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Question 1
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A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with palpitations and is subsequently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. His cardiologist commences him on apixaban. He has no other long-term medical problems and his renal function is within a normal range.
Which of the following parameters is used in the regular monitoring of patients on apixaban?Your Answer: No specific parameter is monitored
Explanation:Monitoring of Factor Xa Inhibitors: Parameters and Tests
Factor Xa inhibitors, such as apixaban, have predictable pharmacokinetic profiles that allow for fixed-dose regimens. As a result, routine testing for their effects is not typically conducted during treatment. However, patients should undergo annual liver function tests and urea and electrolyte tests. Unlike warfarin therapy, there is no laboratory test that can reliably monitor the anticoagulant effect of apixaban. The International Normalised Ratio (INR) is not affected by apixaban, and the Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) is not recommended due to reagent insensitivity or non-linearity. The Prothrombin Time (PT) is also not useful for monitoring factor Xa inhibitors, as it can be influenced by other anticoagulants and vitamin K deficiency. Therefore, novel oral anticoagulants like apixaban do not require routine laboratory monitoring and dose adjustment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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How is the distribution of a drug throughout the body quantified?
Your Answer: Volume of distribution
Explanation:Body Fluid Compartments
Pharmacokinetics involves the processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs in the body. The distribution of a drug is determined by its chemical structure, size, and ability to transport itself across membranes. The volume of distribution (Vd) describes what happens to the drug once it is in the body. For a typical 70 kg adult, a Vd of ,14 L indicates that the drug is spread among the extracellular fluid space only, while a Vd greater than 42 L suggests that the drug is likely to be lipophilic and its distribution is not limited to the body’s fluid. Some drugs with very high Vds will be preferentially distributed in the body’s fat reserves.
The Vd is a theoretical concept that essentially describes how much fluid is needed to hold the given dose of a drug to maintain the same plasma concentration. The body fluid compartments include the intracellular fluid (ICF), which is the fluid inside the cells, and the extracellular fluid (ECF), which is the fluid outside the cells. The ECF is further divided into the interstitial fluid (ISF), which is the fluid between the cells, and the plasma, which is the fluid component of blood. The distribution of a drug will depend on its ability to cross the cell membrane and its affinity for different body compartments. the body fluid compartments and the volume of distribution is important in determining the appropriate dosage and duration of drug therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 16-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with her friend. The friend reports that they had an argument and the patient took 'lots of tablets'. The patient denies this but agrees to further investigations. Her ABG results show:
Normal range
pH: 7.47 (7.35 - 7.45)
pO2: 12 (10 - 14)kPa
pCO2: 3.6 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
HCO3: 22 (22 - 26)mmol/l
BE: +1 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
After two hours, the patient complains of feeling very unwell and experiencing ringing in her ears. A repeat ABG is performed and shows:
Normal range
pH: 7.16 (7.35 - 7.45)
pO2: 11 (10 - 14)kPa
pCO2: 3.1 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
HCO3: 8 (22 - 26)mmol/l
BE: -19 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Aspirin overdose
Explanation:The typical image of an aspirin overdose is characterized by an initial respiratory alkalosis caused by heightened respiratory effort due to stimulation of the central respiratory center. Subsequently, a metabolic acidosis develops in conjunction with the respiratory alkalosis, which is attributed to the direct impact of the salicylic acid metabolite.
Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.
It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 57-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever and diarrhoea. He has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and received a renal transplant three years ago. He also has gout and dyspepsia and takes azathioprine, allopurinol, and omeprazole. He drinks 20 units of alcohol per week for the past ten years. His vital signs are as follows:
- Respiratory rate: 32/min
- Pulse: 133 bpm
- Temperature: 39.1ºC
- Blood pressure: 88/56 mmHg
- Oxygen saturation: 94% on room air
His blood test results show:
- Hb: 90 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180)
- Platelets: 85 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
- WBC: 1.3 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
- Neuts: 0.7 * 109/L (normal range: 2.0 - 7.0)
What drug interaction led to this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Azathioprine and allopurinol use
Explanation:The combination of azathioprine and allopurinol use increases the risk of azathioprine toxicity, which can lead to neutropenic sepsis. Azathioprine is converted to its active form, 6-mercaptopurine, which causes immunosuppression, and allopurinol inhibits the enzyme responsible for metabolizing 6-mercaptopurine, leading to excessive myelosuppression. Chronic alcohol use and allopurinol use do not interact and will not affect a patient’s immune system. Azathioprine and chronic alcohol use also do not significantly increase a patient’s risk of myelosuppression as 6-mercaptopurine is not metabolized by the CYP family of enzymes. Similarly, omeprazole use does not significantly increase a patient’s risk of myelosuppression as 6-mercaptopurine is not metabolized via this route.
