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  • Question 1 - A patient with persistent sinusitis is scheduled for endoscopic surgery to address any...

    Correct

    • A patient with persistent sinusitis is scheduled for endoscopic surgery to address any blockages in the drainage pathways and perform balloon catheter dilation of the paranasal sinus openings. During the procedure, the surgeon aims to access the middle meatus of the nasal cavity to insert a cannula into the ostia.
      Which of the paranasal sinuses empties into the sphenoethmoidal recess?

      Your Answer: Sphenoidal sinus

      Explanation:

      Sinus Drainage Pathways in the Nasal Cavity

      The nasal cavity contains several sinuses that drain into different areas of the cavity. The sphenoidal sinus drains into the sphenoethmoid recess, which is located posterior and superior to the superior concha. The anterior ethmoidal sinus drains into the middle meatus via the semilunar hiatus, as does the maxillary sinus. The frontal sinus, on the other hand, drains into the infundibulum of the middle meatus. Finally, the middle ethmoidal sinus drains to the ethmoid bulla of the middle meatus. Understanding these drainage pathways is important for diagnosing and treating sinus issues.

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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old receptionist presents to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old receptionist presents to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Clinic for a follow-up visit. She experiences sudden-onset bouts of vertigo and tinnitus that are debilitating and leave her confined to bed until the episode subsides. The initial episode occurred 5 years ago and since then she has noticed a slight decrease in hearing in her left ear. She has undergone a thorough evaluation, and an MRI scan revealed no abnormalities.
      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Ménière’s Disease and Other Causes of Vertigo

      Ménière’s disease is a condition characterized by episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. Patients may also experience a sense of fullness or pressure in the ear before an attack. While initially unilateral, Ménière’s can progress to become bilateral and cause a fluctuating, progressive sensorineural hearing loss and permanent tinnitus. Multiple sclerosis and acoustic neuroma can cause similar symptoms, but can be ruled out with a normal MRI scan. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) can also cause vertigo and nystagmus, but is less severe and does not include tinnitus or hearing loss. Labyrinthitis may cause similar symptoms, but is typically characterized by sudden-onset, severe, constant vertigo that lasts for several weeks, whereas Ménière’s attacks are episodic. Accurately distinguishing between these conditions is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 3 - A 57-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with a complaint of ongoing...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with a complaint of ongoing right ear pain and associated hearing loss for several weeks. He denies any significant discharge from his ear and has not experienced any fevers. He reports feeling pain in his jaw that sometimes clicks. During the examination, the doctor observes cerumen in the right ear and no inflammation. The tympanic membrane appears normal. The patient experiences pain when moving his jaw. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: TMJ dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Ear Pain and Hearing Loss

      Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction as a Likely Cause of Hearing Loss

      When infection is ruled out and cerumen is not the culprit, temporomandibular joint (TMJ) dysfunction becomes a probable diagnosis for ear pain and hearing loss. TMJ dysfunction often involves pain that radiates to the ear through the auriculotemporal nerve and crepitus in the jaw. Treatment options for TMJ dysfunction include rest, massage, relaxation techniques, bite guards, NSAIDs, and steroid injections.

      Other Possible Causes of Ear Pain and Discharge

      Otitis externa, or inflammation of the external auditory canal, typically presents with watery discharge, pain, and itching. Cholesteatoma, a benign tumor that can erode bone and cause cranial nerve symptoms, produces a foul-smelling white discharge and an inflammatory lesion on otoscopy. Mastoiditis, an infection that spreads from the middle ear to the mastoid air cells, causes fever, swelling, and unilateral ear prominence. Acute otitis media, a common childhood infection, results in sudden ear pain and bulging of the tympanic membrane, which may rupture and release purulent discharge.

      Conclusion

      Ear pain and hearing loss can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition. While TMJ dysfunction is a possible diagnosis that requires specific management, other conditions such as otitis externa, cholesteatoma, mastoiditis, and acute otitis media should also be considered and treated accordingly.

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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old patient presents with a lump in the neck. On examination, there...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with a lump in the neck. On examination, there is a 2-cm smooth, round lump at the anterior border of the upper third of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cystic hygroma

      Correct Answer: Branchial cyst

      Explanation:

      Common Neck Swellings and Their Characteristics

      There are several types of neck swellings that can occur, each with their own unique characteristics. Here are some common neck swellings and their descriptions:

      1. Branchial cyst – This type of cyst typically appears as a painless, smooth swelling in young adults. The cause is unknown, but surgical removal is usually recommended to prevent the development of an abscess.

      2. Goitre – A goitre, or thyroid lump, is a swelling that rises on swallowing and is usually located in the midline of the neck.

      3. Acute parotitis – This condition presents as a painful swelling in front of the ear.

      4. Cystic hygroma – These benign cystic structures are typically found in infants and are located in the posterior triangle of the neck.

