-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She has had a fever overnight, along with a sore throat and cough. Her father is worried that she seems more tired than usual today. During the examination, you note the following:
Temperature 38.5 degrees
Heart rate 160 bpm
Respiratory rate 40 / min
Oxygen saturation 95%
The lungs are clear, but there is inflammation and redness in the throat, and there are swollen lymph nodes in the neck.
According to the NICE traffic light system for assessing fever in children, which of the following is considered 'amber'?Your Answer: Respiratory rate 38 / min
Correct Answer: Heart rate 155 bpm
Explanation:The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 45-year-old man returns after he was found to have abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an alanine aminotransferase (ALT) of 98 iu/l and was Hep B surface-antigen positive.
Select from the list the single statement that is true of chronic hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus.Your Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Hepatitis B Infection
Chronic hepatitis B infection occurs in up to 10% of adults who contract the virus. This means that the virus remains in the body long-term, with the surface antigen (HBsAg) persisting in the serum. However, up to two-thirds of people in the chronic phase remain well and do not experience any liver damage or other issues. This is known as the carrier state or chronic inactive hepatitis B, where HBeAg is absent, anti-HBe is present, and HBV DNA levels are low or undetectable. While carriers can still transmit the virus, their infectivity is lower than those with chronic active hepatitis.
Around 20% of carriers will eventually clear the virus naturally, but this can take several years. However, some carriers may experience spontaneous reactivation of hepatitis B due to the emergence of the HBeAg-negative strain of the virus. The remaining individuals with chronic hepatitis B experience persistent liver inflammation, also known as chronic active hepatitis B. Symptoms can include muscle aches, fatigue, nausea, lack of appetite, intolerance to alcohol, liver pain, jaundice, and depression. HBeAg is usually still present, and the virus is still replicating, with raised HBV DNA levels and high infectivity. Transaminase levels may be elevated, but not always significantly.
If left untreated, chronic active hepatitis B can lead to cirrhosis and even hepatocellular carcinoma. It’s important to note that hepatitis D is a separate virus that only infects individuals who are already infected with hepatitis B. Understanding the different phases and potential outcomes of chronic hepatitis B infection is crucial for proper management and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Which one of the following is a valid reason for exception reporting a patient under the quality and outcomes framework (QOF)?
Your Answer: A patient who is on the maximum tolerated doses of medication whose treatment remains suboptimal
Explanation:Understanding the Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF)
The Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF) is a program that rewards and incentivizes GP practices for achieving certain standards in patient care. It was introduced as part of the General Medical Services (GMS) to improve the management of chronic diseases like diabetes and enhance the overall patient experience. The QOF is based on three key areas, namely clinical indicators, public health, and public health including additional services sub-domain.
Clinical indicators are standards linked to the care of patients suffering from chronic diseases and make up the largest domain of QOF. The value of a point for clinical indicators is determined by the prevalence of the condition in the practice. The public health domain includes indicators for smoking cessation, cervical screening, child health surveillance, and more. The public health including additional services sub-domain has indicators across two service areas of cervical screening and contraceptive services.
Participation in the QOF is voluntary, but 5% of practices should be visited at random to prevent fraud. Patients may be exception reported in certain situations, such as when they have refused to attend review after being invited on at least three occasions during the preceding 12 months or when they have a supervening condition that makes treatment of their condition inappropriate.
Overall, the QOF is a program that aims to improve patient care and incentivize GP practices to achieve certain standards. By understanding the different domains and indicators, patients can have a better understanding of the care they should expect from their GP practice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old-boy has diarrhoea. Campylobacter is grown from a stool sample.
Select from the list the commonest source of infection in the UK.Your Answer: Unpasteurised milk
Correct Answer: Contaminated food
Explanation:Campylobacter Enteritis: A Common Bacterial Infection of the Gut
Campylobacter enteritis is a prevalent bacterial infection of the gut in industrialized countries, affecting people of all ages, especially young adults. In the United Kingdom alone, there are approximately 55,000 laboratory isolations reported annually, with an incidence rate of 100/100,000. However, the actual incidence rate is likely to be ten times higher than reported.
The consumption of raw or barbecued meats, particularly poultry, carries a significant risk of infection. Broiler chickens are the most common source of Campylobacter spp, and almost all retailed chickens are contaminated. Therefore, self-infection or cross-contamination to other foods can occur if proper hygiene is not observed. Other sources of infection include unpasteurized milk, contaminated water, and pets with diarrhea. Person-to-person spread is also possible.
