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  • Question 1 - You are the Foundation Year 2 doctor on a general practice (GP) attachment...

    Incorrect

    • You are the Foundation Year 2 doctor on a general practice (GP) attachment when a 65-year-old man presents, complaining of malaise, cough and breathlessness. He says these symptoms have been present for 2 days, and he has brought up some yellow-coloured sputum on a few occasions. He reports no pain and no palpitations and is coping at home, although he has taken 2 days off work. He has no long-standing conditions but smokes five cigarettes a day and has done so for the last 15 years. He has no known allergies. On examination, he is alert and orientated, and has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 126/84 mmHg and a temperature of 38.1 °C. There is bronchial breathing and crepitations on auscultation, particularly on the right-hand side of the chest, and heart sounds are normal.
      What would be the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admission to hospital

      Correct Answer: 5-day course of amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia

      Community-acquired pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be effectively managed in the community with appropriate treatment and management. The severity of the infection can be assessed using the CRB-65 score, which takes into account confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A score of zero indicates low severity and suggests that oral antibiotics and community treatment should suffice. However, admission to hospital may be necessary in certain cases.

      The first-choice antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia is amoxicillin, although a macrolide may be considered in patients with penicillin allergy. Flucloxacillin may be added if there is suspicion of a staphylococcal infection or associated influenzae.

      It is important to provide safety-netting advice to patients, advising them to return if symptoms worsen or do not improve on antibiotics. Additionally, the absence of wheeze on auscultation and no history of respiratory disease suggests that a salbutamol inhaler is not necessary.

      While the CURB-65 score is commonly used, the CRB-65 score is more practical in community settings as it does not require laboratory analysis. Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment and management can effectively manage community-acquired pneumonia in the community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old girl is referred to the optometrist by her GP due to...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is referred to the optometrist by her GP due to her mother's concern about a squint. The optometrist diagnoses her with exotropia and offers treatment options, including intermittent eye patching. However, before any treatment can be started, the family moves to a different area and misses their follow-up appointments. The mother does not seek further attention for her daughter's exotropia.

      What potential future health risks may this child be more susceptible to due to the lack of treatment for her exotropia?

      Your Answer: Amblyopia

      Explanation:

      If childhood squints are not corrected, it may result in amblyopia, also known as ‘lazy eye’. This condition is more likely to occur if the child has exotropia, where one eye deviates outward. However, it can be treated with patching. There is no increased risk of developing esotropia, hypermetropia, hypertropia, or hypotropia due to non-compliance with exotropia treatment, as these are different forms of squint.

      Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.

      To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.

      If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old construction worker presents with an area of redness on his right...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old construction worker presents with an area of redness on his right foot. The area of redness has grown in size over the past day and is warmer than the surrounding normal skin. The patient mentions that the area is also tender to touch.
      Following taking a history and examining the patient, the physician suspects a diagnosis of cellulitis.
      Which of these terms is best used to describe ‘cellulitis’?

      Your Answer: Localised inflammation and cellular debris accumulation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Forms of Skin Inflammation

      Cellulitis, inflammation of subcutaneous tissue, is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and requires urgent treatment with antibiotics. Surgical wounds and malignant tumors can also cause inflammation, but the latter is a response by the immune system to control malignancy. Inflammation of the epidermis can be caused by various non-infective processes, such as sunburns or abrasions. Localized infection may lead to an abscess, which requires incision and drainage. It is important to understand the distinct pathology and treatment for each form of skin inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who was diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder 8...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who was diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder 8 months ago. She has been taking sertraline for 5 months but feels that her symptoms have not improved much. Sophie wants to switch to a different medication. What is the most suitable drug to start?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      If sertraline, a first-line SSRI, is ineffective or not well-tolerated for treating GAD, alternative options include trying a different SSRI like paroxetine or escitalopram, or an SNRI like duloxetine or venlafaxine. In Maxine’s case, since sertraline did not work, venlafaxine, an SNRI, would be a suitable option. Bupropion is primarily used for smoking cessation but may be considered off-label for depression treatment if other options fail. Mirtazapine is a NaSSA used for depression, not GAD. Pregabalin can be used if SSRIs or SNRIs are not suitable, and propranolol can help with acute anxiety symptoms but is not a specific treatment for GAD.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor's office, reporting a recent onset of a...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor's office, reporting a recent onset of a red, swollen, and hot great left toe. He denies any injury to the toe and has a medical history of hypertension, which is being treated with a single medication. The doctor suspects acute gout as the diagnosis.
      What medication is most likely responsible for triggering the acute gout?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gout and its Causes: A Review of Medications and Differential Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the joint. This article reviews the causes of gout, which can be primary or secondary hyperuricaemia. Secondary hyperuricaemia can be caused by overproduction or decreased renal excretion, including the use of thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide. The differential diagnosis for an acute red, hot swollen joint includes septic arthritis, gout, pseudogout, inflammatory monoarthritis, and post-traumatic causes. Treatment for gout includes medications for chronic and acute gout, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, colchicine, or prednisolone. This article also discusses the effects of medications like colchicine, propranolol, lisinopril, and moxonidine on gout and other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The following laboratory results were returned in a 7-week-old girl admitted with six...

