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  • Question 1 - A 55 year old man experiences sudden loss of vision preceded by the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old man experiences sudden loss of vision preceded by the perception of something he describes as jagged lines or 'heat waves'. He's known to be myopic. What is the best treatment?

      Your Answer: Surgical extraction of lens

      Correct Answer: Scleral buckling

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture is characteristic of retinal detachment, which should be treated immediately to prevent permanent loss of vision. Scleral buckling is a surgical procedure used to repair a retinal detachment, where the surgeon attaches a piece of silicone or a sponge onto the white of the eye at the spot of a retinal tear pushing the sclera toward the retinal tear or break, promoting repair. Signs of detachment include an increase in the number of eye floaters, flashes of light in the field of vision, and reduced peripheral vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32 yr. old primigravida in her 37th week of pregnancy was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 yr. old primigravida in her 37th week of pregnancy was admitted for the management of pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure was 180/110 mmHg and urine protein was +++. Magnesium sulphate was started. Which of the following are important parameters that should be monitored during the administration of magnesium sulphate?

      Your Answer: Reflexes + pulse rate

      Correct Answer: Reflexes + respiratory rate

      Explanation:

      The clinical effect and toxicity of MgSO4 can be linked to its concentration in plasma. A concentration of 1.8 to 3.0 mmol/L has been suggested for treatment of eclamptic convulsions. Maternal toxicity is rare when MgSO4 is carefully administered and monitored. The first warning of impending toxicity in the mother is loss of the patellar reflex at plasma concentrations between 3.5 and 5 mmol/L. Respiratory paralysis occurs at 5 to 6.5 mmol/L. Cardiac conduction is altered at greater than 7.5 mmol/L, and cardiac arrest can be expected when concentrations of magnesium exceed 12.5 mmol/L. Careful attention to the monitoring guidelines can prevent toxicity. Deep tendon reflexes, respiratory rate, urine output and serum concentrations are the most commonly monitored parameters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Dermoid

      Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Phrenic nerve palsy causing hemidiaphragm paralysis is a very uncommon feature of thoracic aortic aneurysm.

      Thoracic aortic aneurysms are usually asymptomatic however chest pain is most commonly reported symptom. Left hemidiaphragm paralysis, because of left phrenic nerve palsy, is a very rare presentation of thoracic aortic aneurysm.
      Thoracic aortic aneurysm may present atypical symptoms such as dysphagia due to compression of the oesophagus; hoarseness due to vocal cord paralysis or compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve; superior vena cava syndrome due to compression of the superior vena cava; cough, dyspnoea or both due to tracheal compression; haemoptysis due to rupture of the aneurysm into a bronchus; and shock due to rupture of the aneurysm.
      Common causes of phrenic nerve palsy include malignancy such as bronchogenic carcinoma, as well as mediastinal and neck tumours. Phrenic nerve palsy can also occur due to a penetrating injury or due to iatrogenic causes arising, for example, during cardiac surgery and central venous catheterization. Many cases or phrenic nerve palsy are idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 3-year old boy presents with an abdominal mass. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year old boy presents with an abdominal mass. Which of the following is associated with Wilm’s tumour (nephroblastoma)?

      Your Answer: Deletion on short arm of chromosome 12

      Correct Answer: Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

      Explanation:

      Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is a inherited condition associated with organomegaly, macroglossia, abdominal wall defects, Wilm’s tumour and neonatal hypoglycaemia. Wilm’s tumour is a kidney cancer that usually occurs in children. The causes are unknown, however, risk factors include race and family history. Of note, Wilm’s tumour can occur as part of the following syndromes: WAGR syndrome, Denys-Drash syndrome, and Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome and not the other listed options in this question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer: 5-HT1 agonist

      Explanation:

      Triptans are specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine. They are generally used as first-line therapy in combination with an NSAID or paracetamol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old male is admitted with vomiting. He has a long history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male is admitted with vomiting. He has a long history of alcohol abuse, appears slightly jaundiced and is dishevelled and unkempt. He was started on an intravenous glucose infusion and diazepam and he symptomatically improved. One day later he becomes confused, develops vomiting, diplopia and is unable to stand. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatic encephalopathy

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B deficiency

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is Wernicke’s encephalopathy. This presents in a long time alcoholic from vitamin BI deficiency. Symptoms include confusion and confabulation, oculomotor symptoms/signs, and ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 33-year-old male presents with a rash and low grade fever (37.6°C). Twenty-one...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male presents with a rash and low grade fever (37.6°C). Twenty-one days ago, he underwent allogeneic bone marrow transplant for high-risk acute myeloid leukaemia. The rash was initially maculopapular affecting his palms and soles but 24 hours later, general erythroderma is noted involving the trunk and limbs. Other than that, he remains asymptomatic. His total bilirubin was previously normal but is now noted to be 40 μmol/L (1-22). How would you manage the patient at this stage?