Campylobacter is a notifiable disease in the UK. Although the condition is often self-limiting, antibiotic treatment may be necessary in severe cases, worsening disease, immunocompromised individuals, or symptoms lasting more than seven days. Erythromycin is the first-line antibiotic of choice, with a recommended dosage of 250-500mg for up to seven days.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding cholesteatomas is accurate?
Your Answer: The most common presenting symptoms is persistent otalgia
Correct Answer: The peak incidence is 10-20 years
Explanation:Understanding Cholesteatoma
Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.
The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.
During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.
Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.
In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had diarrhoea and been vomiting for the last 48 hours.
On further questioning, the child has had four very loose stools today and vomited three times. The child has no significant past medical history and is usually well. There has been no blood in the faeces. There is no history of foreign travel. On examination the child has a temperature of 37.5°C, is not dehydrated and has a soft abdomen with no focal findings. You diagnose gastroenteritis.
What is the most appropriate way of managing this child?Your Answer: Conservative treatment with advice regarding hydration and when to seek further advice
Explanation:Managing Gastroenteritis in Children
Gastroenteritis is a common childhood illness that requires effective management to determine whether the child can be treated at home or needs referral to a hospital. It is important to note that not all children develop lactose intolerance after gastroenteritis, so switching to lactose-free formula is not recommended. Antibiotics are also usually unnecessary, as gastroenteritis is typically viral. The decision to manage the illness at home depends on the child’s hydration status and the parents’ ability to maintain that hydration.
Hydration status is assessed clinically based on various factors such as alertness, pulse rate, capillary refill time, mucous membranes, skin turgor, and urine output. In primary care, taking blood to check for signs of dehydration is not routinely recommended. Referral to paediatrics should not be the default option for children under 12 months of age; the decision to treat at home or refer should be based on the clinical assessment. If the child is not clinically dehydrated and there are no atypical features, it would be reasonable to monitor them at home with advice on how to maintain hydration and when to seek review if their condition worsens.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus. She is currently in good control and has no concurrent illnesses. What is the recommended frequency for monitoring her blood glucose levels?
Your Answer: On waking and after lunch and the evening meal
Correct Answer: At least 4 times a day, including before each meal and before bed
Explanation:For individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is advisable to check their blood glucose levels a minimum of four times daily, which should include prior to every meal and at bedtime.
Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.
Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 63-year-old poorly controlled, diabetic man comes back to your clinic with persistent swelling and pain in his left ankle over the past 4 weeks. He was previously evaluated by one of your colleagues who ordered an ankle x-ray. The result revealed significant disruption and subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joints. His HbA1c level was 74mmol/mol two months ago.
What condition is the patient most likely suffering from?Your Answer: Charcot joint
Explanation:When a patient with poorly controlled diabetes presents with foot pain lasting more than a week, it is important to consider the possibility of Charcot joint. While septic arthritis should be ruled out in a hot swollen joint, this patient’s symptoms have persisted for several weeks, making septic arthritis less likely. Gout or pseudogout may also be considered, but typically affect the 1st MTPJ and are often recurrent. An anterior talo-fibular ligament tear could be a potential cause of forefoot pain and swelling, but would require a history of trauma. Ultimately, Charcot joint should be considered as a possible diagnosis in this patient.
Understanding Charcot Joints
A Charcot joint, also known as a neuropathic joint, is a condition where a joint becomes severely damaged due to a loss of sensation. While it was previously caused by syphilis, it is now commonly seen in diabetic patients. Despite the degree of joint disruption, Charcot joints are typically less painful than expected due to the sensory neuropathy. However, patients may still experience some degree of pain, with 75% reporting it. The joint is often swollen, red, and warm.
Charcot joints are characterized by extensive bone remodeling and fragmentation, particularly in the midfoot. This condition can cause significant disability and deformity if left untreated. Therefore, early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent further damage and improve outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman presents with a complaint of right elbow pain. The pain has been persistent for the last four weeks and is most severe approximately 4-5cm distal to the lateral aspect of the elbow joint. The pain is exacerbated by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis
Correct Answer: Radial tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Common Causes of Elbow Pain
Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.
Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.
Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.
Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of consuming bendroflumethiazide?