    Incorrect

    • The following laboratory results were returned in a 7-week-old girl admitted with six days of severe projectile vomiting:
      pH 7.51 (7.36-7.44)
      PO2 12 KPa/95 mmHg (11.3-12.6)
      PCO2 4.7 KPa/35 mmHg (4.7-6.0)
      Blood Urea 11 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Na+ 131 mmol/L (137-144)
      K+ 3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Chloride 83 mmol/L (95-107)
      What is true concerning this patient?

      Your Answer: An x ray of the abdomen is likely to show dilated loops of small bowel

      Correct Answer: He should be resuscitated immediately with normal saline

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of a Dehydrated Infant with Pyloric Stenosis

      When diagnosing a dehydrated infant, it is important to consider the biochemical picture. In the case of a hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, pyloric stenosis is highly likely. This occurs due to high sodium and proton losses from gastric fluids, leading to compensatory increased renal potassium excretion to conserve H+. It is important to note that this is a metabolic, rather than respiratory alkalosis, as CO2 is not reduced.

      One physical symptom to look out for in a dehydrated infant with pyloric stenosis is a sunken fontanelle. This occurs due to severe dehydration. When treating this condition, it is recommended to resuscitate the infant with normal saline first. It is not expected to see a dilated bowel, as pyloric obstruction is present rather than small bowel obstruction. Overall, it is important to consider the biochemical and physical symptoms when diagnosing and treating a dehydrated infant with pyloric stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain. She is currently receiving peritoneal dialysis, and the physician suspects that she may be suffering from peritonitis.
      What is the most indicative sign or symptom of peritonitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Pain improving on movement

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Peritonitis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Peritonitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the serosa that lines the abdominal cavity and viscera. It is commonly caused by the introduction of an infective organism, perforation of an abdominal organ, trauma, or collection formation. Patients may also present with sterile peritonitis due to irritants such as bile or blood. Risk factors include existing ascites, liver disease, or peritoneal dialysis.

      Symptoms of peritonitis include abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, with reduced or absent bowel sounds. Movement and coughing can worsen pain symptoms. Patients may have a fever and become tachycardic as the condition progresses due to intracapsular hypovolemia, release of inflammatory mediators, and third space losses. As the condition worsens, patients may become hypotensive, indicating signs of sepsis.

      Treatment for peritonitis involves rapid identification and treatment of the source, aggressive fluid resuscitation, and targeted antibiotic therapy.

      It is important to note that hyperactive tinkling bowel sounds are suggestive of obstruction, whereas patients with peritonitis typically present with a rigid abdomen and increased abdominal guarding. Pain tends to worsen with movement, as opposed to conditions such as renal colic where the patient may writhe around in pain.

      In severe cases, patients with peritonitis may become hypothermic, but this is not a common presentation. Understanding the symptoms and treatment of peritonitis is crucial for prompt and effective management of this serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A woman brings her middle-aged husband to see you. She is worried about...

    Correct

    • A woman brings her middle-aged husband to see you. She is worried about his recent forgetfulness. She also reveals that he has been experiencing hallucinations of small children playing in the house. On examination, there is nothing significant to note except for a mild resting tremor in the hands (right > left).

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Dementia: Lewy Body Dementia, Korsakoff’s Dementia, Alzheimer’s Disease, Multi-Infarct Dementia, and Pick’s Disease

      Lewy Body Dementia: This type of dementia is characterized by memory impairment and parkinsonism. It is caused by the build-up of Lewy bodies in the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, resulting in a movement disorder similar to Parkinson’s disease and memory problems. Visual hallucinations are common, and symptoms often fluctuate. Treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and levodopa, while neuroleptics are contraindicated.

      Korsakoff’s Dementia: This type of dementia is typically associated with alcohol misuse. Patients tend to confabulate and make up information they cannot remember.

      Alzheimer’s Disease: This is the most common type of dementia. However, visual hallucinations and resting tremor are not typical symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease.

      Multi-Infarct Dementia: This type of dementia is caused by problems that interrupt blood supply to the brain, such as multiple minor and major strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.

      Pick’s Disease: Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, this type of dementia is characterized by the patient sometimes losing their inhibitions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 61-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of warm, swollen, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of warm, swollen, and painful knuckles, as well as large subcutaneous nodules near her elbows. She also reports experiencing joint stiffness lasting more than an hour in the morning. Upon examination, her PIP joints are hyperextended, and her DIP joints are flexed. If a biopsy were performed on the nodules, what would be the most likely histological appearance?