Allopurinol is a medication used to prevent gout by inhibiting xanthine oxidase. Traditionally, it was believed that urate-lowering therapy (ULT) should not be started until two weeks after an acute attack to avoid further attacks. However, the evidence supporting this is weak, and the British Society of Rheumatology (BSR) now recommends delaying ULT until inflammation has settled to make long-term drug decisions while the patient is not in pain. The initial dose of allopurinol is 100 mg once daily, with the dose titrated every few weeks to aim for a serum uric acid level of less than 300 µmol/l. Colchicine cover should be considered when starting allopurinol, and NSAIDs can be used if colchicine cannot be tolerated. ULT is recommended for patients with two or more attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics, and Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
The most significant adverse effects of allopurinol are dermatological, and patients should stop taking the medication immediately if they develop a rash. Severe cutaneous adverse reaction (SCAR), drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS), and Stevens-Johnson syndrome are potential risks. Certain ethnic groups, such as the Chinese, Korean, and Thai people, are at an increased risk of these dermatological reactions. Patients at high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele. Allopurinol can interact with other medications, such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. Azathioprine is metabolized to the active compound 6-mercaptopurine, which is oxidized to 6-thiouric acid by xanthine oxidase. Allopurinol can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine, so a much-reduced dose must be used if the combination cannot be avoided. Allopurinol also reduces renal clearance of cyclophosphamide, which may cause marrow toxicity. Additionally, allopurinol causes an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline by inhibiting its breakdown.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of low mood, fatigue, and weight gain. She has constantly felt cold during this time. This is her first presentation with these symptoms and she has noticed them after starting a new medication for her hypertension.
She has a past medical history of hypertension and takes amlodipine, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide.
Investigations are performed:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 19.2 mU/L (0.5 - 5.5)
Free T4 1.8 pmol/L (9-18)
What is the most appropriate step in her management?Your Answer: Stop amiodarone and remeasure thyroid function
Correct Answer: Add levothyroxine and continue amiodarone
Explanation:Levothyroxine can be added to continue amiodarone in cases of amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism. This patient is exhibiting symptoms of hypothyroidism, which can occur in around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone. Amiodarone’s high iodine content can inhibit thyroxine production, leading to hypothyroidism. However, amiodarone can usually be continued alongside levothyroxine to counteract this effect. As the patient’s AF is currently being effectively controlled by amiodarone, it would be inappropriate to switch to digoxin, dronedarone, or flecainide, as these medications would require a period of re-titration and assessment that could increase the risk of stroke due to the AF. Additionally, amiodarone is preferred in patients with structural heart disease, which this patient has due to her heart failure.
Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone develop thyroid dysfunction. This can manifest as either amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) or amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT).
The pathophysiology of AIH is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This is an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide. Despite this, amiodarone may be continued if desirable.
On the other hand, AIT may be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 is caused by amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis. In patients with AIT, amiodarone should be stopped if possible.
It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients taking amiodarone for any signs of thyroid dysfunction and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the mechanism of action of statins in the management of hyperlipidaemia?
Your Answer: Reduced cholesterol synthesis through inhibition of the enzyme HMG CoA reductase
Explanation:The Mechanism of Action of Statins in Reducing Cholesterol Levels
Statins are widely used as the first line treatment for hypercholesterolaemia. They work by inhibiting the rate-controlling enzyme, HMG CoA reductase, which is responsible for endogenous cholesterol synthesis. Cholesterol is an important lipid in the human body, serving as a component of cell membranes, a precursor for the synthesis of steroid hormones, and a precursor for vitamin D synthesis. Endogenous cholesterol production determines the majority of circulating serum concentrations of cholesterol.
By reducing the production of endogenous cholesterol, statins lower cholesterol levels in the blood. This also leads to an increase in the expression of LDL receptors on the liver surface, which removes atherogenic LDL particles from the blood and further reduces LDL cholesterol concentrations. Despite potential side effects, most patients tolerate statins well with few negative consequences. The efficacy of statins is supported by a large body of evidence, demonstrating their ability to rapidly reduce serum cholesterol and, more importantly, to reduce cardiovascular death and all-cause mortality in both the short and long term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman who reached menopause 2 years ago was diagnosed with hypertension during a routine health check. She was prescribed a thiazide diuretic and a statin for her dyslipidaemia. However, after a week, she was rushed to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe pain, redness, and swelling in her right big toe. She was diagnosed with acute gouty arthritis and was given colchicine, which she could not tolerate due to diarrhoea. Indomethacin was then administered, and her gout attack subsided. She was advised to take allopurinol for uric acid control but was readmitted three days later with severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. On examination, she was found to be peritonitic, and a chest X-ray revealed pneumoperitoneum. Which of the drugs prescribed to this patient is most likely responsible for her presenting complaint?