Your Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Gout is more likely to occur as a result of taking bendroflumethiazide, rather than pseudogout.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
In clinic, two male patients with Marfan syndrome are being evaluated. Both individuals have confirmed mutations in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15. Despite being close in age, one patient displays severe skeletal abnormalities such as marked thoracic lordosis and pectus excavatum, while the other has a nearly normal skeletal examination. What genetic concept can best explain the variation in phenotype between these two patients?
Your Answer: Aneuploidy
Correct Answer: Expressivity
Explanation:Expressivity is a term used in genetics to describe how much a genotype is expressed in an individual’s phenotype. This can vary greatly, even among individuals with the same gene. Neurofibromatosis type 1 is an example of a condition with high phenotypic variability due to expressivity. Penetrance is a similar concept, but it looks at the statistical variability of a genotype in a population. Incomplete penetrance occurs when the genotype is present but the phenotype is not observed, which can explain why some monogenic disorders do not follow predictable inheritance patterns. Hemingway’s cats in Florida showed high penetrance but variable expression of polydactyly, where the gene always caused extra toes but the number varied. Aneuploidy is when there is an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell, such as in Down syndrome. Anticipation refers to the increasing severity of an inherited disorder in subsequent generations, as seen in Huntington’s disease.
Understanding Penetrance and Expressivity in Genetic Disorders
Penetrance and expressivity are two important concepts in genetics that help explain why individuals with the same gene mutation may exhibit different degrees of observable characteristics. Penetrance refers to the proportion of individuals in a population who carry a disease-causing allele and express the related disease phenotype. In contrast, expressivity describes the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression in an individual.
There are several factors that can influence penetrance and expressivity, including modifier genes, environmental factors, and allelic variation. For example, some genetic disorders, such as retinoblastoma and Huntington’s disease, exhibit incomplete penetrance, meaning that not all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition. On the other hand, achondroplasia shows complete penetrance, meaning that all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition.
Expressivity, on the other hand, describes the severity of the phenotype. Some genetic disorders, such as neurofibromatosis, exhibit a high level of expressivity, meaning that the phenotype is more severe in affected individuals. Understanding penetrance and expressivity is important in genetic counseling and can help predict the likelihood and severity of a genetic disorder in individuals and their families.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man has a bilirubin concentration of 55 μmol/l (normal value <21 μmol/l). He has suffered from episodic jaundice in the past but is otherwise fit and well. His diagnosis is Gilbert syndrome.
Which of the following is associated with Gilbert syndrome?
Your Answer: Risk of kernicterus at birth
Correct Answer: γ-glutamyltransferase in the normal range
Explanation:Understanding Gilbert Syndrome: Symptoms, Risks, and Diagnosis
Gilbert syndrome is a common, benign condition that causes mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is familial and occurs in 5-10% of adults in Western Europe. While some patients may experience symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and abdominal pain, many are asymptomatic. Jaundice is usually mild and can worsen with physical exertion, fasting, or dehydration. However, liver function tests, including γ-glutamyltransferase, should be normal.
Unlike other liver conditions, Gilbert syndrome doesn’t cause abnormal liver histology or conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is also not a risk factor for kernicterus at birth.
Diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome is based on clinical presentation and elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels. Fasting can actually increase bilirubin levels in this condition. Therefore, it is important to rule out other liver disorders if abnormal liver function tests or histology are present.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, risks, and diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and management for patients with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
You see a 12-year-old boy with an unusual pattern of bruising on his back. He is accompanied by his older sister who is aged 20, as the mother is unwell. The boy says he fell awkwardly while at school.
After the consultation, the older sibling tells the boy to wait in the waiting room and then tells you that she thinks that her mother is hitting the boy. She asks you not to say anything as she doesn't want to get her mother into trouble.
How would you manage this situation?Your Answer: You should refer the case to the child protection lead
Correct Answer: You should refer the child to a haematologist to investigate the bruising
Explanation:Responding to Suspected Child Abuse in a Medical Setting
When presented with possible cases of child abuse, it is our duty to be vigilant and take action. If a child discloses abuse to you in a medical setting, it is important to respond appropriately. The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has produced a toolkit to assist practices in managing suspected cases of abuse.
If a child discloses abuse to you, it is important to stay calm and listen actively to what they are saying. Find an appropriate opportunity to explain that the information will likely need to be shared with others and avoid promising to keep secrets. Allow the child to continue at their own pace and ask only clarifying questions, avoiding leading questions.