      Your Answer: Amorphous crystalline mass surrounded by macrophages

      Correct Answer: Fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epithelioid cells

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Connective Tissue Pathologies: Histological Characteristics

      Connective tissue pathologies can present with a variety of clinical features, making it important to understand their histological characteristics for accurate diagnosis.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by swan neck deformity, subcutaneous nodules, and enlarged knuckles. The histological composition of subcutaneous nodules is areas of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epithelioid cells.

      Gouty tophi, on the other hand, present as an amorphous crystalline mass surrounded by macrophages.

      A cystic space caused by myxoid degeneration of connective tissue is more typical of a ganglion cyst.

      Nodular tenosynovitis is a well-encapsulated nodule of polygonal cells within a tendon sheath.

      Lastly, pigmented villonodular synovitis is characterized by a darkly pigmented synovium with an exuberant, villous growth.

      Understanding the histological characteristics of these connective tissue pathologies can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m2, having lost a significant amount of weight after undergoing gastric sleeve surgery a year ago. She is a non-smoker and has never been pregnant. Her blood pressure is 119/78 mmHg.

      The patient is interested in long-acting reversible contraceptives but does not want a coil. She also wants a contraceptive that can be discontinued quickly if she decides to start a family. What would be the most suitable contraceptive option for her?

      Your Answer: Nexplanon implantable contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Contraception for Obese Patients

      Obesity is a risk factor for venous thromboembolism in women taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). To minimize this risk, the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) recommends that women with a body mass index (BMI) of 30-34 kg/m² should use the COCP with caution (UKMEC 2), while those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or higher should avoid it altogether (UKMEC 3). Additionally, the effectiveness of the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be reduced in patients weighing over 90kg.

      Fortunately, there are other contraceptive options available for obese patients. All other methods of contraception have a UKMEC of 1, meaning they are considered safe and effective for most women, regardless of their weight. However, it’s important to note that patients who have undergone gastric sleeve, bypass, or duodenal switch surgery cannot use oral contraception, including emergency contraception, due to the lack of efficacy.

      In summary, obese patients should be aware of the increased risk of venous thromboembolism associated with the COCP and consider alternative contraceptive options. It’s important to discuss these options with a healthcare provider to determine the best choice for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on methotrexate. After...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on methotrexate. After six months, there was no improvement. He was switched to a combination of methotrexate and sulfasalazine, but there was still no improvement after a similar period of therapy.
      What is the most effective treatment option at this point?

      Your Answer: Infliximab plus methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Rheumatoid Disease: A Comparison of Biological Therapies and DMARDs

      Rheumatoid disease can be a debilitating condition that requires careful management. When standard disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief, biological therapies may be prescribed. Infliximab, adalimumab, and etanercept are some of the contemporary biological therapies available. Infliximab, in particular, is often co-prescribed with methotrexate, although it may cause a reversible lupus-like syndrome and tuberculosis reactivation.

      Combining gold, leflunomide, and methotrexate is unlikely to help patients who have already failed DMARD therapy. Azathioprine may be considered in severe cases, but biological therapy is the preferred treatment when intensive DMARD therapy fails. The combination of gold and penicillamine is a viable option for patients who meet the criteria for biological therapy, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. DMARD monotherapy, such as leflunomide, is only recommended when dual therapy is contraindicated.

      In summary, the choice of treatment for rheumatoid disease depends on the severity of the condition and the patient’s response to previous therapies. Biological therapies may offer relief for patients who have failed DMARD therapy, but careful monitoring for potential side effects is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 38-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breast discharge. The discharge...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breast discharge. The discharge is only from her right breast and is blood-tinged. The patient reports feeling fine and has no other symptoms. During the examination, both breasts appear normal without skin changes. However, a tender and fixed lump is palpable under the right nipple. No additional masses are found upon palpation of the axillae and tails of Spence. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intraductal papilloma

      Explanation:

      Blood stained discharge is most commonly associated with an intraductal papilloma, which is a benign tumor that develops within the lactating ducts. Surgical excision is the recommended treatment, with histology to check for any signs of breast cancer.

      Breast fat necrosis, on the other hand, is typically caused by trauma and presents as a firm, round lump within the breast tissue. It is not associated with nipple discharge and usually resolves on its own.

      Fibroadenomas, or breast mice, are also benign lumps that are small, non-tender, and mobile. They do not require treatment and are not associated with nipple discharge.

      Mammary duct ectasia is a condition where a breast duct becomes dilated, often resulting in blockage. It can cause nipple discharge, but this is typically thick, non-bloody, and green in color. Although bloody discharge can occur, it is less likely than with intraductal papilloma. Mammary duct ectasia is usually self-limiting, but surgery may be necessary in some cases.

