or lung transplant. It presents with an obstructive pattern on spirometry, low DLCO, and hypoxia. CT scan shows air trapping, and chest X-ray may show interstitial infiltrates with hyperinflation. BO may also occur in connective tissue diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic variety called cryptogenic organising pneumonia (COP). In contrast, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) patients deteriorate quickly, and pneumocystis pneumonia usually presents with normal clinical findings. Infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is associated with a productive cough and raised CRP, while idiopathic pulmonary hypertension has a restrictive pattern and inspiratory fine crepitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man has been hospitalized following an overdose. What is the most significant indicator of an increased likelihood of future suicide?
Your Answer: Making plans before the overdose to avoid discovery
Explanation:Factors indicating high risk of suicide
The concealment of an overdose indicates a serious intent to complete suicide, more so than other options. However, a previous history of overdoses does not necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a higher risk of suicide include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.
According to the Assessment of Suicide Risk clinical guide, protective factors against suicide include religious beliefs, social support, and being responsible for children. While being responsible for children is an important point to note in the management plan for a suicidal patient, it is not a factor that indicates a high risk of suicide.
It is crucial to identify the factors that suggest a high risk of suicide in order to provide appropriate care and management for the patient. However, it is also important to consider the patient’s wider circumstances and any protective factors that may be present. By taking a comprehensive approach, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients at risk of suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman, without past medical history, is referred by her General Practitioner to a Lipid Clinic. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 29 kg/m2. She has a background history of sleep apnoea and complains of weight gain, fatigue and constipation.
On examination, you notice that her skin is dry and she has scalp hair loss. Her laboratory results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Total cholesterol 8.2 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
Low density-lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l < 3.5 mmol/l
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol 1.8 mmol/l > 1.0 mmol/l
Triglycerides 1.2 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Measure thyroid-stimulating hormone and free T4
Explanation:Management of Hypercholesterolemia in a Patient with Suspected Hypothyroidism
To manage hypercholesterolemia in a patient with suspected hypothyroidism, it is important to confirm the diagnosis of hypothyroidism first. Blood tests for thyroid function, specifically thyroid-stimulating hormone and free T4, should be conducted. If hypothyroidism is confirmed, it should be treated accordingly.
Statin therapy, such as atorvastatin, is the first-line pharmacological agent for managing hypercholesterolemia. However, in this case, potential hypothyroidism needs to be treated first before starting statin therapy. If high cholesterol levels persist after treating hypothyroidism, a statin therapy can be started, and fibrate therapy can be added if necessary.
While dietary and lifestyle advice is important, it is unlikely to address the underlying problems in this case. Therefore, it is crucial to confirm and treat hypothyroidism before managing hypercholesterolemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An Emergency Department receives a 70-year-old man who slipped on ice and fell backwards, hitting his head on the kerb and landing on his right arm. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking bisoprolol and warfarin. His INR was 2.2 four days ago. There are no visible injuries on his arm or scalp. What is the best course of action for his head injury?
Your Answer: Discharge with standard head injury advice
Correct Answer: Arrange a CT head scan to be performed within 8 hours
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Correct
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A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?
Your Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications
Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.
On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes is urgently sent to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner (GP). The patient had seen her GP that morning and reported an episode of chest pain that she had experienced the day before. The GP suspected the pain was due to gastro-oesophageal reflux but had performed an electrocardiogram (ECG) and sent a troponin level to be certain. The ECG was normal, but the troponin level came back that afternoon as raised. The GP advised the patient to go to Accident and Emergency, given the possibility of reduced sensitivity to the symptoms of a myocardial infarction (MI) in this diabetic patient.
Patient Normal range
High-sensitivity troponin T 20 ng/l <14 ng/l
What should be done based on this test result?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat troponin level
Explanation:Management of Suspected Myocardial Infarction
Explanation:
When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of myocardial infarction (MI), a troponin level should be checked. If the level is only slightly raised, it does not confirm a diagnosis of MI, but neither does it rule it out. Therefore, a repeat troponin level should be performed at least 3 hours after the first level and sent as urgent.