      Your Answer: Observation

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      This is a classical picture of graft versus host disease (GVHD) following bone marrow transplant. Acute GVHD occurs in the first 100 days post transplant with chronic GVHD occurring 100-300 days after transplant. GVHD is graded according to the Seattle system, and each organ involved is scored (skin, liver, and gut).

      The standard initial treatment in the acute setting is high-dose methylprednisolone started immediately. If there is no response, a more intensive immunosuppressive agent such as alemtuzumab or antilymphocyte globulin is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 48 yr. old male presented with exertional angina for 2 weeks. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 48 yr. old male presented with exertional angina for 2 weeks. He has no significant past medical history or cardiac risk factors except a total cholesterol of 5.8 mmol/L. He has been already started on aspirin. Which of the following is the most suitable drug combination for him?

      Your Answer: Calcium-channel blocker and nitrate

      Correct Answer: B-blocker and statin

      Explanation:

      Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers have proven prognostic benefits. Nitrates don’t have any proven prognostic benefits. A statin is indicated for a patient with angina and cholesterol level of 5.5 to 8.5 to prevent risk of myocardial infarction. So the preferred combination from the given answers is beta blocker + statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in...

    Correct

    • Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in patients?

      Your Answer: Long-term domiciliary oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      COPD is commonly associated with progressive hypoxemia. Oxygen administration reduces mortality rates in patients with advanced COPD because of the favourable effects on pulmonary hemodynamics.

      Long-term oxygen therapy improves survival 2-fold or more in hypoxemic patients with COPD, according to 2 landmark trials, the British Medical Research Council (MRC) study and the US National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute’s Nocturnal Oxygen Therapy Trial (NOTT). Hypoxemia is defined as PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood) of less than 55 mm Hg or oxygen saturation of less than 90%. Oxygen was used for 15-19 hours per day.

      Therefore, specialists recommend long-term oxygen therapy for patients with a PaO2 of less than 55 mm Hg, a PaO2 of less than 59 mm Hg with evidence of polycythaemia, or cor pulmonale. Patients should be evaluated after 1-3 months after initiating therapy, because some patients may not require long-term oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 58-year-old female patient is being investigated for breathlessness, cough, and severe weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old female patient is being investigated for breathlessness, cough, and severe weight loss. On the medical ward round, her CXR is reviewed showing hilar lymphadenopathy and multiple peripheral lung metastases. Which of the following tumours is least likely to be the underlying cause of this lung appearance?

      Your Answer: Breast

      Correct Answer: Brain

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned listed tumours, except brain tumours, can metastasise to lungs and produce the typical CXR picture consisting of hilar lymphadenopathy with either diffuse multinodular shadows resembling miliary disease or multiple large well-defined masses (canon balls). Occasionally, cavitation or calcification may also be seen.

      Most brain tumours, however, do not metastasise. Some, derived form neural elements, do so but in these cases, intraparenchymal metastases generally precede distant haematogenous spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness in her right knee. Her medical history is significant for osteoarthritis affecting her hand joints and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. On examination, the right knee is swollen, erythematous and tender. Which of the following tests would be most useful in the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer: Aspiration and examination of the synovial fluid

      Explanation:

      Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following are the TWO interventions which are most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: N saline should be started iv

      Correct Answer: Gastric lavage should be considered

      Explanation:

      Among the above statements, gastric lavage and normal saline IV infusion are the two appropriate interventions for a patient of acute lithium toxicity.