      Pituitary prolactinoma is a possible differential diagnosis, but the nipple discharge would be bilateral and non-blood stained. Larger prolactinomas can also cause bitemporal hemianopia due to compression of the optic chiasm.

      Understanding Nipple Discharge: Causes and Assessment

      Nipple discharge is a common concern among women, and it can be caused by various factors. Physiological discharge occurs during breastfeeding, while galactorrhea may be triggered by emotional events or certain medications. Hyperprolactinemia, which is often associated with pituitary tumors, can also cause nipple discharge. Mammary duct ectasia, which is characterized by the dilation of breast ducts, is common among menopausal women and smokers. On the other hand, nipple discharge may also be a sign of more serious conditions such as carcinoma or intraductal papilloma.

      To assess patients with nipple discharge, a breast examination is necessary to determine the presence of a mass lesion. If a mass lesion is suspected, triple assessment is recommended. Reporting of investigations follows a system that uses a prefix denoting the type of investigation and a numerical code indicating the abnormality found. For non-malignant nipple discharge, endocrine disease should be excluded, and smoking cessation advice may be given for duct ectasia. In severe cases of duct ectasia, total duct excision may be necessary.

      Understanding the causes and assessment of nipple discharge is crucial in providing appropriate management and treatment. It is important to seek medical attention if nipple discharge persists or is accompanied by other symptoms such as pain or a lump in the breast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      82
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 49-year-old man underwent a kidney transplant two years ago due to end...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man underwent a kidney transplant two years ago due to end stage renal failure caused by ANCA associated vasculitis. He recently visited the clinic with complaints of sweating palms, weight loss, insomnia, and tremors. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, an undetectable TSH and a free T4 of 25 mg/dL (NR 4.5-11.5) were observed. The patient was diagnosed with Graves' disease after testing positive for thyroid stimulating hormone receptor (TSH-R) antibodies. Which medication could have potentially contributed to this condition?

      Your Answer: Ciclosporin

      Correct Answer: Alemtuzumab

      Explanation:

      Alemtuzumab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat autoimmune diseases and can cause lymphocyte depletion. However, it is associated with autoimmunity after treatment, particularly autoimmune thyroid disease. Regular thyroid function screening is important for patients who have received alemtuzumab. Other monoclonal antibodies, such as adalimumab, basiliximab, rituximab, and ciclosporin, are not known to be associated with autoimmunity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of chest...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of chest pain, breathlessness, and palpitations. An admission ECG reveals ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a ventricular rate of 170 bpm. His blood pressure is 100/66 mmHg, and his oxygen saturations are 95% on air and 100% on high flow oxygen (15 L/min). His blood sugar level is 8.3 mmol/L. Despite his condition, he remains alert and able to communicate. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and asthma. The medical team administers intravenous amiodarone to attempt to stop the arrhythmia. What is the mandatory intervention while giving intravenous amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Continuous ECG recording should be done via cardiac monitoring

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic drug that prolongs the repolarisation phase of the action potential by modulating calcium and potassium permeability. It is useful in various cardiac arrhythmias but requires continuous ECG monitoring due to its negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects. Amiodarone is metabolised via the cytochrome P450 enzyme system and is contraindicated in bradycardia and second or third degree heart block. Rapid infusion can cause a significant drop in blood pressure and should be avoided. Amiodarone can cause pulmonary complications, so routine chest x-rays and follow-up radiographs are recommended. It does not affect glucose metabolism but can cause hypoglycaemia when used with some oral antidiabetic drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of experiencing cold hands...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of experiencing cold hands and feet over the last two weeks. Her medications have been recently altered, with a new medication introduced to improve her blood pressure management. Which of the following medications is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are frequently prescribed for hypertension treatment, but they can lead to cold extremities as a side effect. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide commonly cause constipation, diarrhea, dizziness, and dry mouth. Angiotensin receptor blockers such as candesartan and losartan do not typically result in cold peripheries.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man visits his doctor seeking assistance in quitting smoking. He has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits his doctor seeking assistance in quitting smoking. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the past six years and has a history of epilepsy. Which smoking cessation aid is most likely to result in adverse effects for this individual?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Explanation:

      Options for Smoking Cessation in Patients with Seizure History

      Patients with a predisposition or past history of seizures should avoid bupropion due to an increased risk of seizures. The Medicines and Health products Regulatory Authority (MHRA) warns against prescribing bupropion to patients who experience seizures. However, behavioural therapy is encouraged for all patients who wish to quit smoking. E-cigarettes can be a safer alternative and may eventually help patients quit entirely, but they are not currently funded by the NHS. Nicotine replacement therapy in the form of patches or gum can also be used. Varenicline is cautioned but not contraindicated for use in patients with seizures, so it should only be used if the benefits outweigh the risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular Epilepsy Clinic appointment with her partner. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but she wants to start trying for a baby. She is currently on sodium valproate and has been seizure-free for one year.
      What is the most suitable antiepileptic medication for this patient to take during the preconception period and pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Stop sodium valproate and commence lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Introduction:
      Women of childbearing age with epilepsy require careful consideration of their antiepileptic medication options due to the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. This article will discuss the appropriate medication options for women with epilepsy who are planning to conceive or are already pregnant.