      5. Thyroglossal cyst – This type of cyst is located in the midline of the neck and moves as the tongue protrudes.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you notice any unusual swelling in your neck, as some of these conditions may require treatment.

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  • Question 5 - A 47-year-old woman presents with a lump in the upper anterior triangle of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presents with a lump in the upper anterior triangle of her neck. She reports that it has been present for a few weeks and only started to bother her after a friend pointed it out. She denies any other symptoms such as weight loss or fevers. She recalls her mother having a similar swelling removed but does not remember the diagnosis. On examination, there is a small, smooth, non-tender, mobile lump. The skin overlying the lump appears normal, and it does not move on swallowing or tongue protrusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroid goitre

      Correct Answer: Sebaceous cyst

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between various types of lumps and bumps on the body

      When it comes to lumps and bumps on the body, it can be difficult to determine what they are and whether they require medical attention. Here are some common types of lumps and their characteristics to help differentiate between them.

      Sebaceous cysts are small, smooth lumps that are caused by a blocked hair follicle. They are attached to the skin and may have a central punctum with a horn on top. If infected, they can become tender and the skin over them may become red and hot. Excision may be necessary if they are unsightly or infected.

      Lipomas are deep to the skin and are typically soft, doughy, and mobile. An ultrasound or biopsy may be necessary to rule out sarcoma or liposarcoma.

      Thyroid masses may be indicative of thyroid carcinoma or goitre. A thyroid malignancy would typically be hard, firm, and non-tender, while a goitre can be smooth or multinodular. Symptoms associated with thyroid disease may also be present.

      Sternocleidomastoid tumors are congenital lumps that appear within the first few weeks of life and are located beneath the sternocleidomastoid muscle. They can restrict contralateral head movement.

      It is important to seek medical attention if any lump or bump is causing discomfort or changes in appearance.

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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician to discuss the possibility of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician to discuss the possibility of tonsillectomy referral. She has experienced four instances of acute tonsillitis annually for the past five years. Some of these have necessitated antibiotics while others have been treated conservatively. As a graduate student, each of these occurrences has been debilitating, causing her to miss multiple days of classes. What is an indication for referral for tonsillectomy for tonsillitis?

      Your Answer: Episodes of tonsillitis are disabling and prevent normal functioning

      Explanation:

      When to Consider Tonsillectomy for Recurrent Tonsillitis

      Recurrent tonsillitis can be a debilitating condition that affects daily functioning. However, before considering tonsillectomy as a treatment option, it is important to confirm the diagnosis of recurrent tonsillitis through history and clinical examination. Additionally, it should be noted that tonsillectomy may only prevent recurrent acute attacks of tonsillitis and not sore throats due to other causes.

      The national clinical guidelines suggest different criteria for referral for tonsillectomy based on the frequency and severity of tonsillitis episodes. One severe episode may not be enough to warrant surgery, while five or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in the preceding year may be an indication for referral. However, it is important to consider whether the frequency of episodes is increasing or decreasing, as the natural history of tonsillitis is for episodes to become less frequent over time.

      For those with three or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in each of the preceding two or three years, referral for surgery may also be considered. However, it is important to keep in mind that tonsillectomy requires a short hospital admission, general anaesthetic, and can be painful. Recovery time can also result in a loss of time from education or work.

      Overall, the decision to consider tonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the frequency and severity of episodes, as well as the potential risks and benefits of surgery.

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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old man presents with increasing pain on the left side of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with increasing pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain on and off for about 2 weeks, particularly during meals. However, the pain has increased significantly over the last 2 days. During examination, he is found to be febrile at 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals poor dental hygiene and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dental abscess

      Correct Answer: Left submandibular gland infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Left Submandibular Gland Infection

      Left submandibular gland infection can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them for proper treatment. Sialolithiasis, or a submandibular gland calculus, is a common cause and presents with dull pain around the gland, worsened by mealtimes or sour foods. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes sharp tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth. Mumps parotitis affects younger patients and presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth. However, if left untreated, it can progress to Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth. Ludwig’s angina typically follows a dental infection and requires early specialist intervention to secure the airway and prevent fatal consequences.

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  • Question 8 - A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and fullness, bilateral yellow nasal discharge and difficulty smelling. Prior to this episode she describes having a minor cold, with sore throat and clear nasal discharge. She has no past medical history. On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C and there is mild tenderness to palpation over the maxillofacial area. There are no nasal polyps. Her throat appears normal.
      What should be included in the management of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: High-dose intranasal corticosteroid

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Sinusitis: Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use

      Acute sinusitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and pain. Self-care measures such as paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used to manage symptoms of pain or fever. However, if symptoms persist for around ten days or more without improvement, a high-dose nasal corticosteroid may be prescribed for 14 days. While nasal corticosteroids may improve symptoms, they are not likely to affect how long they last and could cause systemic effects.