In an MI, cardiac enzymes are released from dead myocytes into the blood, causing enzyme levels to rise and eventually fall as they are cleared from blood. If the patient has had an MI, the repeat troponin level should either be further raised or further reduced. If the level remains roughly constant, then an alternative cause should be sought, such as pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease, acute kidney injury, pericarditis, heart failure, or sepsis/systemic infection.
Admission to the Coronary Care Unit (CCU) is not warranted yet. Further investigations should be performed to ascertain whether an admission is needed or whether alternative diagnoses should be explored.
Safety-netting and return to the GP should include a repeat troponin level to see if the level is stable (arguing against an MI) or is rising/falling. A repeat electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed, and a thorough history and examination should be obtained to identify any urgent diagnoses that need to be explored before the patient is discharged.
Thrombolysis carries a risk for bleeding, so it requires a clear indication, which has not yet been obtained. Therefore, it should not be administered without proper evaluation.
The alanine transaminase (ALT) level has been used as a marker of MI in the past, but it has been since superseded as it is not specific for myocardial damage. In fact, it is now used as a component of liver function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents with haematemesis and melaena.
His initial blood pressure is 80/46 mmHg, and his heart rate is 114 bpm. He has a history of idiopathic cirrhosis and mild encephalopathy.
You begin resuscitation with colloid, blood, FFP, and dextrose.
What is the most suitable next medical intervention while waiting for an OGD to be arranged?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Terlipressin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Gastrointestinal Bleed
Terlipressin is a medication that causes constriction of blood vessels in the splanchnic region, which can help to control bleeding from varices, a common cause of gastrointestinal bleeding. In cases of acute gastrointestinal bleeding, glypressin is the preferred treatment to help with cardiovascular resuscitation. Beta-blockers may be used later on to manage portal hypertension on a chronic basis. Lactulose is another medication that may be considered to prevent the progression of encephalopathy.
While an OGD (oesophagogastroduodenoscopy) may be necessary to diagnose the cause of the bleeding, it is important to first focus on resuscitation and medical management. In cases where ascites is present, ciprofloxacin may be used as a prophylactic measure against spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. However, this is considered a secondary concern in the context of acute gastrointestinal bleeding. By prioritizing the appropriate treatments and interventions, healthcare providers can help to manage this potentially life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain that radiates from his right costal margin to his groin in waves. A urine dipstick reveals the presence of blood. What imaging modality is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis for this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-contrast CT KUB
Explanation:When renal colic is suspected, the preferred imaging method is non-contrast CT-KUB.
According to both NICE and the European Association of Urology, non-contrast CT-KUB is the most reliable test for detecting renal stones. While ultrasound can be used to check for hydronephrosis or hydroureter, it is not the primary option for identifying renal stones.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An adolescent with Down's syndrome is being seen at the cardiology clinic due to a heart murmur detected during a routine check-up. It is known that approximately half of infants with Down's syndrome have congenital heart defects, and the prevalence remains high throughout their lifespan. What are the five most frequent types of congenital heart disease observed in individuals with Down's syndrome? Please list them in order of decreasing incidence, starting with the most common cause and ending with the least common cause.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect, ventricular septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:Congenital Heart Defects in Down’s Syndrome
Congenital heart defects are common in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with five specific pathologies accounting for approximately 99% of cases. Atrioventricular septal defects and ventricular septal defects occur in roughly a third of cases each, while the remaining third is accounted for by the other three defects. Chromosomal abnormalities, such as trisomy 21, which is commonly associated with Down’s syndrome, can predispose individuals to congenital heart disease. Around 50% of people with Down’s syndrome have one of the five cardiac defects listed above, but the exact cause for this is not yet known.