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Lamotrigine:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Lamotrigine and carbamazepine are recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) as safer alternatives. Lamotrigine is a sodium channel blocker and has fewer side effects than carbamazepine. It is present in breast milk but has not been associated with harmful effects on the infant.

      Continue Sodium Valproate:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Women taking sodium valproate should be reviewed preconception to change their medication to a safer alternative. Untreated epilepsy can be a major risk factor in pregnancy, increasing maternal and fetal mortality.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Ethosuximide:
      Ethosuximide is not appropriate for this patient’s management as it is recommended for absence seizures or myoclonic seizures. Use during breastfeeding has been associated with infant hyperexcitability and sedation.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Levetiracetam:
      Levetiracetam is recommended as an adjunct medication for generalised tonic-clonic seizures that have failed to respond to first-line treatment. This patient has well-controlled seizures on first-line treatment and does not require adjunct medication. Other second-line medications include clobazam, lamotrigine, sodium valproate and topiramate.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Phenytoin:
      Phenytoin is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. It can lead to fetal hydantoin syndrome, which includes a combination of developmental abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are evaluating the growth of a 6-week-old infant. Her length is at...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating the growth of a 6-week-old infant. Her length is at the 35th percentile, weight at the 42nd percentile, and head circumference at the 4th percentile. What is the probable reason for her microcephaly?

      Your Answer: Achondroplasia

      Correct Answer: Foetal alcohol syndrome

      Explanation:

      Microcephaly is often linked to foetal alcohol syndrome, which also presents with other physical characteristics such as a smooth philtrum, hypoplastic upper lip, and epicanthic folds. Conditions like Thalassaemia, Turner’s syndrome, and cerebral palsy do not typically impact head size, while Achondroplasia is associated with macrocephaly and frontal bossing, not microcephaly. Recognizing the distinct physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for both exams and accurate diagnosis.

      Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

      Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.

      The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.

      It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11
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  • Question 19 - A gynaecologist is performing a pelvic examination on a 30-year-old woman in the...

    Incorrect

    • A gynaecologist is performing a pelvic examination on a 30-year-old woman in the lithotomy position. To palpate the patient’s uterus, the index and middle fingers of the right hand are placed inside the vagina, while the fingers and palm of the left hand are used to palpate the abdomen suprapubically. While palpating the patient’s abdomen with her left hand, the doctor feels a bony structure in the lower midline.
      Which one of the following bony structures is the doctor most likely to feel with the palm of her left hand?

      Your Answer: Coccyx

      Correct Answer: Pubis

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Pelvis: Palpable Bones and Structures

      The pelvis is a complex structure composed of several bones and joints. In this scenario, a doctor is examining a patient and can feel a specific bone. Let’s explore the different bones and structures of the pelvis and determine which one the doctor may be palpating.

      Pubis:
      The pubis is one of the three bones that make up the os coxa, along with the ilium and ischium. It is the most anterior of the three and extends medially and anteriorly, meeting with the opposite pubis to form the pubic symphysis. Given the position of the doctor’s hand, it is likely that they are feeling the pubic symphysis and adjacent pubic bones.

      Coccyx:
      The coccyx is the lowest part of the vertebral column and is located inferior to the sacrum. It is composed of 3-5 fused vertebrae and is a posterior structure, making it unlikely to be palpable in this scenario.

      Ilium:
      The ilium is the most superior of the three bones that make up the os coxa. It is a lateral bone and would not be near the position of the doctor’s palm in this scenario.

      Sacrum:
      The sacrum is part of the vertebral column and forms the posterior aspect of the pelvis. It is formed by the fusion of five vertebrae and articulates with the iliac bones via the sacroiliac joints bilaterally. Although it is found in the midline, it is a posterior structure and would not be palpable.

      Ischium:
      The ischium forms the posteroinferior part of the os coxa. Due to its position, it is not palpable in this scenario.

      In conclusion, the doctor is most likely palpating the pubic symphysis and adjacent pubic bones during the examination. Understanding the anatomy of the pelvis and its structures is important for medical professionals to accurately diagnose and treat patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation for hypertension that is not responding to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation for hypertension that is not responding to treatment. She has a previous medical history of medullary thyroid carcinoma. Her physical examination is unremarkable. During her work-up, she is found to have hypercalcemia with a level of 2.8 mmol/l. Her parathyroid hormone (PTH) is slightly elevated above the normal range. What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Hypercalcaemia with Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A (MEN 2A) is a genetic disorder caused by a gain in function mutation in the RET proto-oncogene. The classic triad of MEN 2A includes medullary thyroid carcinoma, primary hyperparathyroidism, and phaeochromocytoma. In cases where a patient presents with a history of medullary thyroid carcinoma and hypercalcaemia with inappropriately elevated PTH levels, primary parahyperthyroidism is implied, and the combination of these symptoms with treatment-resistant hypertension is virtually diagnostic of MEN 2A.