      IV antibiotics should only be used in severe cases of systemic infection, intraorbital or periorbital complications, or intracranial complications. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses have shown that antibiotics, when compared with placebo, did not significantly increase the proportion of people in whom symptoms were cured or improved at 3–5 days follow-up. At 7–15 days follow-up, moderate quality evidence showed a statistically significant difference in effectiveness, but the clinical difference was small. This was not evident in the longer term.

      For acute sinusitis following a cold, symptoms for <10 days are more commonly associated with a cold rather than viral or bacterial acute sinusitis. Prolonged symptoms (for around ten days or more without improvement) can be caused by either viral (more likely) or bacterial acute sinusitis. Only 0.5–2% of viral sinusitis is complicated by bacterial infection. Even then bacterial sinusitis is usually self-limiting and does not routinely need antibiotics. There is no evidence that topical antibiotics are useful in acute or chronic sinusitis. Understanding Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use for Acute Sinusitis

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  • Question 9 - A 64-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for hoarseness that has persisted for 6...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for hoarseness that has persisted for 6 weeks. He smokes 25 cigarettes a day and has been experiencing a chronic cough for the past 3 months. He denies any episodes of coughing up blood. During an initial examination, an otolaryngologist observes that the right vocal fold is immobile while speaking.
      What is the most probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Left-Sided Vocal Cord Paralysis

      Left-sided vocal cord paralysis can be caused by various factors, including nerve damage and stroke. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is a common cause, resulting in hoarseness due to the vocal cord lying in a paramedian position. This type of nerve damage is often associated with an underlying lung malignancy with mediastinal lymph node involvement. On the other hand, left glossopharyngeal nerve palsy does not affect the larynx, while left superior laryngeal nerve palsy is closely related to the recurrent laryngeal nerve and is also more common on the left side. Cerebrovascular accidents involving the left middle or anterior cerebral artery can also cause vocal cord paralysis, but the history provided does not suggest a stroke. Accurately identifying the cause of left-sided vocal cord paralysis is crucial for appropriate management and treatment.

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  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old farmer visits the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of severe pain in...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old farmer visits the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of severe pain in the left parotid area for the past week. The pain is triggered when the patient is eating or about to eat. The GP suspects a parotid duct stone.
      Regarding the parotid gland, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: It has secretomotor action via the glossopharyngeal and auriculotemporal nerves

      Explanation:

      The parotid gland is innervated by parasympathetic nerves originating in the inferior salivary nucleus at the lower pons. These nerves travel along the glossopharyngeal and auriculotemporal nerves, and synapse in the otic ganglion before hitch-hiking with the auriculotemporal nerve to reach the gland. Injury to these nerves during parotidectomy can cause Frey syndrome. The gland consists of superficial and deep lobes separated by the neurovascular bundle, and its duct passes around the anterior border of the masseter muscle before piercing the buccinator muscle and exiting opposite the second upper molar tooth. The gland produces mainly serous secretion, which is why salivary stones are rarely found in the parotid gland.

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  • Question 11 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner with severe right ear pain,...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner with severe right ear pain, swelling, and itching. Her mother reports that it all started after her daughter began swimming lessons two months ago. During examination, the clinician notes tenderness when pulling the right ear upwards. Otoscopy is challenging due to the painful, swollen ear canal and white discharge. Additionally, the girl has tender cervical lymph nodes on the right side below the ear and experiences pain when moving her jaw sideways. She has a mild fever (38.3 °C), but the rest of the examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical acetic acid 2% spray (with wick placement) and oral antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for this patient’s severe otitis externa involves a combination of topical acetic acid 2% spray with wick placement and oral antibiotics. The use of wick placement is necessary due to the swelling in the ear canal, which can hinder the effectiveness of the topical solution. Oral antibiotics are necessary in cases where the infection has spread to adjacent areas, as evidenced by the patient’s tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Flucloxacillin or clarithromycin are commonly used for severe cases. Cleaning and irrigation of the ear canal may be performed under otoscope guidance to remove debris and promote better absorption of topical medication. Oral aminoglycosides are effective but should only be used if the tympanic membrane is intact. NSAIDs can provide symptomatic relief but are not sufficient for treating severe otitis externa. While topical acetic acid 2% spray is a first-line treatment for mild cases, a combination of topical therapy and oral antibiotics is necessary for severe cases.

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  • Question 12 - A 12-year-old girl is brought to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is brought to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Department by her mother who informs the Consultant of her repeated nosebleeds. She is an avid basketball player, and her mother has noticed multiple bruises after games. The Consultant goes through the list of recent laboratory investigations ordered by the girl’s Paediatrician. Full blood count (FBC), haemoglobin, platelet count, white blood cell count and clotting times [prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time (PTT)] were all found to be within normal values. Additional haematological test results were also normal, including activity assays for factor VIII and XIII, platelet aggregation assay and von Willebrand factor (vWF) antigen.
      Which of the following physical findings would give the most effective information regarding her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bruises in the shins

      Correct Answer: Hypermobility of fingers and toes

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Bleeding Problems with Normal Haematological Values

      Introduction:
      Bleeding problems with normal haematological values can be challenging to diagnose. This article discusses possible diagnoses for such cases based on physical findings.