Your Answer: Indometacin
Explanation:Indomethacin is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to treat acute gout attacks. However, it can lead to peptic ulcer disease due to its inhibition of prostaglandin production, which is necessary for intestinal mucosa protection. This can result in life-threatening complications such as bleeding and perforation. Other side-effects include reflux, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, rash, diarrhea, constipation, and dizziness. Allopurinol, on the other hand, is used to treat recurrent gout and hyperuricemia associated with certain chemotherapy and kidney stones. It works by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is involved in uric acid production. Side-effects include Stevens-Johnson syndrome, itching, rash, vomiting, and fever, but it is not associated with bowel perforation. Colchicine is used to treat acute gout attacks by inhibiting microtubule polymerization, leading to an anti-inflammatory effect. Side-effects include severe diarrhea, peripheral neuropathy, anemia, and hair loss, but it is not associated with bowel perforation. Thiazide diuretics can precipitate gout by inducing dehydration and increase the risk of developing pancreatitis due to hypercalcemia and hyperlipidemia, but they are not associated with bowel perforation. Statins are used to treat hypercholesterolemia and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. They can increase the risk of developing pancreatitis and cause deranged liver function tests, but they are not known to increase the risk of bowel perforation. Other side-effects include muscle cramps, aches, rhabdomyolysis, hepatitis, hair thinning, abdominal pain, reflux symptoms, nausea, and tiredness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old man, who is taking long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation, comes to the surgery for review. He has had a recent review at the Cardiology Clinic and you understand that he has had some of his long-term medication changed. He also has type II diabetes and has recently been started on medication for neuropathy. In addition, he is following a ‘juicing diet’ to lose weight.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 115 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
International normalised ratio (INR) 4.9 (previously 2.1)
Which one of the following medications/dietary changes is most likely to be responsible?Your Answer: Grapefruit juice
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Warfarin: Effects of Grapefruit Juice, Amlodipine, Bisoprolol, Orange Juice, and Carbamazepine on INR
Warfarin is a commonly prescribed anticoagulant medication that requires careful monitoring of the international normalized ratio (INR) to ensure therapeutic efficacy and prevent adverse events. However, certain drugs, herbal products, and foods can interact with warfarin and affect its metabolism, leading to changes in INR levels.
Grapefruit juice and cranberry juice are known inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 enzyme system, which is responsible for metabolizing warfarin. As a result, these juices can downregulate warfarin metabolism and increase INR levels in some patients. On the other hand, orange juice has no effect on warfarin metabolism.
Amlodipine and bisoprolol are two commonly prescribed medications that do not affect INR levels. However, they may cause side effects such as dizziness, fatigue, and gastrointestinal disturbances.
Carbamazepine, a medication used to treat seizures and neuropathic pain, is a cytochrome p450 enzyme inducer. This means that it can increase the metabolism of warfarin and lead to a fall in INR levels. Therefore, clinicians must monitor INR levels closely when prescribing carbamazepine to patients taking warfarin.
In summary, understanding the potential drug interactions with warfarin is crucial for clinicians to ensure safe and effective treatment. Regular monitoring of INR levels is essential when prescribing medications that may interact with warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A child is put on a new agonist medication for asthma. While it works well at first, its effectiveness appears to diminish after a few months. What is the probable reason for this outcome?
Your Answer: Desensitisation
Explanation:Desensitisation and Drug Intolerance
When a person takes agonist drugs repeatedly, their effectiveness may decrease over time. This phenomenon is known as desensitisation or tachyphylaxis. There are several possible mechanisms that can contribute to desensitisation, including changes in the receptor structure, down-regulation of the number of receptors, increased degradation of receptors or the drug itself, physiological adaptation, and exhaustion of mediators. In the case of antimicrobial medications, the effect may be due to the microbe developing resistance to the drug. However, this term is not generally used to describe the effect of medications that are not antimicrobials.
On the other hand, drug intolerance refers to the development of side effects that limit the use of the drug or the dosage at which it can be given. This can occur even if the drug is effective in treating the condition it was prescribed for. Drug intolerance can be caused by a variety of factors, including individual differences in metabolism, interactions with other medications, and underlying medical conditions. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for signs of desensitisation and drug intolerance and adjust treatment plans accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the acute medical unit after intentionally overdosing on 60 paracetamol tablets over a period of 12 hours. She presents with abdominal pain and nausea and has a history of depression and anxiety. The patient is started on acetylcysteine treatment and is reviewed the following day. The blood results at 24 hours into admission show a pH of 7.29 (7.35 - 7.45), lactate of 1.9 mmol/L (0.9 - 1.6), paracetamol levels of 2 (< 3), creatinine of 155 µmol/L (55 - 120), prothrombin time of 18 secs (10-14 secs), ALT of 90 u/L (3 - 40), and bilirubin of 39 µmol/L (3 - 17). What is the next most definitive step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Discharge home with hepatology follow up
Correct Answer: Referral for liver transplant
Explanation:In cases of paracetamol overdose, liver transplantation may be necessary if certain criteria are met, such as an arterial pH below 7.3, 24 hours after ingestion. This patient has shown signs of severe hepatotoxicity and meets the criteria for referral to a liver transplant. It is not appropriate to discharge them with hepatology follow-up alone.