      Activated charcoal is not effective after lithium overdose, although gastric lavage should be considered if patients present within 6–8 h.
      Where levels are above 3 mmol/l, the use of normal saline to induce diuresis should be considered, although careful monitoring of fluid balance is necessary.
      Where levels of lithium are above 4 mmol/l, dialysis is often required. Haemodialysis is preferred, but in a facility where haemodialysis is not possible, peritoneal dialysis may be considered.
      Patients should not be discharged until they are asymptomatic and have a serum lithium level less than 1.5 mEq/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Pain gets worse during the day

      Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease.
      The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of an unidentified substance. On examination, he was found to be bradycardic, hypotensive, hyper-salivating, and disoriented. On ocular examination, his pupils were found to be miotic. What is the most likely substance he ingested?

      Your Answer: An organophosphate insecticide

      Explanation:

      The farmer has most likely ingested an organophosphate insecticide.
      Organophosphorus compounds are used widely as:
      • Insecticides – Malathion, parathion, diazinon, dichlorvos
      • Nerve gases – Soman, sarin, tabun, VX
      • Ophthalmic agents – Echothiophate
      • Antihelmintics – Trichlorfon
      • Herbicides – merphos
      • Industrial chemical (plasticizer) – Tricresyl phosphate
      Signs and symptoms of Organophosphorus Poisoning (OPP) can be classified as:
      • Muscarinic effects:
      o Cardiovascular – Bradycardia, hypotension
      o Respiratory – Rhinorrhoea, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, cough, severe respiratory distress
      o Gastrointestinal – Hypersalivation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, faecal incontinence
      o Genitourinary – Incontinence
      o Ocular – Blurred vision, miosis
      o Glands – Increased lacrimation, diaphoresis
      • Nicotinic effects:
      o Muscle fasciculation, weakness, cramping, diaphragmatic failure, and autonomic side effects include: hypertension, tachycardia, and mydriasis.
      • Central nervous system (CNS) effects:
      o Anxiety, emotional lability, restlessness, confusion, ataxia, tremors, seizures, coma, apnoea
      Mainstay Treatment:
      • Decontamination
      • Securing Airway, Breathing and Circulation
      • Atropine
      • Pralidoxime
      • Benzodiazepines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral medication to improve the symptoms of patients with asthma. In the trial 400 patients with asthma, half were given the new medication and half a placebo. Three months later they are asked to rate their symptoms using the following scale: much improved, slight improvement, no change, slight worsening, significantly worse. What is the most appropriate statistical test to see whether the new medication is beneficial?

      Your Answer: Student's t-test (unpaired)

      Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test

      Explanation:

      The type of significance test used depends on whether the data is parametric (can be measured, usually normally distributed) or non-parametric.
      Parametric tests:
      Student’s t-test – paired or unpaired*
      Pearson’s product-moment coefficient – correlation

      Non-parametric tests:
      Mann-Whitney U test – unpaired data
      Wilcoxon signed-rank test – compares two sets of observations on a single sample
      chi-squared test – used to compare proportions or percentages
      Spearman, Kendall rank – correlation.

      The outcome measured is not normally distributed, i.e. it is non-parametric. This excludes the Student’s t-tests. We are not comparing percentages/proportions so the chi-squared test is excluded. The Mann–Whitney U test is a nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that it is equally likely that a randomly selected value from one sample will be less than or greater than a randomly selected value from a second sample.
      This test can be used to investigate whether two independent samples were selected from populations having the same distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A young man complains that he feels paralysed and is unable to move...

    Incorrect

    • A young man complains that he feels paralysed and is unable to move when he wakes up and less often when he is falling asleep. He complains of having hallucinations and sees other strangers in the room. His anxiety has also increased with these episodes. What is his likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: Sleep paralysis

      Explanation:

      Sleep paralysis is a temporary inability to move or speak that occurs when you’re waking up or falling asleep. Paralysis is often accompanied by hallucinations

      REM is a stage of sleep when the brain is very active and dreams often occur. The body is unable to move, apart from the eyes and muscles used in breathing, possibly to stop the person from acting out the dreams and hurting himself.

      It’s not clear why REM sleep can sometimes occur while one is awake, but it has been associated with:
      -not getting enough sleep (sleep deprivation or insomnia)
      -irregular sleeping patterns – for example, because of shift work or jet lag
      -narcolepsy – a long-term condition that causes a person to suddenly fall asleep at inappropriate times
      -a family history of sleep paralysis
      -sleeping on one’s back

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis?