      Other conditions associated with hypercalcaemia include multiple myeloma, but PTH levels would be appropriately low. Marfan’s syndrome, a hereditary disorder of connective tissue, is not typically associated with dysfunction of the parathyroid hormone axis. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a main differential diagnosis, but patients with MEN1 typically suffer from hyperparathyroidism, pituitary adenomas (typically prolactinomas), and pancreatic islet cell tumours, not the symptoms described here. Neurofibromatosis, a disorder caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene, is associated with multiple neural tumours and various other manifestations, but disruption of the parathyroid hormone axis is not a feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A patient in their 60s with TB is undergoing induction phase treatment with...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s with TB is undergoing induction phase treatment with Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Pyridoxine, and Rifampicin. Among these drugs, which one is most likely to result in peripheral neuropathy?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid and Peripheral Neuropathy

      Peripheral neuropathy is a common side-effect of isoniazid, according to the British National Formulary. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with pre-existing risk factors such as diabetes, alcohol dependence, chronic renal failure, pregnancy, malnutrition, and HIV infection. To reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy, supplementation with pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, is recommended.

      In summary, isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, which is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. This side-effect is more likely to occur in individuals with certain risk factors, but can be prevented with the use of pyridoxine supplementation. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential risks and take appropriate measures to prevent them in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 80-year-old woman with a history of cervical carcinoma has been brought to...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman with a history of cervical carcinoma has been brought to the Emergency Department in a confused and dehydrated state. Her blood tests reveal significant abnormalities, including a potassium level of 7.2 mmol/l (NR 3.5–4.9), creatinine level of 450 μmol/l (NR 60–110), and urea level of 31.2 mmol/l (NR 2.5–7.5). Upon retesting, her serum potassium remains elevated. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange continuous ECG monitoring and consider giving 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate intravenous (IV)

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia in a Patient with Renal Dysfunction

      Hyperkalaemia is a medical emergency that requires prompt management. Once confirmed via a repeat blood sample, continuous ECG monitoring is necessary. For cardioprotection, 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate IV should be considered. Insulin can also be administered to drive potassium ions from the extracellular to the intracellular compartment. A third blood sample is not necessary and may delay treatment. An urgent ultrasound scan should be arranged to determine the underlying cause of renal dysfunction. Furosemide should be reserved until fluid balance assessment results are known. Renal replacement therapy may be considered as a final option, but prognosis should be assessed first. Nebulised salbutamol may also have positive effects in reducing serum potassium, but IV administration carries a significant risk of arrhythmia. Correction of severe acidosis may exacerbate fluid retention in patients with kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 85-year-old woman with a history of dementia is discovered on the floor...

    Correct

    • A 85-year-old woman with a history of dementia is discovered on the floor of her nursing home. She is taken to the Emergency Department and reports experiencing pain in her left hip and is unable to put weight on it. X-rays of the hip and pelvis show no abnormalities. Despite receiving sufficient pain relief, she continues to complain of severe hip pain and remains unable to bear weight. What is the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: MRI Hip

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with clinical symptoms of a hip fracture, it is necessary to conduct further imaging. Repeating plain films is unlikely to yield any new information. While radioisotope bone scans can detect areas of high bone turnover and osteoblastic activity, they are not very sensitive. Although CT scans are widely available, the recommended first line investigation for occult hip fractures is an MRI, as per NICE guidelines.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.9
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  • Question 24 - A 56-year-old cleaner is diagnosed with a T-score of -2.7 after a DXA...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old cleaner is diagnosed with a T-score of -2.7 after a DXA scan to evaluate bone density due to experiencing two fractures within a year. Bisphosphonate therapy once weekly and a vitamin D supplement are initiated. What is the target cell type of bisphosphonates?

      Your Answer: Osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates: Mechanism of Action on Bone Cells

      Bisphosphonates are a class of drugs used in the treatment of various bone disorders. They work by inhibiting bone breakdown, which reduces the amount of calcium released into the circulation. This is achieved through their dual action on calcium phosphate crystals in bone and osteoclasts, the cells responsible for bone resorption. Bisphosphonates also indirectly prevent osteoblast and osteocyte apoptosis, which are involved in bone synthesis. However, they do not act on renal tubular cells or intestinal mucosal cells. Understanding the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates on bone cells is crucial in their clinical use for conditions such as osteoporosis, multiple myeloma, Paget’s disease, and hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - During her prenatal appointment, a mother informs her obstetrician that she was previously...