The development of endocardial cushions is often impaired in individuals with Down’s syndrome, which can lead to defects in the production of the atrial and ventricular septae, as well as the development of the atrioventricular valves. This explains why atrioventricular septal defects are a common congenital defect in Down’s syndrome, as they involve a common atrioventricular orifice and valve. The severity of the defect depends on its size and the positioning of the leaflets of the common atrioventricular valve, which contribute to defining the degree of shunt. Additionally, the type of ventricular septal defects and atrial septal defects that commonly occur in Down’s syndrome can be explained by the impaired development of endocardial cushions. VSDs are usually of the inlet type, while ASDs are more commonly of the prium type, representing a failure of the endocardial cushion to grow in a superior direction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A woman gives birth via normal vaginal delivery. The midwife notices the baby has an umbilical hernia, a large, protruding tongue, flattened face, and low muscle tone. What is the most probable outcome of this woman's combined screening test at 13-weeks-pregnant with this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency
Explanation:NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who has never given birth is in labour at 37 weeks gestation. During examination, the cervix is found to be dilated at 7 cm, the head is in direct Occipito-Anterior position, the foetal station is at -1, and the head is palpable at 2/5 ths per abdomen. The cardiotocogram reveals late decelerations and a foetal heart rate of 100 beats/min, which persist for 15 minutes. What is the appropriate course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caesarian section
Explanation:The cardiotocogram shows late decelerations and foetal bradycardia, indicating the need for immediate delivery. Instrumental delivery is not possible and oxytocin and vaginal prostaglandin are contraindicated. The safest approach is an emergency caesarian section.
Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old hypertensive, diabetic smoker presents with sudden onset unilateral facial weakness, hemiparesis of the upper and lower limbs and sensory disturbance. All symptoms are on the same side. Global aphasia is also noted on examination. CT brain is normal. An ischaemic cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is diagnosed.
What is the most likely vascular territory involved?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left middle cerebral artery
Explanation:Understanding the Different Types of Stroke and Their Symptoms
Strokes can occur when there is a blockage or rupture of blood vessels in the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to brain cells. Different types of strokes can affect different areas of the brain, resulting in varying symptoms. Here are some examples:
– Left middle cerebral artery: This type of stroke can cause unilateral facial weakness, hemiplegia, and hemisensory loss. It can also lead to global aphasia, which is a language impairment that affects the dominant hemisphere of the brain (usually the left side). This occurs when the trunk of the left MCA is occluded, causing damage to Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas in the left perisylvian cortex.
– Right middle cerebral artery: A stroke in the right MCA can cause contralateral motor and sensory symptoms without speech disturbance.
– Basilar artery: This type of stroke can be particularly devastating, as it affects the brainstem and can lead to a locked-in state. Prognosis is poor.
– Right internal carotid artery: This is typically asymptomatic, as collateral circulation from the circle of Willis can compensate for the occlusion.
– Left vertebral artery: A stroke in the left vertebral artery can cause posterior circulation stroke, which can result in symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, gait disturbance, and vertigo.It’s important to recognize the symptoms of a stroke and seek medical attention immediately. Time is of the essence when it comes to treating strokes, as early intervention can help minimize damage to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is the most suitable to prescribe during the initial trimester of pregnancy for the given indication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emesis: cyclizine
Explanation:Pregnant women may experience complications due to poorly controlled thyroid disease, which can increase perinatal mortality and cause a ‘thyroid storm’ in the mother. Propylthiouracil is the preferred antithyroid drug as it is less likely to cross the placenta compared to carbimazole.
Hypertension during pregnancy can be pre-existing or pregnancy-induced. Pre-existing hypertension occurs when the blood pressure is already high before pregnancy or 20 weeks’ gestation, or the woman is already taking antihypertensive medication. Primary hypertension is the most common cause. Complications may include worsening hypertension and a sixfold increased risk of pre-eclampsia. Pregnancy-induced hypertension occurs when the blood pressure becomes high after 20 weeks’ gestation. It may be due to transient hypertension or pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia can lead to maternal complications such as pulmonary oedema, renal failure, liver failure, DIC, HELLP syndrome, CVA, and eclampsia. Fetal complications may include IUGR, hypoxia, preterm birth, and placental abruption. ACE inhibitors should not be used to treat hypertension during pregnancy as they are teratogenic and affect fetal urine production. Labetalol is the drug of choice, but methyldopa and nifedipine are suitable alternatives.
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common condition affecting up to 7% of pregnant women.
Harmful Drugs and Medical Conditions for Developing Fetuses
During pregnancy, certain drugs and medical conditions can harm the developing fetus. These harmful substances and conditions are known as teratogens. Some of the teratogens that can cause harm to a developing fetus include ACE inhibitors, alcohol, aminoglycosides, carbamazepine, chloramphenicol, cocaine, diethylstilbesterol, lithium, maternal diabetes mellitus, smoking, tetracyclines, thalidomide, and warfarin.