Reassure the child that they have done the right thing by telling you and explain what you will do next and with whom the information will be shared. It is important to record what has been said in writing, using the child’s own words as much as possible, and noting the date, time, any names mentioned, and to whom the information was given. Do not delay passing this information on.
In summary, responding to suspected child abuse in a medical setting requires active listening, appropriate communication, and prompt action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence that have been ongoing for 3 years. She has also noticed a significant weight loss, dropping from 65 kg to 57kg in the past few months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming gluten-containing foods. Upon examination, her BMI is 18.5 kg/m2. An oesopho-gastro-duodenoscopy is performed, and she is diagnosed with coeliac disease through jejunal biopsy. What is the most appropriate procedure to perform at the time of this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease Patients: Which Ones are Indicated?
Coeliac disease is a condition that can increase the risk of osteoporosis due to the malabsorption of calcium. In patients who are at a higher risk of osteoporosis, a Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan should be conducted. This includes patients who have persistent symptoms on a gluten-free diet lasting for at least one year, poor adherence to a gluten-free diet, weight loss of more than 10%, BMI less than 20 kg/m2, or age over 70 years.
In addition to DEXA scans, other diagnostic tests may be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. Flexible colonoscopy is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients unless specific bowel symptoms or pathology are suspected. Abdominal ultrasound (US) is not indicated for coeliac disease patients unless there is suspected pathology in solid organs such as the liver, gallbladder, pancreas, or kidney. Barium enema is not frequently used and is not specifically indicated for coeliac disease patients. Chest X-ray (CXR) is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients, but may be considered in patients with unexplained weight loss, chronic cough, haemoptysis, or shortness of breath.
In summary, DEXA scans are indicated for coeliac disease patients at a higher risk of osteoporosis, while other diagnostic tests should be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 23-year-old female who is overweight visits her doctor complaining of daily headaches that have been ongoing for two weeks. The headaches are felt on both sides of her forehead, persist throughout the day, and intensify when she bends over. She doesn't experience any aura with the headaches. During a fundoscopy, the doctor notices blurring of the optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a possible diagnosis for a young woman with a high BMI, headache, and visual symptoms, as it is associated with papilloedema. Cluster headaches, migraines, and sinus headaches do not account for papilloedema and have different characteristics.
Understanding Papilloedema
Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition typically affects both eyes. During a fundoscopy, several signs may be observed, including venous engorgement, loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and Paton’s lines.
There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia or vitamin A toxicity.
It is important to diagnose and treat papilloedema promptly, as it can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause of the increased intracranial pressure, such as surgery to remove a tumor or medication to manage hypertension.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A nervous 19-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner. She asks for cervical screening due to a family friend's recent diagnosis of cervical cancer. She is currently on her third day of her period and has regular menstrual cycles. She has noticed more vaginal discharge and occasional bleeding after sex in the past two weeks. There is no significant family history. What is the best course of action to take at this point in management?
Your Answer: STI Screening + Cervical screening
Correct Answer: Speculum examination + STI Screening
Explanation:Women under the age of 25 years cannot receive cervical screening. Before considering referral to colposcopy, other possible causes should be ruled out first.
As she is currently on day 2 of her menstrual period, pregnancy is unlikely. Given her new boyfriend and symptoms of increased vaginal discharge and occasional post-coital bleeding, a speculum examination and STI screening would be the most appropriate course of action.
While cervical screening is not typically offered to women under 25, if the patient’s history strongly suggests cervical cancer and other possibilities have been eliminated, referral to colposcopy may be necessary.
Although cervical cancer is rare in young women, it is still important to investigate the cause of her symptoms.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy presents with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination, you hear a heart murmur that has not been noted previously.
Which of the following features is most indicative of an innocent murmur?Your Answer: The murmur is short and diastolic in nature
Correct Answer: The murmur is short and systolic in nature
Explanation:Understanding Innocent Murmurs in Children
Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. They are short in duration, soft, systolic, and typically located at the left sternal border. Innocent murmurs may change with the child’s position or respiration, but they do not usually radiate and are without symptoms in the patient.
It is important to note that a grade 4/6 murmur is loud with a thrill and is usually pathological. Murmurs that are only diastolic in nature or pansystolic in nature are also usually pathological. The presence of abnormal heart sounds is another indication of a pathological murmur.