      Hypermobility of Fingers and Toes:
      Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, a collagen-based disorder, is a possible diagnosis for bleeding problems with normal haematological values. This is associated with hypermobility of the fingers and toes, ocular cutaneous haemorrhages, joint hypermobility, and increased skin elasticity.

      Subconjunctival Haemorrhages:
      Subconjunctival haemorrhages can be caused by ocular or systemic factors. Systemic causes include hypertension, diabetes, and bleeding disorders. It is difficult to diagnose the specific cause without further investigation.

      Bruises in the Shins:
      Easy bruising of the skin can be attributed to platelet disorders, drugs, and hepatic disorders. However, since the coagulation profiles and levels of clotting factors are normal, it is difficult to diagnose the specific cause. Further investigation is necessary.

      Petechial Rashes on Pressure Sites:
      Petechial rashes, conjunctival haemorrhages, and bruising over the shins can indicate an associated bleeding disorder. However, normal haematological values make it difficult to diagnose a specific condition.

      Visual Acuity Defects and Albinism:
      Normal haematological values do not rule out bleeding disorders. Hermansky–Pudlak syndrome, an autosomal recessive condition, can cause visual acuity defects and albinism along with bleeding tendencies. However, the platelet aggregation assay is typically deranged in these cases, which is not the case in this scenario.

      Possible Diagnoses for Bleeding Problems with Normal Haematological Values and Associated Physical Findings

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  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old boy is presented to a paediatrician with a cystic mass on...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is presented to a paediatrician with a cystic mass on the right lateral aspect of his neck, just below the angle of the jaw. The mother reports intermittent discharge from a small pit located just in front of the lower anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. What is the cause of this cyst, resulting from the failure of proliferation of which mesenchyme?

      Your Answer: First pharyngeal arch

      Correct Answer: Second pharyngeal arch

      Explanation:

      During embryonic development, the pharyngeal arches give rise to various structures in the head and neck. The second arch forms the external auditory meatus and can sometimes lead to the formation of a branchial cleft cyst. The third arch becomes the common carotid artery and gives rise to the stylopharyngeus muscle. The first arch becomes the maxillary and mandibular prominences and gives rise to the muscles of mastication. The fourth arch forms the laryngeal cartilages and is innervated by the superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve. The fifth arch regresses quickly. Understanding the development of these arches is important in understanding the anatomy and function of the head and neck.

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  • Question 14 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back pain for the past 6 months. Her husband, who accompanies her, also mentions that she has been acting strangely during this time. On examination, a nodule is found in the patient's neck, just left of the midline. Further investigations reveal an elevated parathyroid hormone level and abnormal levels of various electrolytes. The patient undergoes surgery and subsequently develops hoarseness. What is the most probable cause of the patient's voice change?

      Your Answer: Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Effects of Nerve Damage on Laryngeal Function

      Hypercalcaemia and Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Hypercalcaemia, often caused by parathyroid adenoma, can lead to transection of the recurrent laryngeal nerve during surgical removal of the adenoma. This can result in hoarseness.

      External Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Transection of the external laryngeal nerve can affect the cricothyroid muscle, leading to difficulty in increasing the pitch of one’s voice.

      Internal Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Damage to the internal laryngeal nerve can impair sensation in the pharynx above the vocal cords, but it does not cause hoarseness.

      Spinal Accessory Nerve Damage
      Damage to the spinal accessory nerve can impair shoulder shrugging and head rotation.

      Vagus Nerve Damage
      Damage to the vagus nerve can cause widespread effects involving autonomic dysfunction.

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  • Question 15 - A 38-year-old man with a tumour of the left submandibular gland underwent surgery....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man with a tumour of the left submandibular gland underwent surgery. While operating on the left submandibular gland, the lingual nerve was damaged. What is the most probable postoperative complaint of the patient?

      Your Answer: Loss of taste sensation over the posterior third of the left side of the tongue

      Correct Answer: Loss of taste sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the left side of the tongue

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lingual Nerve Injury: Effects on Tongue Sensation and Movement

      The lingual nerve is a crucial component of the mandibular nerve, responsible for providing sensory innervation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and floor of the mouth. It also carries taste sensation fibers from the facial nerve via the chorda tympani special sensory nerves. Injuries to the lingual nerve can result in numbness, dysesthesia, paraesthesiae, and dysgeusia, affecting the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the same side. Such injuries can occur during invasive dental and surgical procedures.

      However, it is important to note that the lingual nerve does not contain a motor component, and thus, it does not affect tongue movement. Deviation of the tongue to either side is not expected in cases of lingual nerve injury.