      Your Answer: Raw eggs are an important source of infection

      Correct Answer: Can present with fits in patients with AIDS

      Explanation:

      T. gondii infection in immunocompetent people is usually asymptomatic. It can present as fits in patients with AIDs, who are immunosuppressed. Additionally, infection in the first trimester of pregnancy is very harmful. Congenital toxoplasmosis presents with intracranial calcifications, classically. It can also present with hydrocephalus, microcephaly, blindness, petechiae. Siramycin is the drug of choice to try to prevent vertical transmission from mother to baby. It is typically gotten from cat faeces or raw/undercooked meat, not raw eggs (raw eggs: think salmonella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 47-year-old man with a history of alcohol induced liver disease is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man with a history of alcohol induced liver disease is admitted to the gastroenterology ward. He has developed tense ascites again and a plan is made to site an ascitic drain. His renal function after 2 days is as follows: Na+ 131 mmol/L, K+ 3.8 mmol/L, Urea 12.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 205 µmol/L, Which of the following pathophysiological changes is most likely to be responsible for the declining renal function?

      Your Answer: Splanchnic vasoconstriction

      Correct Answer: Splanchnic vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Hepatorenal syndrome is renal vasoconstriction that cannot overcome the effects of splanchnic vasodilation. Vasoactive mediators cause this splanchnic vasodilation, reducing SVR, which is sensed by the juxtaglomerular apparatus, activating the RAAS system, leading to renal vasoconstriction. However, the overall splanchnic vasodilation effect is greater than this renal vasoconstriction effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one...

    Correct

    • β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one of the following properties?

      Your Answer: Decrease the heart rate and myocardial contractility

      Explanation:

      The cardiovascular effects of β-adrenoceptor block result from reduction of the sympathetic drive which includes reduced heart rate (automaticity) and reduced myocardial contractility (rate of rise of pressure in the ventricle). This will lead to reduced cardiac output and an overall fall in oxygen consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - One of your colleagues shares with you the fact that he is HBV...

    Correct

    • One of your colleagues shares with you the fact that he is HBV positive. He's a general surgeon in the local hospital and he's afraid that if people know he might lose his job. However, you try to convince him that it's important to inform occupational health but he explicitly refuses. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Inform your colleague's employing body

      Explanation:

      According to the updated GMC guidelines, patient safety is more important than anything else, thus the correct thing to do is inform your colleague’s employing body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most...

    Correct

    • A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient?

      Your Answer: NADH methaemoglobin reductase

      Explanation:

      Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

      Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

      The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is northern blotting used for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is northern blotting used for?

      Your Answer: Amplify DNA

      Correct Answer: Detect RNA

      Explanation:

      Northern blotting’s purpose is to measure the size and amount of RNA transcribed from a specific gene of interest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 70 year old male presents with an ulcer between his toes -...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old male presents with an ulcer between his toes - it has a punched-out appearance. He is known to both smoke and drinks heavily. Upon examination, the ulcer is yellow in colour. His foot also turns red when it hangs from the bed. From the list given, choose the single most likely diagnosis for this patient.

      Your Answer: Venous stasis ulcer

      Correct Answer: Arterial ischemia ulcer

      Explanation:

      Arterial ischemia ulcers present with many of the symptoms observed in this patient: ulcer on the lower extremities, pain, swelling, yellow sores, a punched-out appearance, the foot turning red when dangling from a bed. Smoking a lot is also known to be a causative factor here. This type of ulcer develops due to damage to the arteries caused by a lack of blood flow to the tissue – they are also deep wounds. Venous ischemic ulcers usually form in the knee or inner ankle area as opposed to the foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a...

    Incorrect

    • A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a new rapid finger-prick blood test developed to help diagnose deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The new test was positive on 200 patients with DVT and on 100 patients without DVT. It was also negative on 20 patients with DVT and 680 without DVT. What is the specificity of the new test?

      Your Answer: 200/220

      Correct Answer: 680/780

      Explanation:

      Specificity (negative in health)
      The ability of a test to correctly classify an individual as disease- free is called the test′s specificity. [Table 2]

      Specificity = d / b+d

      = d (true negative) / b+d (true negative + false positive)

      = Probability of being test negative when disease absent.