If an innocent murmur is suspected, it should disappear when the child has recovered from a febrile illness. If the murmur persists when the child is well, further investigation is warranted.
Understanding the characteristics of innocent murmurs can help healthcare professionals differentiate between harmless murmurs and those that require further investigation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of progressive limb weakness that has been developing over the past two years. During the examination, it is observed that he walks with a normal gait, but there is wasting of the quadricep muscles bilaterally. Although his parents are healthy, his maternal uncle required a wheelchair from his twenties. What is the most probable complication linked with this disorder? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia
Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Understanding the Complications of Becker Muscular Dystrophy
Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) is a genetic disorder that causes progressive muscle wasting and weakness. It typically presents with proximal muscle weakness and wasting, which can lead to the loss of independent walking between the ages of 20 and 60. BMD is inherited in an X-linked pattern, and a family history of the disease can help with diagnosis.
One of the most common complications of BMD is dilated cardiomyopathy, which occurs in 60-75% of those affected. This condition can be asymptomatic or cause dyspnea and fatigue, and it is the most common cause of death in BMD patients. Regular cardiac monitoring with an ECG and ECHO is recommended from diagnosis or ten years of age.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is another genetic cardiovascular disease that can be inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. While most people with this condition are asymptomatic, some may present with dyspnea, chest pain, palpitations, or syncope.
Malignant hyperthermia is a rare but serious complication that can occur in BMD patients during general anesthesia. There is a link between the high creatine kinase levels present in muscular dystrophies and the progression to malignant hyperthermia following the stress of anesthesia.
Thyrotoxicosis is not associated with BMD, but it can cause myopathy and weakness. However, it would not normally cause wasting of the quadriceps, and it would not account for a family history of a wheelchair-bound uncle.
Urinary incontinence is also not associated with BMD. It is more commonly associated with multiple sclerosis, which can present with weakness. However, a diagnosis of MS would require evidence of another lesion disseminated in both time and space, making it less likely in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of abnormal vaginal discharge. She reports engaging in unprotected sexual activity multiple times this month. She has experienced similar symptoms in her late teens and early twenties.
What test has the greatest sensitivity for the probable condition of the patient?Your Answer: Vulvo-vaginal swab with NAAT
Explanation:Chlamydia is best diagnosed using nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs), which are highly sensitive and specific. In clinical practice, NAATs are the preferred method of testing. For females, vulvo-vaginal swabs are the most effective, while urethral swabs are typically used for men. Although cultures are also highly sensitive and specific, they can be less effective due to various factors such as inadequate specimen collection and overgrowth of cell cultures. Additionally, cell culture is expensive and requires experienced technicians. Patients who test positive for chlamydia should also be advised on the risks associated with unprotected sex and offered long-acting contraceptives. A pregnancy test may also be necessary.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease is hospitalized due to chest pain. The 10-hour troponin T test comes back negative. While in the hospital, his medications were adjusted to lower the risk of cardiovascular disease and to manage newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus. After being discharged, he visits his GP with complaints of diarrhea. Which medication is the most likely culprit?
Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal side-effects like bloating and diarrhoea, which are commonly observed in patients taking this medication. However, if the patient has an elevated troponin T, metformin may not be appropriate as it is contraindicated in cases of tissue hypoxia that have occurred recently.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 29-year-old female patient complains of intermittent episodes of white fingers that turn blue and then red, accompanied by pain. The symptoms are more severe during winter but persist throughout the year, and wearing gloves doesn't alleviate them. Physical examination of her hands, skin, and other joints reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following treatments might be helpful?
Your Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.
If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring any treatment?
Your Answer: Pyogenic granuloma
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Granuloma Annulare and Actinic Keratoses
Granuloma annulare is a common skin condition that is characterized by palpable annular lesions that can appear anywhere on the body. The cause of this condition is unknown, and it is rarely associated with diabetes. In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the lesions will resolve on their own within a year.
On the other hand, actinic keratoses are rough, scaly lesions that develop on sun-damaged skin. These lesions can also be a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma. Treatment options for actinic keratoses include cryotherapy, topical 5-fluorouracil (Efudix), topical diclofenac (Solaraze), excision, and curettage. While spontaneous regression of actinic keratoses is possible, it is not common.