      It is also worth noting that the lingual nerve only supplies sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. The posterior third of the tongue, on the other hand, is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve. Therefore, lingual nerve injury does not affect general sensation in the posterior third of the tongue.

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  • Question 16 - A surgeon prepares to excise the submandibular gland for a suspected malignancy in...

    Correct

    • A surgeon prepares to excise the submandibular gland for a suspected malignancy in a pediatric patient. He incises the skin and the platysma in the neck below the gland, then proceeds to dissect the gland free of its bed. As he dissects the deep lobe, he notes the submandibular duct, which he mobilises, ligates and cuts anteriorly.
      When cutting the duct, which of the following needs the most care to be taken to avoid damage?

      Your Answer: The lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland and Related Structures

      The submandibular gland is composed of a superficial and deep part, with the facial artery passing between the gland and mandible and the facial vein indenting it superiorly. To access the deep lobe of the gland, both structures must be ligated and cut. The mandibular branch of the facial nerve is at risk of damage during the initial incision, while the lingual nerve is closely related to the submandibular duct and carries various fibers. The facial artery and vein may also be ligated during dissection, but are not as intimately related to the duct as the lingual nerve. The lesser petrosal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve carries parasympathetic supply to the parotid gland and synapses in the otic ganglion.

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  • Question 17 - A 5-year-old child, who was born in Germany, is brought to the General...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child, who was born in Germany, is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother because of recurrent sinus infections and failure to thrive. She is also concerned that the child has had diarrhoea for a few months, which is not resolving.
      During the examination, you notice several shiny, pink masses occupying the nasal canals.
      What is the most suitable initial step in treating this patient?

      Your Answer: Treatment with loratadine

      Correct Answer: Testing in which pilocarpine is administered

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Testing for Nasal Polyps in Children: The Role of Pilocarpine Sweat Test

      Nasal polyps in children should raise suspicion of cystic fibrosis (CF), especially when accompanied by other symptoms. The gold standard test for CF diagnosis is the sweat test, which involves administering the direct-acting muscarinic agonist pilocarpine and measuring the chloride content of sweat. Loratadine, a second-generation antihistamine, is not the first step in managing nasal polyps. Genetic testing is more expensive and time-consuming than the sweat test and is not the initial diagnostic choice. Biopsy is not necessary for benign nasal polyps. Bacterial culture is not relevant to the pathology underlying nasal polyps in children.

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  • Question 18 - A 52-year-old woman with a history of intermittent ringing sound in her left...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman with a history of intermittent ringing sound in her left ear for the last six months presents to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Department. She describes the ringing sound to be pulsatile in nature. She has no history of fever, hearing loss, trauma or any recent ear infections. Her past medical history includes a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis under remission for the past two years. Clinical examination of the head and neck is unremarkable.
      Which is the most appropriate investigation which will help to reach a final diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) (contrast-enhanced) scan of the temporal bone

      Explanation:

      Investigating Pulsatile Tinnitus in a Patient with Multiple Sclerosis

      Pulsatile tinnitus, a constant ringing or humming sound perceived in the absence of actual sound, can be psychologically debilitating to the patient. In a patient with multiple sclerosis, pulsatile tinnitus may be caused by spontaneous spasm of middle ear muscles. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging for all patients with pulsatile tinnitus to identify the underlying cause. In this case, contrast-enhanced CT scanning of the temporal bone is the best investigation to identify middle ear/osseous pathology. Tympanometry and otoscopy can also be valuable initial investigations for suspected middle ear pathologies. Magnetic resonance angiography is not the best investigation in this scenario as the patient’s history suggests a muscular cause of pulsatile tinnitus. Weber’s test is not relevant in this case as the patient does not report any hearing loss.

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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has noticed a gradual decrease in hearing on her left side over the past six months. She also reports difficulty walking and a tendency to lean towards the left side. Upon referral to the ENT Department, the Consultant observes nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia, as well as sensorineural loss in her left ear. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Plain computerised tomography (CT) scan

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acoustic Neuroma: An Overview

      Acoustic neuroma is a type of tumor that affects the vestibular nerve and can cause symptoms such as unilateral hearing loss and unsteady gait. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the most reliable test for detecting acoustic neuroma, as it can detect tumors as small as 1-1.3 mm. MRI with gadolinium contrast is recommended in cases where brainstem testing is abnormal or there is a high suspicion of vestibular schwannoma.

      Plain computerized tomography (CT) scan can provide prognostic information on post-operative hearing loss, but it cannot detect all cases of acoustic neuroma. Otoscopy is of limited or no value in cases of sensorineural deafness.

      Pure tone audiometry (PTA) is the best initial screening test for acoustic neuroma, as only 5% of patients will have a normal test. Brainstem-evoked response audiometry can be used as a further screening measure in patients with unexplained asymmetries on standard audiometric testing.