Metabolic acidosis is a serious indicator of paracetamol overdose and can be managed with supportive treatment such as intravenous sodium bicarbonate. However, this will not cure hepatotoxicity. Dialysis may be necessary for refractory acidosis, but it will not reverse the damage caused by the overdose. The most definitive treatment is a liver transplant.
This patient has already received acetylcysteine treatment, which replaces glutathione stores used up in the metabolism of paracetamol. However, they have not shown complete hepatocellular recovery, so repeated acetylcysteine treatment is not necessary.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 20-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being discovered unconscious in his apartment by his girlfriend. The patient had phoned his girlfriend to inform her that he had consumed a significant amount of different tablets but now regrets doing so. The type of tablets ingested is unknown.
Which of the following toxic drugs is correctly matched with its antidote?Your Answer: Ethylene glycol and fomepizole
Explanation:Antidotes for Common Drug Overdoses
In cases of drug overdose, specific antidotes can be administered to counteract the toxic effects of the drug. Here are some examples:
Ethylene glycol and fomepizole: Fomepizole is the preferred treatment for ethylene glycol and methanol poisoning. Ethylene glycol is broken down by alcohol dehydrogenase, but if this enzyme is overwhelmed, toxic metabolites can form. Fomepizole blocks alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing the formation of toxic metabolites.
Paracetamol and bicarbonate: N-Acetylcysteine is used to treat paracetamol overdose, while sodium bicarbonate is used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose.
Benzodiazepines and naloxone: Naloxone is the antidote for opiate overdose, while flumazenil can reverse the effects of benzodiazepines.
Digoxin and calcium: Digoxin antibodies (Digibind®) can be used in severe cases of digoxin overdose.
Beta-blockers and adrenaline: Glucagon and cardiac pacing are used to treat beta-blocker overdose.
Knowing the appropriate antidote for a specific drug overdose can be life-saving. It is important to seek medical attention immediately in cases of suspected overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman visits your GP clinic with a complaint of ankle swelling. The swelling persists throughout the day but worsens in the evenings, causing significant discomfort. The patient reports that the swelling started last month and has no other symptoms. She has no history of cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, or hyperlipidaemia and has never smoked. The patient was prescribed amlodipine 5mg once daily for stage 2 hypertension last month. On examination, her blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg, heart sounds are normal, jugular venous pulse is non-elevated, and respiratory examination is normal. Bilateral peripheral oedema is observed in the lower limbs without other abnormalities. What is the most effective treatment for the patient's ankle oedema?
Your Answer: Swap amlodipine to indapamide
Explanation:Peripheral oedema is a common adverse effect of calcium blockers, and the symptoms strongly suggest this is the case for the patient. To address the patient’s concerns about the oedema, it would be appropriate to switch from amlodipine to a second-line antihypertensive diuretic agent, such as indapamide. This approach helps to avoid polypharmacy and any additional side effects or complications from adding another medication. If the oedema persists despite the medication change, further investigations would be necessary to determine the underlying cause.
While lifestyle modifications may provide some relief for the patient, the oedema is affecting her quality of life both day and night, making this solution impractical. However, it would still be advisable to recommend lifestyle changes in addition to switching from amlodipine to indapamide.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found shouting at shoppers in a corner of a supermarket. He claims that the shoppers were trying to kill him and he sees coloured halos around the shop shelves. He has no past medical history. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 120 bpm, respiratory rate of 20/min, blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg, and temperature of 38°C. He is agitated, clammy to touch, and has dilated pupils despite adequate lighting. Both hands show a fine tremor. What drug overdose is responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Heroin
Correct Answer: LSD
Explanation:Understanding LSD Intoxication
LSD, also known as lysergic acid diethylamide, is a synthetic hallucinogen that gained popularity as a recreational drug in the 1960s to 1980s. While its usage has declined in recent years, it still persists, with adolescents and young adults being the most frequent users. LSD is one of the most potent psychoactive compounds known, and its psychedelic effects usually involve heightening or distortion of sensory stimuli and enhancement of feelings and introspection.
Patients with LSD toxicity typically present following acute panic reactions, massive ingestions, or unintentional ingestions. The symptoms of LSD intoxication are variable and can include impaired judgments, amplification of current mood, agitation, and drug-induced psychosis. Somatic symptoms such as nausea, headache, palpitations, dry mouth, drowsiness, and tremors may also occur. Signs of LSD intoxication can include tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis, paresthesia, hyperreflexia, and pyrexia.
Massive overdoses of LSD can lead to complications such as respiratory arrest, coma, hyperthermia, autonomic dysfunction, and bleeding disorders. The diagnosis of LSD toxicity is mainly based on history and examination, as most urine drug screens do not pick up LSD.