ACE inhibitors can cause renal dysgenesis and craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to craniofacial abnormalities. Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity, while carbamazepine can cause neural tube defects and craniofacial abnormalities. Chloramphenicol can cause grey baby syndrome, and cocaine can lead to intrauterine growth retardation and preterm labor.
Diethylstilbesterol can cause vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma, while lithium can cause Ebstein’s anomaly (atrialized right ventricle). Maternal diabetes mellitus can cause macrosomia, neural tube defects, polyhydramnios, preterm labor, and caudal regression syndrome. Smoking during pregnancy can lead to preterm labor and intrauterine growth retardation. Tetracyclines can cause discolored teeth, while thalidomide can cause limb reduction defects. Finally, warfarin can cause craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus.
It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these harmful substances and conditions to ensure the healthy development of their fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman without significant medical history visits her primary care physician complaining of a harsh, deep voice and painful swallowing that has persisted for four weeks. She also reports experiencing ear pain when swallowing. The patient has a history of smoking 20 packs of cigarettes per year and consuming 20 units of wine per week. Physical examination reveals no visible neck lumps or cervical lymphadenopathy, and direct visualization of the oropharynx is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx
Explanation:Diagnosis of Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Larynx
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the larynx is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a history of smoking, drinking, and referred pain to the ear from swallowing. The convergence projection theory explains the mechanism of referred pain from the larynx to the ear, where sensory afferent nerve fibers from cranial nerves and spinal roots converge along a common sensory neuronal pathway when entering the central nervous system. This convergence makes it difficult for the CNS to pinpoint the source of pain.
Although a Pancoast tumor is a plausible differential diagnosis, it typically causes Horner’s syndrome, which was not present in this patient. Additionally, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve has a long course and loops under the arch of the aorta, making it unlikely for an apical Pancoast tumor to cause hoarseness. Reinke’s edema, typically caused by recent strain on the vocal cords, was ruled out due to the lack of history suggesting this as the cause of the patient’s hoarseness.
There was also no history to suggest a viral cause of the patient’s hoarseness, which is typically associated with viral laryngitis. Vocal cord nodules, which often occur bilaterally after chronic strain on the vocal cords, were also ruled out. Overall, SCC of the larynx remains the most likely diagnosis for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman is seen in rheumatology clinic for her rheumatoid arthritis. Despite trying various medications, she has not experienced much relief from her symptoms. The rheumatologist decides to prescribe hydroxychloroquine for her.
What are the potential adverse effects that the patient should be informed about?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinopathy
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine is known to have a severe and permanent side effect on the retina, known as ‘bull’s eye retinopathy’, which can result in significant visual loss. Recent studies suggest that this side effect is more common than previously thought, and the Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends regular monitoring. While hydroxychloroquine may also cause keratopathy, this is considered less harmful. The other ocular effects listed as options are not associated with hydroxychloroquine.
Long-term steroid use is known to cause cataracts and open-angle glaucoma.
While case reports have linked bisphosphonates to scleritis and uveitis, there is limited data on this association. However, these conditions are commonly associated with rheumatological and inflammatory disorders.Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Drugs X and Y can both bind to receptor Z and activate an intracellular signalling pathway. At their highest concentrations, drug X can fully activate the pathway, while drug Y can only activate it to a moderate extent. This difference in efficacy can be attributed to the varying affinities of the drugs for the receptor or their ability to induce conformational changes in the receptor.
What term would you use to describe the action of drug X?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full agonist
Explanation:Agonists and Antagonists in Pharmacology
Drugs A and B are both types of agonists, which means they bind to a receptor and cause a biological response by increasing receptor activity. The efficacy of an agonist is determined by its ability to provoke maximal or sub-maximal receptor activity. Drug A is a full agonist, while drug B is a partial agonist. The degree of receptor occupancy is also important, which is determined by the affinity of the drug for the receptor and its concentration. Even low degrees of receptor occupancy can achieve a biological response for agonists.