      Vestibular testing has limited utility as a screening test for acoustic neuroma, but a decreased or absent caloric response on the affected side may be seen in some cases. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose acoustic neuroma and guide treatment decisions.

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  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of hearing loss and ringing in...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of hearing loss and ringing in her ears for the past six months. She experienced this after being hospitalized for two weeks due to a soft tissue infection that was complicated by a bloodstream infection caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. During her hospital stay, she was treated with flucloxacillin, gentamicin, and vancomycin. The tinnitus is present in both ears, and her ear and neurological examinations are normal. What is the probable underlying cause of this patient's tinnitus?

      Your Answer: Ototoxic medication

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hearing loss and tinnitus

      Gentamicin-induced ototoxicity

      A patient presenting with bilateral tinnitus and hearing loss after recent use of gentamicin is likely experiencing ototoxicity from this antibiotic. Gentamicin can damage the vestibular system and cause sensorineural hearing loss.

      Bacteraemia and viral labyrinthitis

      Bacteraemia, especially from methicillin-resistant S. aureus, would not cause tinnitus. Viral labyrinthitis may cause tinnitus, but it is usually accompanied by severe vertigo and hearing loss.

      Hyperlipidaemia and noise-induced hearing loss

      Hyperlipidaemia, particularly hypertriglyceridaemia, has been linked to an increased risk of noise-induced hearing loss and tinnitus. A low-cholesterol diet and atorvastatin may help alleviate these symptoms.

      Ménière’s disease and betahistine

      Ménière’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear characterized by excess endolymph, leading to severe vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Betahistine is a medication used to manage the symptoms of Ménière’s disease, but there is no cure for this condition.

      Otosclerosis and conductive hearing loss

      Otosclerosis is a condition that affects the bony ossicles of the ear, leading to conductive hearing loss. It results from abnormal sclerosis of the malleus, incus, and stapes, which are crucial for sound conduction from the outer to the inner ear.

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  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old woman presents following a fall. During an assessment of her fall,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents following a fall. During an assessment of her fall, she complained of balance problems, nausea and dizziness whenever she moves her head or looks up, eg to hang laundry on her washing line outside. She denies loss of consciousness and did not injure herself during the fall. Her past medical history consists of osteoarthritis of the knees and lower back.
      On examination, her gait and balance and neurological examination are normal and there are no injuries. The Hallpike test is positive.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s vertigo?

      Your Answer: Admit for brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Correct Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that can cause dizziness and vertigo. The best first-line management option for BPPV is the Epley manoeuvre, which can reposition the debris in the vestibular canals and provide rapid relief. If symptoms persist, investigations may be necessary to rule out more serious brain pathologies, but a brain MRI is not typically required for a BPPV diagnosis. Medications such as prochlorperazine or betahistine may help with symptoms in the short term, but they do not treat the underlying cause. Vestibular retraining exercises, such as Brandt-Daroff exercises, can also be effective if symptoms persist despite the Epley manoeuvre.

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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old man is referred to an otolaryngologist with vertigo and hearing loss....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is referred to an otolaryngologist with vertigo and hearing loss. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the cranial region reveals a tumour at the cerebellopontine angle. A working diagnosis of acoustic neuroma is made. In light of the progressive symptoms, the surgeon plans to remove the tumour.
      With regard to the vestibulocochlear nerve, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: Vestibular fibres pass to the vestibular nuclear complex, located in the floor of the fourth ventricle

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Vestibulocochlear Nerve

      The vestibulocochlear nerve, also known as the eighth cranial nerve, is responsible for carrying special sensory afferent fibers from the inner ear. It is composed of two portions: the vestibular nerve and the cochlear nerve. The vestibular fibers pass to the vestibular nuclear complex, located in the floor of the fourth ventricle, while the cochlear fibers pass to the cochlear nuclear complex, located across the junction between the pons and medulla.

      Acoustic neuromas, which are tumors that commonly arise from the vestibular portion of the nerve, are also known as vestibular schwannomas. The efferent nerve supply to the tensor tympani, a muscle in the middle ear, is provided by the mandibular branch of the fifth cranial nerve.

      The vestibulocochlear nerve enters the brainstem at the pontomedullary junction, lateral to the facial nerve. It then passes into the temporal bone via the internal auditory meatus, along with the facial nerve. It does not exit the cranium through the jugular foramen, which is where the ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves exit. Understanding the anatomy of the vestibulocochlear nerve is important in diagnosing and treating disorders related to hearing and balance.

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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman presents with deteriorating hearing during pregnancy. There is no known...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with deteriorating hearing during pregnancy. There is no known family history of hearing loss. Upon examination, the tympanic membrane appears intact and pure tone audiometry indicates a conductive hearing loss with a Carhart notch.
      What is the most probable location of the issue?