Management of the intoxicated patient is dependent on the specific behavioral manifestation elicited by the drug. Agitation should be managed with supportive reassurance in a calm, stress-free environment, and benzodiazepines may be used if necessary. LSD-induced psychosis may require antipsychotics. Massive ingestions of LSD should be treated with supportive care, including respiratory support and endotracheal intubation if needed. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperthermia should be treated symptomatically, while hypotension should be treated initially with fluids and subsequently with vasopressors if required. Activated charcoal administration and gastric emptying are of little clinical value by the time a patient presents to the emergency department, as LSD is rapidly absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract.
In conclusion, understanding LSD intoxication is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate management and care for patients who present with symptoms of LSD toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of ezetimibe in the management of hyperlipidaemia?
Your Answer: Reduced cholesterol synthesis through inhibition of the enzyme HMG CoA reductase
Correct Answer: Prevent cholesterol absorption from the intestine
Explanation:Ezetimibe and its Mechanism of Action
Ezetimibe is a medication that works by reducing the absorption of cholesterol in the gut. Although the exact way it works is not fully understood, it is believed to decrease the activity of proteins in the brush border of enterocytes, which in turn reduces the absorption of lipids. Unlike other medications that bind to bile acids, ezetimibe is absorbed into the bloodstream.
This medication is particularly useful for patients who cannot tolerate statins, those who are not achieving their cholesterol targets with statins alone, or those who have experienced serious side effects from statin use. When taken alone at a dose of 10 mg per day, ezetimibe can reduce LDL cholesterol levels by approximately 20%. However, increasing the dosage beyond this point does not typically improve its effectiveness.
When used in combination with statins, ezetimibe can lead to even greater reductions in LDL cholesterol levels. Overall, ezetimibe is a valuable medication for managing high cholesterol levels in patients who are unable to take or benefit from statins alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman with a history of Von Willebrand disease underwent a left knee arthroscopy and screw removal with epidural anesthesia. The epidural space was identified at L3-L4 and local anesthetic was administered. During the operation, the patient experienced sensory block to temperature up to the T10 dermatome. After the procedure, the patient was comfortable and the block resolved completely after 2 hours. However, 2 hours later, the patient complained of severe back pain and exhibited 3/5 power in all muscle groups of the right leg, absent right patellar reflex, and reduced sensation to light touch in the right leg.
What complication of epidural anesthesia is likely to be demonstrated in this case?Your Answer: Direct spinal cord injury from the procedure
Correct Answer: Spinal epidural haematoma
Explanation:One potential complication of epidural anesthesia is the development of a spinal epidural hematoma, which occurs when blood accumulates in the spinal epidural space and compresses the spinal cord. The symptoms experienced by the patient will depend on the location of the hematoma, but typically include a combination of severe back pain and neurological deficits. The patient’s coagulopathy, in this case Von-Willebrand disease, increases the risk of developing this complication.
Local anesthetic toxicity is another potential complication, which occurs when the anesthetic is accidentally injected into a blood vessel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including numbness around the mouth, restlessness, tinnitus, shivering, muscle twitching, and convulsions. However, none of these symptoms are present in this case.
Direct spinal cord injury would typically result in immediate symptoms during the procedure, which is not the case here.
Guillain-Barre syndrome is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy that is often preceded by an infection. It typically presents with sensory symptoms that precede motor symptoms.
While spinal epidural abscess is a possibility, symptoms usually develop over a longer period of time. Given the patient’s coagulopathy, a hematoma is the most likely explanation for their symptoms.
Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.
For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.
Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominis Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.
Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of depression presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of diazepam and dosulepin. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 118/80 and his pulse is 142 bpm. He has a respiratory rate of 9 per minute and oxygen saturations of 96% on room air. What should be the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Start N-acetylcysteine infusion
Correct Answer: Obtain an ECG
Explanation:To address the patient’s significant tachycardia, the initial course of action would be to conduct an ECG. If the results reveal QRS widening, administering intravenous bicarbonate is recommended. While some suggest an ‘ABC’ approach with flumazenil to counteract respiratory depression, caution must be exercised due to the risk of inducing seizures in the presence of tricyclic overdose.
Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.
Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presents to your clinic for a follow-up of his irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). He reports feeling generally well and has not experienced any episodes of diarrhoea for the past 4 months. His medical history includes hypertension and anxiety, and he takes a daily dose of lisinopril, omeprazole and sertraline. Laboratory investigations are ordered as part of this follow-up, and the results are as follows:
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Magnesium 0.48 mmol/L (0.7 - 1.0)
Creatinine 101 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Phosphate 0.82 mmol/L (0.8 - 1.4)
What is the most likely cause of these laboratory findings?Your Answer: Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Hypomagnesemia is often attributed to the use of proton pump inhibitors, like omeprazole, as evidenced by the patient’s laboratory results. Although most diuretics can also lead to low serum magnesium levels, amiloride is an exception. This potassium-sparing diuretic functions by inhibiting the epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) in the kidney’s collecting tubule and has the added advantage of decreasing net magnesium excretion by encouraging reuptake in the cortical collecting tubule.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.
When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is taking warfarin for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. He has been referred to the Medical Admissions Unit from the Community Warfarin Clinic with an INR of 9.0. He has recently finished a course of antibiotics prescribed by his GP.