On the other hand, an antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and inhibits receptor activity, causing no biological response. The degree of receptor occupancy is also important for antagonists, but a relatively high degree is needed for them to work. Affinity to the receptor is also a factor. The efficacy of an antagonist to prompt a biological response is technically zero.
There are two types of antagonists: competitive and non-competitive. A competitive antagonist has a similar structure to an agonist and binds to the same site on the receptor, reducing the binding sites available to the agonist. A non-competitive antagonist has a different structure to the agonist and may bind to a different site on the receptor. When the antagonist binds to the receptor, it may cause an alteration in the receptor structure or the interaction of the receptor with downstream effects in the cell. This prevents the normal consequences of agonist binding and biological actions are prevented.
the differences between agonists and antagonists is important in pharmacology, as it can help in the development of drugs that can either stimulate or inhibit certain biological responses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension during her first prenatal visit at 12 weeks with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mmHg. Her urine test reveals +++ protein. What is the best course of action to manage her hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman is being evaluated on the medical ward due to increasing episodes of dyspnoea, mainly on exertion. She has been experiencing fatigue more frequently over the past few months. Upon examination, she exhibits slight wheezing and bilateral pitting ankle oedema. Her medical history includes type I diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension, recurrent UTIs, and hypothyroidism. Her current medications consist of insulin, methotrexate, nitrofurantoin, and amlodipine. She has never smoked, drinks two units of alcohol per week, and does not use recreational drugs. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 152 g/l, a white cell count of 4.7 × 109/l, a sodium level of 142 mmol/l, a potassium level of 4.6 mmol/l, a urea level of 5.4 mmol/l, and a creatinine level of 69 µmol/l. Additionally, her N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) level is 350 pg/ml, which is higher than the normal value of < 100 pg/ml. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cor pulmonale
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Cor Pulmonale vs. Other Conditions
Cor pulmonale, or right ventricular failure due to pulmonary heart disease, is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as wheeze, increasing fatigue, and pitting edema. The patient’s history of taking drugs known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, such as methotrexate and nitrofurantoin, supports this diagnosis. Aortic stenosis, asthma, COPD, and left ventricular failure are all possible differential diagnoses, but each has distinguishing factors that make them less likely. Aortic stenosis would not typically present with peripheral edema, while asthma and COPD do not fit with the patient’s lack of risk factors and absence of certain symptoms. Left ventricular failure is also less likely due to the absence of signs such as decreased breath sounds and S3 gallop on heart auscultation. Overall, cor pulmonale is the most likely diagnosis for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with a tender nodule in the palm near the middle finger, which eventually becomes painless and leads to the formation of a superficial cord. This is followed by the contraction of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints of the finger. Fibrous nodules also develop on the penis. What is the inheritance pattern of this condition, which is more common in men?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Inheritance Patterns of Genetic Disorders
Genetic disorders can be inherited in different ways, depending on the specific condition. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in conditions such as Dupuytren’s contracture, which affects the palms and fingers. This condition is more common in men and can be passed down from one generation to the next with varying degrees of penetrance.
X-linked recessive conditions, such as haemophilia A and B, are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and typically affect males more severely than females. Duchenne muscular dystrophy and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency are also X-linked recessive disorders.
Autosomal recessive conditions, such as cystic fibrosis and sickle-cell disease, require two copies of the mutated gene to be present for the disorder to manifest. Hereditary haemochromatosis is another autosomal recessive disorder that affects iron metabolism.
X-linked dominant conditions, such as Alport syndrome and vitamin D-resistant rickets, are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and can affect both males and females.
Polygenic conditions, such as essential hypertension and diabetes mellitus, are influenced by multiple genes and environmental factors. These conditions can be more complex to understand and manage than single-gene disorders.