      Your Answer: Malleus

      Correct Answer: Stapes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Otosclerosis is a common autosomal dominant disorder that causes a conductive hearing loss, which typically worsens during pregnancy. The condition is caused by the fixation of the stapes bone in the ear, and it exhibits incomplete penetrance, meaning it can skip generations, and there may not be a positive family history of the condition.

      Diagnosis of otosclerosis is typically made through examination findings and audiometry results. The Carhart notch, a dip seen on bone conduction audiometry, is a sign that is classically associated with otosclerosis. However, the tympanic membrane is unlikely to be the site of abnormality as it is mentioned that the tympanic membrane is intact on examination.

      Treatment options for otosclerosis include amplification with hearing aids and medical treatment with sodium fluoride, which slows progression. Surgery, such as stapedectomy or stapedotomy, is becoming more popular and effective.

      It is important to understand the diagnosis and treatment options for otosclerosis to effectively manage the condition and improve quality of life for those affected.

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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman comes to your General Practice clinic complaining of worsening hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to your General Practice clinic complaining of worsening hearing and tinnitus. She is currently pregnant and has noticed a significant decline in her hearing, although she had hearing problems before her pregnancy. Her father and grandfather also had hearing problems, and she is concerned about her future. During the examination, both tympanic membranes appear normal without abnormalities detected.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eustachian tube dysfunction

      Correct Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Common Cause of Hearing Loss in Pregnancy

      Otosclerosis is a genetic condition that causes the stapes footplate to become fused to the oval window, resulting in hearing loss. While it is an autosomal dominant condition, many people develop it without a family history. Women are twice as likely to be affected, and bilateral deafness is common. The condition typically manifests during middle age and is worsened by pregnancy. Interestingly, background noise can actually improve hearing. Eustachian tube dysfunction is another common cause of hearing loss in pregnancy, but it is usually accompanied by otitis media with effusion. Wax build-up is unlikely to be the cause of hearing loss in this case, and normal age-related hearing loss is not consistent with the rapid progression of symptoms. While Meniere’s disease is a possibility, the lack of vertigo and family history make otosclerosis the most likely diagnosis.

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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old man presents with a swelling under the left jaw that comes...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a swelling under the left jaw that comes and goes but leaves a dull ache behind. The problem has been present for around 2 weeks and is getting worse. The pain is most noticeable at mealtimes. In the last day, the swelling has become fixed and he reports an unpleasant taste in his mouth. He smokes five cigarettes a day and drinks ten units of alcohol a week, usually on a Saturday night. On examination, there is a smooth, tender swelling in the superior part of the left anterior triangle and, on inspection of the oral cavity, there is poor dentition and pus present just behind the lower incisors.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Submandibular gland infection

      Explanation:

      Submandibular Gland Infection: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A submandibular gland infection is often caused by the presence of a stone in the left submandibular duct, which can lead to a secondary infection due to the stasis of gland secretions. Stones are more common in the submandibular gland due to the length and tortuosity of the duct. Symptoms include a smooth, tender swelling, pain worse at mealtimes, and pus behind the lower incisors. Management involves antibiotics to treat the infection and referral to an ENT or oral surgeon for stone removal, which can usually be done under local anesthesia. In some cases, excision of the entire submandibular gland may be necessary. It is important to note that the presence of bacterial infection indicates an ongoing issue beyond just the stone. Other conditions, such as gingivostomatitis and dental abscess, can cause similar symptoms but have different underlying causes. Mumps, on the other hand, can cause swelling of the parotid gland, not the submandibular gland.

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  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old male librarian presents with sudden loss of hearing in both ears....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male librarian presents with sudden loss of hearing in both ears. There is no ear pain, history of recent upper respiratory tract infection or history of trauma. He has no past medical history of note and does not take any regular prescribed or over-the-counter medications. Tuning fork testing suggests right side sensorineural hearing loss. Examination of the auditory canals and tympanic membranes is unremarkable, as is neurological examination. He is referred to the acute ear, nose and throat (ENT) clinic. Audiometry reveals a 40 db hearing loss in the right ear at multiple frequencies.
      Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management plan?

      Your Answer: Arrange an urgent computed tomography (CT) of the head

      Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent magnetic resonance (MR) of the brain

      Explanation:

      Management of Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss

      Sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) is a medical emergency that requires urgent evaluation and management. Patients with unexplained sudden hearing loss should be referred to an ENT specialist and offered an MRI scan. A CT scan may also be indicated to rule out stroke, although it is unlikely to cause unilateral hearing loss.

      Antiviral medication such as acyclovir is not recommended unless there is evidence of viral infection. Antibiotics are also not indicated unless there is evidence of bacterial infection.

      The mainstay of treatment for SSNHL is oral prednisolone, which should be started as soon as possible and continued for 14 days. While the cause of SSNHL is often unknown, it is important to consider a wide range of differential diagnoses, including trauma, drugs, space-occupying lesions, autoimmune inner ear disease, and many other conditions. Prompt evaluation and treatment can improve the chances of recovery and prevent further hearing loss.