    Incorrect

    • During her prenatal appointment, a mother informs her obstetrician that she was previously diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). What is the procedure that poses the highest risk of bleeding in the newborn?

      Your Answer: Fetal blood sampling

      Correct Answer: Prolonged ventouse delivery

      Explanation:

      During pregnancies, immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) can become a complication if maternal antiplatelet antibodies pass through the placenta. In such cases, ventouse delivery can cause bleeding in the neonate due to the high vacuum pressure. This can worsen conditions like cephalohaematoma or subgaleal haemorrhage, especially if the neonate has thrombocytopenia. While forceps and fetal blood sampling can be used with caution, they are not as risky.

      Understanding the Difference between Gestational Thrombocytopenia and Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)

      Gestational thrombocytopenia and immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) are two conditions that affect platelet count during pregnancy. Gestational thrombocytopenia is a common condition that results from a combination of factors such as dilution, decreased production, and increased destruction of platelets. On the other hand, ITP is an autoimmune condition that is usually associated with acute purpuric episodes in children, but a chronic relapsing course may be seen more frequently in women.

      Differentiating between the two conditions can be challenging and often relies on a careful history. Gestational thrombocytopenia may be considered more likely if the platelet count continues to fall as pregnancy progresses, but this is not a reliable sign. If the patient becomes dangerously thrombocytopenic, she will usually be treated with steroids, and a diagnosis of ITP assumed. Pregnant women found to have low platelets during a booking visit or those with a previous diagnosis of ITP may need to be tested for serum antiplatelet antibodies for confirmation.

      It is important to note that gestational thrombocytopenia does not affect the neonate, but ITP can do if maternal antibodies cross the placenta. Depending on the degree of thrombocytopenia in the newborn, platelet transfusions may be indicated. Serial platelet counts can also be performed to see whether there is an inherited thrombocytopenia. Understanding the difference between these two conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and management during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.9
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  • Question 26 - A woman has been started on amiodarone for cardiac arrhythmias.
    Which one of the...

    Correct

    • A woman has been started on amiodarone for cardiac arrhythmias.
      Which one of the following options are the mandatory blood tests to be conducted on patients taking amiodarone?

      Your Answer: U/E, LFT and TFT

      Explanation:

      Monitoring for Amiodarone Therapy: Recommended Tests and Frequency

      Amiodarone is a commonly used medication for treating various arrhythmias, especially in the elderly population. However, it can cause adverse effects on thyroid and liver function, as well as lung toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients regularly before and during therapy.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends conducting baseline tests, including renal, thyroid, and liver function, as well as a chest radiograph and electrocardiogram. Thyroid function should be tested regularly due to the potential for T4 and T3 level changes. Liver function should also be checked every six months, and the dose should be reduced or discontinued if transaminases are elevated or signs of chronic liver disease are present. Lung toxicity is a significant side effect, occurring in 3-17% of patients, and can cause interstitial pneumonitis, lung fibrosis, and bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (BOOP).

      While amiodarone is not known to cause diabetes, it can rarely cause anemia and thrombocytopenia. Calcium uptake is not affected by amiodarone. Therefore, HbA1c and calcium tests are not necessary, but FBC, U/E, and TFT should be monitored regularly.

      In summary, monitoring for amiodarone therapy is crucial to ensure patient safety and prevent adverse effects. Regular testing of renal, thyroid, and liver function, as well as FBC and TFT, can help detect any potential issues early on and allow for appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A five-year-old boy has been brought to the clinic by his worried mother...

    Incorrect

    • A five-year-old boy has been brought to the clinic by his worried mother due to an unusual walking pattern and lower limb weakness. After conducting a thorough medical history, physical examination, and further tests, the child is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. What is the prevailing cardiac pathology linked to this disorder?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common heart condition linked to Duchenne muscular dystrophy, while acute myocardial infarctions, atrioventricular septal defects, and coronary aneurysms are not associated with this condition. Atrioventricular septal defects are, however, associated with Down syndrome, while coronary aneurysms are a complication of Kawasaki disease. Dilated cardiomyopathy is a rapidly progressive complication that typically starts in adolescence for individuals with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive condition characterized by progressive muscle wasting and weakness.

      Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It affects the dystrophin genes that are essential for normal muscular function. The disorder is characterized by progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other features include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      To diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy, doctors typically look for elevated levels of creatinine kinase in the blood. However, genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the preferred method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Unfortunately, there is currently no effective treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, so management is largely supportive.