Which antibiotic is the most probable cause of the elevated INR?Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Impact of Antibiotics on Warfarin Metabolism
Antibiotics can have varying effects on the metabolism of warfarin, a commonly prescribed blood thinner. Clarithromycin, a macrolide antibiotic, inhibits the cytochrome P450 system and can lead to an accumulation of warfarin, resulting in a raised INR. On the other hand, broad-spectrum antibiotics like amoxicillin may alter warfarin metabolism through their impact on gut flora, but the effect is likely to be less significant. Trimethoprim and nitrofurantoin are not known to affect warfarin metabolism. Rifampicin, however, induces the cytochrome P450 system and may increase the first-pass metabolism of warfarin, leading to a reduction in INR levels. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential interactions when prescribing antibiotics to patients taking warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted to the hospital with alcohol intoxication. During his admission, it was noted that he has mild hypomagnesemia. The hospital's protocol suggests oral magnesium replacement for patients with mild hypomagnesemia. What is the typical adverse effect of using this type of replacement therapy?
Your Answer: Oedema
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Magnesium salts are known to cause diarrhoea, which is a major side effect that limits the dosage. ACE inhibitors like ramipril can cause angioedema, which is rapid swelling of the skin or mucosa, typically affecting the face and throat. Constipation is a possible side effect of certain medications, including anticholinergics, opiates, and iron tablets. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol can lead to erectile dysfunction. The primary cause of oedema induced by calcium channel blockers is the increased capillary hydrostatic pressure resulting from greater dilation of precapillary vessels compared to post-capillary vessels.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.
When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found collapsed on the streets. She appears confused, ataxic, and is slurring her speech. The patient is very emotional and does not respond to any questions. The initial assessment reveals tachycardia and hypertension. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score = 13 (E4V4M5). An ABCDE approach is taken to stabilize the patient, and an arterial blood gas (ABG) and blood test are carried out.
The results of the blood test are as follows:
- pH 7.28
- pCO2 3.6 kPa
- pO2 11.4 kPa
- HCO3- 20 mmol/L
- Na+ 132 mmol/L
- K+ 4.1 mmol/L
- Chloride 94 mmol/L
- Glucose 4.1 mmol/L
- Urea 7.7 mmol/L
- Ethanol 20 mmol/L ( <17.4 mmol/L)
- Serum osmolality 301 mOsm/kg (275-295 mOsm/kg)
Note: The estimated serum osmolality can be calculated as 2 x (Na+ + K+) + urea + glucose + (ethanol/4). Normal osmolar gap = -3 to 10. Normal anion gap = 10-18 mmol/L (assuming K+ is used as part of the calculation).
What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct Answer: Ethylene glycol toxicity
Explanation:A patient presenting with a metabolic acidosis, low pH, low bicarbonate, and partial respiratory compensation should have their anion gap calculated to determine the cause. In this case, the anion gap is raised, indicating a possible toxic alcohol ingestion. The serum osmolality should also be measured, and the expected serum osmolarity calculated. If the difference between the two is high, it indicates an abnormal, unmeasured solute, known as the osmolar gap. In this case, the osmolar gap is raised, further supporting the diagnosis of ethylene glycol poisoning. Other potential causes, such as methanol, renal failure, diabetic ketoacidosis, and lactic acidosis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s presentation and laboratory results. It is important to note that ethanol ingestion may be present in cases of ethylene glycol poisoning, but it alone would not explain the symptoms. Ethylene glycol is commonly found in antifreeze and can be used as a method of attempted suicide.
Understanding Ethylene Glycol Toxicity and Its Management
Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol commonly used as a coolant or antifreeze. Its toxicity is characterized by three stages of symptoms. The first stage is similar to alcohol intoxication, with confusion, slurred speech, and dizziness. The second stage involves metabolic acidosis with high anion gap and high osmolar gap, as well as tachycardia and hypertension. The third stage is acute kidney injury.
In the past, ethanol was the primary treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity. It works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, which limits the formation of toxic metabolites responsible for the haemodynamic and metabolic features of poisoning. However, in recent times, fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has become the first-line treatment preference over ethanol. Haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases.
Overall, understanding the stages of ethylene glycol toxicity and the changing management options is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further harm to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward after a staggered paracetamol overdose the previous day. He was treated with N-acetylcysteine. On examination, he appears mildly jaundiced but is alert. His heart rate is 92 bpm, and his BP is 108/80 mmHg. There is right upper quadrant abdominal tenderness. Blood test results show: pH 7.35 (7.35-7.45), Prothrombin time (PT) 21 secs (10-14 secs), Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 32 secs (25-35 secs), Bilirubin 22 µmol/L (3 - 17), ALP 70 u/L (30 - 100), ALT 40 u/L (3 - 40), Paracetamol plasma concentration is 160 µmol/L. What is the next step in management?