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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old patient experiences a severe nose bleed after being hit directly in...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old patient experiences a severe nose bleed after being hit directly in the nose during a rugby game. The bleeding is resolved with direct pressure and packing of the nose. Which vascular territory is most likely to have been impacted?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach’s plexus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, can occur from two areas: the anterior bleed from the Kiesselbach’s plexus and the posterior bleed from the sphenopalatine artery. The former is usually caused by trauma, while the latter is due to underlying pathologies such as hypertension or old age.

      To manage epistaxis, direct pressure to the bleeding point, packing of the nose, or surgical ligation or selective embolisation of the relevant artery may be necessary. It is important to check clotting and haemoglobin levels, especially in significant episodes of epistaxis that may lead to considerable blood loss, which can be masked by ingestion of the blood into the digestive tract.

      It is worth noting that the nasal artery and the superficial temporal artery are not involved in epistaxis, while the zygomatic artery has no significant role in it. Understanding the causes and management of epistaxis can help individuals respond appropriately to this common medical condition.

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  • Question 28 - Sophie is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by anxious parents who are...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by anxious parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Although she has difficulty getting up from sleep, she does not have any daytime somnolence. However, her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. They have done a lot of research on the Internet and are demanding that Sophie has her tonsils removed. On examination, Sophie has a short, thick neck and grade III tonsils, but no other abnormalities.
      Which of the following is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study

      Explanation:

      Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken, even though adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA. Childhood OSA is characterised by disordered breathing during sleep, which includes both apnoea and hypopnoea. Symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity and behavioural problems are typically observed.

      It is important to reassure parents that snoring loudly is normal in children of this age, and their child’s behaviour pattern will improve as they mature. Elective adenotonsillectomy as a day procedure is an option, but a polysomnographic study should be performed first to confirm the diagnosis.

      While dental splints have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment. Therefore, it is important to consider all available treatment options and choose the most appropriate one for each individual case.

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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a sore throat, coryzal...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a sore throat, coryzal symptoms, cough, feeling feverish and general malaise for the past week. She reports that she is eating and drinking well. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.1°C and her chest is clear. Her tonsils are inflamed, but there is no exudate. She has no significant medical history except for carpal tunnel syndrome. Based on her Fever PAIN score, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Safety net and review in 1 week if no improvement

      Explanation:

      Using the FeverPAIN Score to Determine Antibiotic Use in Pharyngitis

      Pharyngitis, or sore throat, is a common reason for patients to seek medical attention. However, not all cases of pharyngitis require antibiotics. In fact, inappropriate antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other negative outcomes. To help providers determine which patients with pharyngitis have streptococcal pharyngitis, the FeverPAIN Score was developed.

      The FeverPAIN Score assesses five factors: fever, presence of pus, how quickly symptoms attenuate, inflamed tonsils, and cough. A score of 0-1 is associated with a low likelihood of streptococcal infection, while a score of 4 or more is associated with a high likelihood. For patients with a score of 2 or 3, delayed antibiotic use may be appropriate.

      In the case of a woman with inflamed tonsils, her FeverPAIN Score indicates that antibiotics are not necessary. However, it is important to safety net patients and review their condition in one week if there is no improvement. By using the FeverPAIN Score, providers can make informed decisions about antibiotic use in pharyngitis and help reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

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  • Question 30 - A woman in her early 50s, who is a singer, has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early 50s, who is a singer, has a history of thyroid surgery and needs another procedure due to recurrent thyroid carcinoma. Following the surgery, she experiences a change in her voice and is unable to reach high notes while singing. During flexible laryngoscopy, it is observed that her left vocal cord does not elongate during phonation.
      Which nerve is likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerves Related to the Thyroid Gland and Their Risks in Surgery

      The thyroid gland is closely related to several nerves, including the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, recurrent laryngeal nerve, ansa cervicalis nerve, hypoglossal nerve, and lingual nerve. During neck dissection or surgery involving the thyroid or submandibular gland, these nerves may be at risk of damage.

      The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle, which elongates the vocal cords. Damage to this nerve can result in an inability to produce high-frequency notes. The recurrent laryngeal nerve, on the other hand, innervates all intrinsic muscles of the thyroid except the cricothyroid muscle. Its injury can cause hoarseness and difficulty in adducting the vocal cords, leading to an aspiration risk.

      The ansa cervicalis nerve is located superiorly to the thyroid and may be unavoidable to divide during surgery. The hypoglossal nerve is found even more superiorly and is at risk in submandibular gland excision and neck dissection. The lingual nerve is also located superiorly and may be at risk in submandibular gland excision, along with the hypoglossal nerve and the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve.

      In summary, surgeons must be aware of the location and function of these nerves to minimize the risk of damage during thyroid or submandibular gland surgery.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

ENT (15/30) 50%
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