In summary, both granuloma annulare and actinic keratoses are skin conditions that require different approaches to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 63-year-old man is taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
Select the single ideal target INR from the options.Your Answer: 2.5
Explanation:Recommended INR Levels for Anticoagulation Therapy
Anticoagulation therapy is used to prevent blood clots in individuals with certain medical conditions. The target level for the majority of indications is an INR (international normalized ratio) of 2.5. However, for individuals who are already receiving warfarin and have recurrent deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, a higher INR of 3.5 is recommended. Additionally, for patients with mechanical prosthetic heart valves, the recommended INR level ranges from 3.0 to 3.5 depending on the type of valve. It is important to closely monitor INR levels and adjust the dosage of anticoagulation therapy as needed to prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man presents with classic symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) and is concerned about the likelihood of recurrence. He reports multiple episodes of the room spinning when he moves his head, lasting 30 seconds to 1 minute. You explain that while symptoms often resolve without treatment over several weeks, the Epley manoeuvre can be offered to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is a driver, is disabled by his symptoms and would like to know the chances of recurrence over the next 3-5 years.
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Approximately 50% of individuals diagnosed with BPPV will experience a relapse of symptoms within 3 to 5 years.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 50-year-old woman presents with a four week history of shoulder pain. There has been no obvious precipitating injury and no previous experience. The pain is worse on movement and there is a grating sensation if she moves the arm too quickly. She also gets pain at night, particularly when she lies on the affected shoulder.
On examination there is no obvious erythema or swelling. Passive abduction is painful between 60 and 120 degrees. She is unable to abduct the arm herself past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are preserved. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis
Explanation:The individual is exhibiting a typical symptom known as the painful arc, which is indicative of shoulder impingement. This condition is often caused by supraspinatus tendonitis.
Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles
The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.
The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.
Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man on your patient roster has been experiencing recurrent angina episodes for the past few weeks despite being prescribed bisoprolol at the highest dose. You are contemplating adding another medication to address his angina. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg, and his heart rate is 84 beats/min, which is regular. There is no other significant medical history.
What would be the most suitable supplementary treatment?Your Answer: Nicorandil
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:If beta-blocker therapy is not effective in controlling angina, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine should be added. However, it is important to note that rate-limiting calcium-channel blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil should not be combined with beta-blockers as they can lead to severe bradycardia and heart failure. In cases where a calcium-channel blocker is contraindicated or not tolerated, potassium-channel activators like nicorandil or inward sodium current inhibitors like ranolazine may be considered. It is recommended to seek specialist advice before initiating ranolazine.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old boy has been experiencing pain in his left hip and knee, causing him to stop playing rugby for the past month. There was no known injury, but his symptoms have worsened in the last 24 hours. Despite having an upper respiratory tract infection the week before, he is currently feeling well with no fever. He took one of his mother's co-codamol 30/500 an hour ago, which provided some relief. However, he is unable to walk without assistance.
During the examination, his knee appears normal, but his hip tends to externally rotate when flexed. He is in the 95th percentile for weight, but all other observations are normal. He is currently taking 50 mcg of levothyroxine daily for hypothyroidism.
What would be the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Refer for an outpatient orthopaedic appointment
Correct Answer: Arrange emergency admission under orthopaedics
Explanation:Slipped Upper Epiphysis: Diagnosis and Treatment
Slipped upper epiphyses are more common in overweight boys aged 10-15 and are associated with obesity and hypothyroidism. Patients often present with pain, which may be referred to the knee, and it is important to examine the hips thoroughly. On examination, abduction and internal rotation may both be reduced, and the affected leg may be shortened. The key findings supporting the diagnosis are the presence of risk factors and gait abnormalities.
Slipped epiphyses can be classified as acute, chronic, or acute on chronic, and as unstable or stable. In the case of unstable slipped epiphysis, urgent surgical repair is necessary to prevent avascular necrosis. Stable slipped epiphysis is usually treated with in situ screw fixation, and prophylactic fixation of the contralateral hip may also be considered.
In the primary care setting, emergency admission under orthopaedics is necessary for patients with acute and unstable slipped epiphysis. For chronic and stable cases, x-ray is the first line investigation, and U&Es, serum TFTs, and serum growth hormone may also be considered.