Your Answer: IV N-acetylcysteine over 1 hour
Explanation:In the case of a paracetamol overdose, if the patient’s presentation is more than 24 hours after ingestion, it is recommended to continue acetylcysteine treatment if the paracetamol concentration or ALT levels remain elevated. However, seeking specialist advice is also necessary. The correct method of administering IV N-acetylcysteine is over 1 hour. It is no longer recommended to infuse it over 15 minutes due to the risk of adverse events, such as anaphylactic reactions. IV fluids and monitoring are not necessary unless the patient is fluid-depleted on examination, and their heart rate and blood pressure are within normal limits for their age. IV sodium bicarbonate is not the appropriate treatment for a paracetamol overdose, as it is used for salicylate acid overdose, which is not mentioned in the patient’s history.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old retired teacher is receiving Palliative Care for advanced carcinoma of the liver. The patient has been prescribed ondansetron to alleviate symptoms of nausea and vomiting and wants to know about the potential side-effects of the medication.
What is a typical side-effect of ondansetron?Your Answer: Skin rash
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Understanding the Side Effects of Ondansetron
Ondansetron is a medication commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting. However, like any medication, it can have side effects. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects before taking ondansetron.
Constipation is the most common side effect of ondansetron. This is because the medication is broken down through the cytochrome P450 system in the liver. Other common side effects include dizziness and headache. It is also possible for ondansetron to cause QT prolongation, which can lead to fatal heart arrhythmias. Before prescribing ondansetron, it is important to check whether patients are on other potentially QT-prolonging medications.
While ondansetron can cause constipation in some patients, it is not a direct cause of diarrhea. However, overflow constipation may present as diarrhea.
Cough is not a common side effect of ondansetron. It may cause a dry mouth, but coughing is more commonly associated with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Palpitations and arrhythmias associated with ondansetron are uncommon. However, constipation is a common side effect.
Rarely, ondansetron may be associated with immediate hypersensitivity reactions, such as a skin rash. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to speak with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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What are the potential side effects of thiazide diuretics that one should be aware of?
Your Answer: All of the below
Explanation:Thiazide Diuretics for Hypertension Treatment
Thiazide diuretics are commonly used as the first line or additional agents in treating hypertension. They are effective in reducing the cardiovascular complications of hypertension and have been found to be as effective as newer antihypertensive agents in reversing target organ damage, such as left ventricular hypertrophy. However, thiazide diuretics may cause unwanted effects, including glucose intolerance, hypokalaemia, a 1% increase in cholesterol, gout, and impotence. These unwanted effects can be minimized by administering low doses of thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide at 2.5 mg per day.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man has been diagnosed with osteoporosis after suffering a vertebral fracture. You plan to prescribe alendronate as part of his treatment regimen, alongside his current pain medication. What advice should you provide to ensure he can take the alendronate safely and efficiently?
Your Answer: Take the tablets with other medication
Correct Answer: Take one tablet once a week
Explanation:How to Take Bisphosphonates for Osteoporosis
Bisphosphonates are commonly used in the treatment of osteoporosis. However, due to their poor absorption, they need to be taken according to strict instructions. Oral bisphosphonates such as alendronate or risedronate should be taken once a week or once daily at a lower dose. To ensure proper absorption, the tablet should be taken first thing in the morning, at least 30 minutes before any other medications or food. It should be taken with a glass of water and not with juice, tea, or coffee. After taking the tablet, it is important to remain upright for at least 30 minutes to allow the tablet to pass safely into the stomach.
While bisphosphonates are generally well-tolerated, they can cause some side effects. Gastrointestinal disturbance is common but usually mild. Alendronate can cause oesophagitis, which can be severe. On the other hand, risedronate is better tolerated when compared to alendronate. Some bisphosphonates can also cause bone pain. Patients who experience oesophagitis must stop their treatment and should be considered for an intravenous or intramuscular bisphosphonate or another agent. By following these instructions, patients can ensure that they are taking bisphosphonates safely and effectively for the treatment of osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with complaints of painful, red patches on her shins. She has no history of hospitalization and has not traveled outside the country recently. During her last visit to the same practice, she was prescribed a new medication. Which of the listed medications is most likely responsible for this particular rash?