Understanding the inheritance patterns of genetic disorders can help individuals and families make informed decisions about their health and genetic testing options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old female visits the clinic with a complaint of urinary incontinence. She reports experiencing unintentional urine leakage when coughing or laughing. No urinary urgency or nocturia is reported, and a routine pelvic exam reveals no abnormalities. Despite consistent pelvic floor muscle exercises for the past five months, the patient's symptoms have not improved. She expresses a desire to avoid surgical interventions. What is the most suitable treatment option for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:For patients with stress incontinence who do not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and decline surgery, duloxetine may be a suitable option. However, if urge incontinence is the main issue, antimuscarinic (oxybutynin) or beta-3 agonist (mirabegron) medications may be more appropriate. In this case, since the patient has not seen improvement with pelvic floor muscle training and has declined surgery, duloxetine would be the best choice.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is one day post-anterior resection for rectal cancer. During the morning ward round, she complains of severe abdominal pain, refractory to IV paracetamol, which the patient is currently prescribed. The consultant examines the patient and feels that the pain is due to the procedure and that there are no signs of any acute complications. The patient reports that she is allergic to morphine. What is the most suitable course of action for managing her pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxycodone
Explanation:Common Pain Medications and Their Uses
Oxycodone is a potent synthetic opioid used for managing severe pain, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate morphine. Codeine phosphate, on the other hand, is a weak opioid primarily used for mild to moderate pain and would not be suitable for severe pain management. Gabapentin is indicated for neuropathic pain and is not recommended for acute pain management, such as post-operative pain. Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for musculoskeletal pain and biliary/renal colic, but it is a weak analgesic and not effective for severe pain. Tramadol is a weak opioid prescribed for moderate pain. Understanding the differences between these medications can help healthcare providers choose the appropriate treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male comes to you with a painful and swollen knee that has been bothering him for a week. He experiences stiffness in the morning. He has been experiencing pain while urinating for three weeks and has noticed red and painful eyes this morning. He has well-controlled asthma and no other medical conditions. He admits to having unprotected sexual intercourse four weeks ago and has not been tested for a sexually transmitted infection. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. The patient’s history of unprotected sexual intercourse increases the likelihood of Chlamydia trachomatis being the cause of this condition, as it is the most common culprit. Ankylosing spondylitis typically presents with back pain and may be accompanied by iritis/uveitis, but it does not cause urethritis. Disseminated gonococcal disease is associated with tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Although gout is rare in this age group, it should still be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients with swollen and painful joints.
Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).
Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.
Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25 year old patient presents to the accident and emergency department after being involved in a fight an hour ago. Due to being intoxicated, the patient is unable to provide much history. Upon examination, the patient has significant facial swelling on the lower left side and bruising around the left eye. The patient does not experience tenderness when palpated on either side of the nose. However, when asked to bite down, the patient complains of an unusual sensation in their mouth, and the left side teeth come together before the right side. Additionally, two teeth are missing on the left side. What would be the most appropriate next investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mandible radiography with (orthopantogram)
Explanation:Imaging for Mandibular Fractures: Options and Considerations
Mandibular fractures are less common now with the use of seat belts in motor vehicles, but they still occur, especially in young males. A standard mandible series, including a PA view, Towne view, and left and right oblique views, along with an orthopantogram (OPG), can provide a full evaluation of the mandible and teeth. If further imaging is needed, a CT of the facial skeleton and mandible may be necessary.
In cases of suspected mandibular fractures, it is important to document the function of the marginal mandibular nerve and sensation over the chin. If teeth are missing, a chest X-ray may be necessary to check for inhaled foreign bodies. Lateral facial radiographs are not typically used for the facial skeleton, and MRI is not the first choice for bony injuries but can be useful for evaluating TMJ pathology.
It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of each imaging option, especially in terms of ionizing radiation exposure. Chest radiographs and CT scans involve higher doses of radiation and should not be the first choice unless necessary. Overall, a thorough evaluation of mandibular fractures requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of feeling sad and low since giving birth to her daughter 2 weeks ago. She reports difficulty sleeping and believes that her baby does not like her and that they are not bonding, despite breastfeeding. She has a strong support system, including the baby's father, and has no history of depression. She denies any thoughts of self-harm or substance abuse, and you do not believe the baby is in danger. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:The recommended first line treatment for moderate to severe depression in pregnancy or post-natal period for women without a history of severe depression is a high intensity psychological intervention, such as CBT, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. If this is not accepted or symptoms do not improve, an antidepressant such as a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) or tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) should be used. Mindfulness may be helpful for women with persistent subclinical depressive symptoms. Social services should only be involved if there is a risk to someone in the household. The British National Formulary (BNF) advises against using zopiclone while breastfeeding as it is present in breast milk.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Ms. Johnson, a 26-year-old marketing executive, was diagnosed with a left tubal ectopic pregnancy 3 weeks ago. Despite being treated with methotrexate, her hCG levels did not improve. As a result, surgical intervention was deemed necessary. Ms. Johnson has no notable medical history and is in good health. What type of surgery is the surgeon most likely to perform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salpingectomy
Explanation:The patient did not respond to methotrexate treatment for ectopic pregnancy, as indicated by the βhCG levels. Additionally, there is no history of increased infertility risk. According to NICE guidelines, salpingectomy is recommended for women with tubal ectopic unless they have other infertility risk factors, such as damage to the contralateral tube. Alternatively, salpingostomy may be offered. Women who undergo salpingostomy should be informed that up to 20% may require further treatment, which could include methotrexate and/or salpingectomy.
Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.
During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A systematic review and meta-analysis is used to look at the effects on myocardial events, using a new cholesterol lowering medication. The analysis shows that the review has a high level of heterogeneity.
What analysis should next take place to determine the possible cause of the high levels of heterogeneity in a review of this kind conducted on elderly patients?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sub-group analysis
Explanation:Meta-Analysis Techniques and Sub-Group Analysis
Meta-analysis is a statistical technique used in systematic reviews to combine data from multiple studies. However, the level of heterogeneity among the studies can affect the choice of analysis technique. A high level of heterogeneity suggests that any differences between the studies are due to actual differences, and sub-group analysis should be performed to determine the cause. Fixed-effects meta-analysis assumes that any difference between studies is due to random chance and is suitable for reviews with low heterogeneity. Random-effects meta-analysis is the next choice for reviews with high heterogeneity, but it does not determine the cause. Intention to treat analysis is used in randomized controlled trials to prevent loss to follow-up bias. Number needed to treat analysis does not provide information about the cause of heterogeneity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old married man was on a business trip in Thailand when he developed diarrhoea that lasted for 1 week. He returned to the United States and, a few weeks later, visited his primary care physician (PCP) complaining of pain in his knee and both heels. His eyes have become red and he has developed some painless, red, confluent plaques on his hands and feet, which his PCP has diagnosed as psoriasis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Reactive Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis
Reactive arthritis is a condition characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. It typically occurs 1-3 weeks after an initial infection, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Salmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter being the most common causative agents. In addition to the classic triad of symptoms, patients may also experience keratoderma blennorrhagica and buccal and lingual ulcers.
When considering differential diagnoses, it is important to note that inflammatory arthritides can be seropositive or seronegative. Seronegative spondyloarthritides include ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, enteropathic arthritis, reactive arthritis, and gonococcal arthritis.
Gonococcal arthritis is a form of septic arthritis that typically affects a single joint and presents with a hot, red joint and systemic signs of infection. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, does not present with any clinical features in this patient. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, which is less likely in a patient with a recent history of travel and diarrhea. Psoriatic arthritis is unlikely to present simultaneously with psoriasis in a young, previously healthy patient without any prior history of either condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes in with a sudden onset of severe central chest pain that has been going on for an hour. He has no significant medical history. His vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 90 bpm and blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg. An electrocardiogram reveals 5 mm of ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads (V2–V4). He was given aspirin (300 mg) and diamorphine (5 mg) in the ambulance. What is the definitive treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Percutaneous coronary intervention
Explanation:Treatment Options for ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to save the myocardium. The two main treatment options are primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and fibrinolysis. Primary PCI is the preferred option for patients who present within 12 hours of symptom onset and can undergo the procedure within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given.
In addition to PCI or fibrinolysis, patients with acute MI should receive dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and a second anti-platelet drug, such as clopidogrel or ticagrelor, for up to 12 months. Patients undergoing PCI should also receive unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin, such as enoxaparin.
While glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors like tirofiban may be used to reduce the risk of immediate vascular occlusion in intermediate- and high-risk patients undergoing PCI, they are not the definitive treatment. Similarly, fibrinolysis with tissue plasminogen activator should only be given if primary PCI cannot be delivered within the recommended timeframe.
Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial for patients with ST-elevation myocardial infarction to improve outcomes and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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