In summary, early diagnosis and appropriate treatment are crucial in managing slipped upper epiphysis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man residing in assisted living is brought in by his caregiver for a routine health check-up. His recent blood tests, including liver function tests, have all returned normal. The results are as follows:
- Bilirubin: 10 umol/l (normal range: 3 - 17 umol/l)
- Alanine transferase (ALT): 35 iu/l (normal range: 3 - 40 iu/l)
- Aspartate transaminase (AST): 25 iu/l (normal range: 3 - 30 iu/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 90 umol/l (normal range: 30 - 100 umol/l)
- Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT): 50 u/l (normal range: 8 - 60 u/l)
- Total protein: 70 g/l (normal range: 60 - 80 g/l)
During the consultation, the patient reveals that he consumes 62 units of alcohol per week. You discuss the possibility of referring him for alcohol dependence treatment and community detoxification.
What would be the most appropriate course of action now?Your Answer: No further action required, as liver function is normal
Correct Answer: Refer the patient for a FibroScan (transient elastography)
Explanation:Patients who consume more than 50 units of alcohol per week (males) or more than 35 units per week (females) should be referred for an ELF test or FibroScan, even if their liver function tests are normal, according to current NICE CKS guidance. This is because patients may have significant cirrhosis despite normal liver function tests, and FibroScan is the most accurate method for screening for cirrhosis.
While monitoring liver function is important, the next appropriate step would be to assess using a FibroScan, as patients can have advanced cirrhosis with normal liver function tests. Waiting 2 or 4 years to repeat liver function tests is too long, as the disease may progress significantly in the meantime.
Liver ultrasound may be helpful, but it is not sufficient for detecting cirrhosis in all cases. Ultrasound screening for liver cirrhosis alone is not recommended, as patients may have cirrhosis without evidence on liver ultrasound.
Taking no further action is not appropriate, given the potential for liver disease despite normal liver function tests.
Alcoholic liver disease is a range of conditions that includes alcoholic fatty liver disease, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis. When investigating this disease, gamma-GT levels are typically elevated, and a ratio of AST:ALT greater than 3 strongly suggests acute alcoholic hepatitis. In terms of management, glucocorticoids like prednisolone are often used during acute episodes of alcoholic hepatitis. Maddrey’s discriminant function is used to determine who would benefit from glucocorticoid therapy, and pentoxyphylline may also be used. The STOPAH study compared the effectiveness of pentoxyphylline and prednisolone and found that prednisolone improved survival at 28 days, while pentoxyphylline did not improve outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
You see a 50-year-old gentleman with an acutely red, painful and swollen first MTP joint. He has had gout attacks in the past for which he is on allopurinol 100 mg daily. He has no other past medical history and is on no other medication.
On examination, he is apyrexial and appears systemically well.
What is the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Naproxen
Explanation:Treatment for Acute Gout Attack
NSAIDs or colchicine are the primary treatments for an acute gout attack. If the patient is already taking allopurinol, it should be continued. Serum uric acid levels should only be checked four weeks after an acute attack as levels can be normal during an attack. If NSAIDs or colchicine are contraindicated, prednisolone should be considered.
After treating the acute attack, a serum uric acid test should be done four weeks later. Based on the results, the allopurinol dosage can be adjusted to maintain serum uric acid levels below 300 µmol/L. It is important to follow the treatment plan to prevent future gout attacks and reduce the risk of complications. Proper management of gout can improve the patient’s quality of life and prevent long-term joint damage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner because of a painless swelling of the scrotum on one side. The swelling enlarges during the day and diminishes overnight. On examination there is a smooth swelling, within which the testis can be felt. Transillumination is seen when a torch is held against the scrotum.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hydrocele
Explanation:Understanding Hydroceles and Hernias in Children
During fetal development, the testicle descends into the scrotum accompanied by a sac-like extension of peritoneum called the processus vaginalis (PV). If the PV fails to close, it can result in a communicating hydrocele, where only fluid can pass through, or a hernia, where other abdominal contents protrude.
To diagnose a hydrocele, transillumination of the scrotum can reveal fluid in the tunica vaginalis (TV). However, this test may not fully exclude a hernia, as bowel may also transilluminate. Hydroceles may appear to enlarge during the day and disappear at night due to gravity’s effect on filling.
Hernias may present with abdominal pain, constipation, or vomiting, and the lump may be more prominent when the child cries. Bowel sounds in the scrotum strongly suggest a hernia.
In infants, many hydroceles resolve spontaneously due to PV closure early after birth. Observation is often appropriate up to 12-18 months of age.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)