Your Answer: Minocycline
Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Nodosum and its Causes
Erythema nodosum is a painful rash that typically appears on the shins. It is a type of panniculitis and is characterized by raised nodules. While it can be caused by various factors, including infections and autoimmune diseases, certain medications are also known to trigger it. These include the oral contraceptive pill, penicillins, and sulfonamides. To rule out serious underlying conditions like tuberculosis and sarcoidosis, a chest radiograph is often performed at diagnosis. It is important to note that SSRIs and beta blockers do not cause erythema nodosum, and neither does fexofenadine or minocycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents to the hospital with complaints of abdominal pain. During her evaluation, a pregnancy test is performed and unexpectedly comes back positive despite the patient claiming to have been taking her combined oral contraceptive pill as directed. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that she has recently started a medication that may have played a role in her pregnancy. What is the most likely medication that she has recently begun taking?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Carbamazepine induces the P450 enzyme. This enzyme system includes CYP3A4, which metabolizes ethinylestradiol, a component of the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill. Induction of P450 enzymes accelerates the breakdown of ethinylestradiol, reducing the effectiveness of the COC pill. On the other hand, ciprofloxacin and omeprazole inhibit P450 enzymes, slowing down the breakdown of P450 enzyme substrates. Propranolol is a P450 enzyme substrate, but it does not affect the efficacy of the enzyme system.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) for a cardiovascular risk assessment. She is worried about her family history of premature ischaemic heart disease, although she currently feels healthy. She has a history of hypertension that is well managed with bendroflumethiazide, amlodipine, and lisinopril. She has never smoked and only drinks on special occasions.
During the examination, her BMI is 30, heart rate is regular at 80 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 128/86 mmHg. The GP determines that the patient is at an increased risk of developing heart disease and wants to prescribe an additional medication to her current regimen.
What other medication should the GP consider for this patient?Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin
Explanation:Medication Recommendations for Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease in a Patient with a Family History and Raised BMI
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends 20 mg atorvastatin once daily for primary prevention of cardiovascular events in patients with a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease, such as those with a ≥10% 10-year risk calculated using the QRISK2 assessment tool. In this case, the patient has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease and a raised BMI, making her a good candidate for statin therapy.
Gliclazide is a medication used to treat diabetes by stimulating insulin production. However, in the absence of a history of diabetes, there is no indication to start the patient on antihyperglycaemic medication like gliclazide or metformin, despite her increased risk due to her BMI.
Aspirin is no longer routinely recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, but it may be considered in patients with a high risk of cardiovascular disease. The benefits and risks should be discussed with the patient.
Finally, warfarin is not indicated for this patient as she does not have a history of atrial fibrillation, venous thromboembolism, or stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which diuretic inhibits the co-transport of Na+/K+/2Cl- in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Types of Diuretics and Their Mechanisms of Action
Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, heart failure, and edema. There are different types of diuretics, each with a unique mechanism of action.
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, inhibit the co-transport of Na+/K+/2Cl− in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to a significant increase in sodium and chloride concentration in the filtrate and massive diuresis.
Potassium-sparing diuretics, like spironolactone, act as aldosterone antagonists, causing an increase in sodium excretion and a decrease in K+ and H+ excretion in the collecting tubules.
Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, inhibit NaCl transport in the distal convoluted tubule, resulting in a moderate increase in sodium excretion and moderate diuresis.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, like acetazolamide, increase bicarbonate excretion in the proximal convoluted tubule. While not commonly used as a diuretic, it is used to treat glaucoma, prevent altitude sickness, and idiopathic intracranial hypertension.
Mannitol is a strong diuretic that remains in the lumen in a high concentration and retains water in the collecting systems by osmotic effect. Its use is controversial, but it is thought to reduce intracranial pressure by osmotically extracting water from CSF and brain parenchyma into the blood.
Understanding the different types of diuretics and their mechanisms of action can help healthcare professionals choose the appropriate medication for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are working in a GP surgery and discussing the importance of primary prevention medication for a patient who has attended for a cardiovascular health check up, including blood tests. Unfortunately, the patient's elderly mother returns 4 weeks later complaining of muscle soreness.
Which of the following medications is the likely cause for the symptom of myalgia?Your Answer: Clopidogrel
Correct Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Medications for Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease
Primary prevention of cardiovascular disease is crucial in reducing the incidence of stroke and myocardial infarction. Medications play a vital role in reducing modifiable risk factors such as blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Simvastatin is commonly used to reduce cholesterol levels, but some patients may experience myalgia. Other options include reducing the dose of statin, trying a different statin, or using other agents such as ezetimibe. Bisoprolol is a selective beta-blocker that is more commonly used in secondary prevention. Aspirin is well-tolerated in primary prevention, but patients should be aware of the slight increase in bleeding risk. Clopidogrel is used in secondary prevention, while candesartan can be used in primary prevention for hypertension management without causing myalgia. It is important to note that medication alone is not enough, and lifestyle changes such as healthy eating and regular exercise are also crucial for cardiovascular health.
Medications for Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. She has a medical history of depression, epilepsy, and pulmonary tuberculosis and is currently taking carbamazepine, St John's wort, rifampicin, and isoniazid. Upon examination, she appears emaciated and has a noticeable odor of alcohol. Given her overdose, what factors may be associated with a lower risk of hepatotoxicity in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute alcohol intake
Explanation:There is no evidence to suggest that acute alcohol intake increases the risk of hepatotoxicity from paracetamol overdose. In fact, it may even have a protective effect. Chronic alcohol excess, on the other hand, is known to increase the risk of liver damage. Additionally, drugs like carbamazepine that induce liver enzymes should be used with caution in cases of paracetamol overdose.
Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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