      Example: One hundred persons with normal angles (diagnosed by ′gold standard′: gonioscopy) are examined by peripheral angle chamber depth examination. Eighty-five persons had normal peripheral angle chamber depth [Table 3]. The specificity of the peripheral angle chamber depth examination to PACG is therefore –

      85 / 100 = 85%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period?

      Your Answer: Hand foot and mouth disease: 7 - 10 days

      Correct Answer: Mumps: 14 - 18 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation periods of disorders is extremely important to diagnose, treat, prevent or attenuate a disease.

      • Chickenpox: 7-21 days.
      • Whooping cough: 10-14 days.
      • Hand, foot and mouth disease: 2-6 days.
      • German measles: 14-21 days.
      • Mumps: 14-18 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 69 year-old librarian with motor neuron disease is seen in clinic. Which...

    Correct

    • A 69 year-old librarian with motor neuron disease is seen in clinic. Which of the following interventions will have the greatest effect on survival?

      Your Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Explanation:

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition of unknown cause which can present with both upper and lower motor neuron signs. It rarely presents before age 40 and various patterns of disease are recognised, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy and bulbar palsy.
      Non-invasive ventilation (usually BIPAP) is used at night, with studies having shown a survival benefit of around 7 months. Riluzole prevents stimulation of glutamate receptors, used mainly in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and has been shown to prolong life by about 3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not your patient, you can make out that the man has a history of schizophrenia, and has recently had his medications altered. Clinically, you find evidence of a lower respiratory tract infection, and blood investigations indicate a neutropenic picture. What is the most likely drug causing the neutropenia?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine can cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis.

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia, and in patients who are intolerant to, or unresponsive to other antipsychotics.

      It is a weak D2-receptor and D1-receptor blocking activity, with noradrenolytic, anticholinergic, and antihistaminic properties.

      Many antipsychotic drugs can occasionally cause bone marrow depression, but agranulocytosis is particularly associated with clozapine.

      Other side effects include:
      Hypotension, tachycardia
      Fever, sedation, seizures (with high doses)
      Appetite increase
      Constipation
      Heartburn
      Weight gain
      Extrapyramidal symptoms
      Agranulocytosis
      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has any predisposing factors for the disease. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of developing SLE?

      Your Answer: Positive HLA–DR2

      Correct Answer: Monozygotic twin

      Explanation:

      An overall concordance rate in monozygotic twins was documented to be 25% as compared to dizygotic twins with 3%. First degree relatives have a chance of around 3% of developing the disease. Caucasians show an increase frequency of HLA-B8. The Japanese lupus patients had a stronger association with HLA-DR2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be...

    Incorrect

    • A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be screened for cystic fibrosis. His brother and wife had a child with cystic fibrosis so he is concerned. His wife is currently 10 weeks pregnant. When screened, he was found to be a carrier of the DF508 mutation for cystic fibrosis but despite this result, the wife declines testing. What are the chances that she will have a child with cystic fibrosis, given that the gene frequency for this mutation in the general population is 1/20?

      Your Answer: 1/20

      Correct Answer: 1/80

      Explanation:

      The chance of two carriers of a recessive gene having a child that is homozygous for that disease (that is both genes are transmitted to the child) is 25%. Therefore, the chances of this couple having a child with CF are 25%(1/4) x 1/20 = 1/80.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old realtor presented with progressive weakness of both legs over the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old realtor presented with progressive weakness of both legs over the last 3 years. He complained of being unable to see well at night and having an impaired sense of smell. On examination he had a shortened fourth toe bilaterally with pes cavus. Neurological examination revealed a loss of pinprick sensation to bilateral knees, and weakness of both legs that was more prominent distally. Which of the following would be the best blood test to order to make a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ANCA

      Correct Answer: Phytanic acid

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is Refsum’s disease. This is an autosomal recessive disorder that causes a sensorimotor peripheral neuropathy. It is caused by defective alpha oxidation of phytanic acid leading to its accumulation in tissues. Cardiac conduction abnormalities and cardiomyopathies may also occur.
      Epiphyseal dysplasia causes a characteristic shortening of the fourth toe. Serum phytanic acid levels are elevated. Treatment is by dietary restriction of foods containing phytanic acid (dairy products, fish, beef and lamb).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (1/3) 33%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (4/5) 80%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (1/3) 33%
Rheumatology (1/3) 33%
Clinical Sciences (1/4) 25%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
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