      The prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy is poor. Most children with the disorder are unable to walk by the age of 12 years, and patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, which can further complicate the management of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - As the F2 in the paediatric clinic, a mother comes in with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • As the F2 in the paediatric clinic, a mother comes in with concerns about her 7-month-old daughter. She shows you a video on her phone of the baby crying, stopping abruptly, drawing her chin into her chest, throwing her arms out, relaxing, and then starting to cry again. This cycle is repeated around 10 times over the course of the minute-long video. The mother also mentions that the child has been referred to the community paediatric clinic due to a slight delay in reaching developmental milestones. What is the most appropriate test for you to order to help confirm your diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI Head and Spine

      Correct Answer: EEG

      Explanation:

      The child’s distress pattern can help differentiate between infantile spasms and colic. Additionally, the child’s history suggests developmental delay and infantile spasms, making an abdominal x-ray unnecessary. An EEG is necessary to check for hypsarrhythmia, commonly found in West’s syndrome, while genetic testing and MRI of the head and spine are not required.

      Understanding Infantile Colic

      Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, which is often worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.

      Despite its prevalence, there is no known cure for infantile colic. However, there are some remedies that parents can try to alleviate the symptoms. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries advise against the use of simethicone or lactase drops, such as Infacol® and Colief®, respectively. These remedies have not been proven to be effective in treating infantile colic.

      Parents can try other methods to soothe their baby, such as holding them close, rocking them gently, or using a pacifier. Some parents also find that white noise or music can help calm their baby. It is important to remember that infantile colic is a temporary condition that usually resolves on its own by the time the baby is three to four months old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.5
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman is seeking help at the Psychiatry Clinic upon referral from...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is seeking help at the Psychiatry Clinic upon referral from her General Practitioner. The patient is experiencing persistent low mood for the past two months and finds it difficult to get out of bed to go to work at times. She used to enjoy playing tennis, but now she does not find pleasure in any sports. Additionally, she has lost interest in food and lacks the motivation to go out and meet her friends. The patient also reports waking up early in the morning and having difficulty falling back asleep. She lives alone and has been divorced for two years. She smokes and drinks moderate amounts of alcohol.
      What is the most affected aspect of pleasure in this patient?

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters and Depression: Understanding the Role of Dopamine

      Depression is a complex mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While the exact causes of depression are not fully understood, research has shown that neurotransmitters play a crucial role in its pathophysiology. One of the main neurotransmitters involved in depression is dopamine.

      Dopamine is primarily involved in the reward system of the brain, which is responsible for feelings of pleasure and motivation. Anhedonia, the lack of pleasure in doing pleasurable activities, is a major symptom of depression. Studies have shown that the reward system, which works primarily via the action of dopamine, is affected in depression.

      While most antidepressants work by increasing the concentration of serotonin or norepinephrine in the neuronal synaptic cleft, anhedonia has been a symptom that is hard to treat. This is because dopamine is the main neurotransmitter involved in the reward system, and increasing its concentration is crucial in relieving anhedonia.

      Other neurotransmitters, such as acetylcholine, serotonin, noradrenaline, and GABA, also play a role in depression, but they are not primarily involved in the reward system and anhedonia symptoms. Understanding the role of dopamine in depression can help in the development of more effective treatments for this debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.3
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of feeling down...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of feeling down for some time. She reports experiencing episodes lasting approximately three minutes where she suddenly becomes very anxious and hyperventilates. Upon further inquiry, the GP discovers that this has been progressively worsening over the past two months. The patient is interested in knowing if there are any medications that could assist her.
      What is the mode of action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors?

      Your Answer: Build up of neurotransmitter in synaptic cleft

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitter Effects of Different Medications

      Different medications have varying effects on neurotransmitters in the brain. Here are some examples:

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are primarily used as antidepressants and can also be used to manage panic attacks and anxiety disorders. They work by inhibiting the activity of enzymes monoamine oxidase A and B found within the synaptic cleft. This results in a reduction in the breakdown of monoamine neurotransmitters such as serotonin, melatonin, adrenaline, and noradrenaline, leading to a build-up of these neurotransmitters within the synaptic cleft.

      Benzodiazepines are GABA agonists that bind to GABA receptors in the neurone membrane and potentiate the action of the receptor, increasing conduction of chloride ions across the membrane. This results in membrane hyperpolarisation, making the neurone less likely to fire. This can explain both the analgesic and sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

      Stimulant medication such as amphetamines inhibit the re-uptake of dopamine and to a lesser extent noradrenaline and serotonin. Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors also inhibit the re-uptake of serotonin. This leads to a reduced re-uptake of neurotransmitters.

      Tricyclic antidepressants, some SSRIs, clozapine, and olanzapine are anticholinergic medication that competitively bind to the acetylcholine receptor on the postsynaptic neurone, reducing the amount of acetylcholine binding. This results in an antibody to acetylcholine receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Rheumatology (2/3) 67%
Clinical Sciences (0/2) 0%
Colorectal (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (4/4) 100%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (0/3) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Passmed