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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of deteriorating...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of deteriorating vision in both eyes for the past 3 years. He complains of a gradual loss of peripheral vision, as if viewing through a tunnel. He is unable to play basketball due to difficulty seeing the ball. Additionally, he is experiencing increasing difficulty with his vision in low light conditions, causing him to avoid driving at night. Apart from this, he reports feeling healthy. There is no significant medical history to note. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Best disease

      Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      Retinitis pigmentosa is responsible for causing tunnel vision, as reported by the patient who is experiencing a gradual decline in their peripheral vision and difficulty seeing at night. These symptoms are typical of retinitis pigmentosa. However, central vision loss is associated with Best disease and juvenile retinoschisis, not retinitis pigmentosa. Glaucoma is improbable in this age range.

      Understanding Tunnel Vision and Its Causes

      Tunnel vision is a condition where the visual fields become smaller and more concentrated. This means that the person affected can only see what is directly in front of them, while the peripheral vision is diminished. There are several causes of tunnel vision, including papilloedema, glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, choroidoretinitis, optic atrophy secondary to tabes dorsalis, and hysteria.

      Papilloedema is a condition where there is swelling of the optic nerve head, which can cause pressure on the surrounding tissues. Glaucoma is a condition where there is damage to the optic nerve, which can lead to vision loss. Retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic disorder that affects the retina, causing progressive vision loss. Choroidoretinitis is an inflammation of the choroid and retina, which can cause vision loss. Optic atrophy secondary to tabes dorsalis is a condition where there is damage to the optic nerve due to syphilis. Hysteria is a psychological condition that can cause physical symptoms, including tunnel vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.1
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a gradual loss of night vision over the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a gradual loss of night vision over the past few months. On examination, she has also lost peripheral vision. She reports that her mother had a similar problem and became blind in her early 40s.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      Retinitis pigmentosa (RP) is a group of inherited disorders that cause progressive peripheral vision loss and difficulty seeing in low light, which can eventually lead to central vision loss. RP is often diagnosed based on the hallmark symptom of night blindness, and can be inherited in different ways. While there is no cure for RP, patients can receive low-vision evaluations and medications such as vitamins and calcium-channel blockers to help manage their symptoms. Glaucoma is another eye disease that can cause vision loss, particularly in older adults, but the patient’s symptoms and age do not suggest a diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma. Leber’s congenital amaurosis is a rare eye disorder that affects infants and young children, and is characterized by severe visual impairment, photophobia, and nystagmus, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Multiple sclerosis is an immune-mediated disease that can cause optic neuritis, but the patient’s symptoms do not match those typically associated with this condition. Vitreous hemorrhage is a condition where blood leaks into the vitreous body of the eye, causing visual disturbances such as floaters and cloudy vision, but the patient’s symptoms do not suggest this diagnosis either.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21.7
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old male with a history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male with a history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department with a painful red eye, photophobia, lacrimation, and reduced visual acuity. On examination, an irregularly shaped pupil is noted. What is the most suitable approach to manage this patient's current condition?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide and pilocarpine eye drops

      Correct Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) eye drops

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12.8
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  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper eyelid that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He recalls noticing a bump on the eyelid that was uncomfortable at first, but it gradually grew into a hard lump. He denies any pain at present and has not experienced any vision problems. Upon examination, the eye appears to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chalazion

      Explanation:

      A painless, firm lump in the eyelid is indicative of a chalazion or Meibomian cyst. This occurs when the Meibomian gland becomes blocked, resulting in the formation of a cyst. It is often a consequence of an internal stye (hordeolum internum). Although cysts may resolve on their own, they may require topical antibiotics if they become infected. The absence of pain and the prolonged history suggest that it is not an internal or external stye. Blepharitis and ectropion are unlikely to cause a lump in the eyelid.

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.

      Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      139.2
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  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of bilateral gritty and sore...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of bilateral gritty and sore eyes that have persisted for several weeks. He denies any history of trauma and has not experienced any discharge. He has not noticed any blurred vision. The patient's medical history is significant only for back pain, which he is managing with paracetamol and amitriptyline. During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/6 corrected bilaterally, and there are no apparent corneal or pupillary abnormalities. His eyes are not red, and eye movements are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dry eye syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dry eye syndrome is a common cause of bilateral sore eyes with a gritty or burning sensation. This can be treated with topical lubrication, such as hypromellose. While an examination may appear normal, fluorescein staining can reveal superficial punctate staining and Schirmer’s test may indicate reduced tear production. It is important to consider allergic conjunctivitis as a possible differential diagnosis, especially if symptoms persist for a prolonged period of time and there are no signs of conjunctival involvement.

      Understanding Dry Eye Syndrome

      Dry eye syndrome is a condition that causes discomfort in both eyes, with symptoms such as dryness, grittiness, and soreness that worsen throughout the day. Exposure to wind can also cause watering of the eyes. People with Meibomian gland dysfunction may experience symptoms that are worse upon waking, with eyelids sticking together and redness of the eyelids. In some cases, dry eye syndrome can lead to complications such as conjunctivitis or corneal ulceration, which can cause severe pain, photophobia, redness, and loss of visual acuity.

      Although there may be no abnormalities on examination, eyelid hygiene is the most appropriate management step for dry eye syndrome. This can help control blepharitis, which is a common condition associated with dry eye syndrome. By understanding the symptoms and appropriate management steps, individuals with dry eye syndrome can find relief and improve their overall eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old female patient complains of a painful and red left eye that...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient complains of a painful and red left eye that has been bothering her for a day. She reports continuous tearing from the affected eye and experiences photophobia. Upon examination, fluorescein staining reveals a small, feathery area of abnormal uptake. However, her visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer immediately to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest the possibility of a corneal abrasion or dendritic corneal ulcer, with photophobia being a key indicator. However, the feathery pattern observed is more indicative of herpes simplex keratitis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and caution should be exercised in prescribing topical steroids as they may exacerbate the infection.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.6
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old man complains of pain in his right eye that worsens with...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man complains of pain in his right eye that worsens with movement. Upon examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed. What is the most probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 8 - A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
      Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots. There is no optic disc swelling.
      His vital observations are as follows:
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate 14 per minute
      Temperature 37 °C
      According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?

      Your Answer: Grade 3

      Explanation:

      Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.

      Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.

      It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      35.3
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP with complaints of progressive tunnel vision...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP with complaints of progressive tunnel vision and difficulty seeing at night for the past year. He recalls his grandfather experiencing similar symptoms but is unsure of the cause. During fundus examination, bone-spicule pigmentation is observed in the peripheral retina. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      The presence of black bone-spicule pigmentation on fundoscopy is a classic sign of retinitis pigmentosa, an inherited retinal disorder that causes tunnel vision and night blindness by affecting the peripheral retina.

      Understanding Retinitis Pigmentosa

      Retinitis pigmentosa is a condition that primarily affects the peripheral retina, leading to tunnel vision. The initial sign of this condition is often night blindness, which can progress to a loss of peripheral vision. Fundoscopy, a diagnostic test, reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium. Retinitis pigmentosa is often associated with other diseases such as Refsum disease, Usher syndrome, abetalipoproteinemia, Lawrence-Moon-Biedl syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and Alport’s syndrome.

      To better understand retinitis pigmentosa, it is important to know that it is a genetic disorder that affects the retina’s ability to respond to light. This condition can lead to the death of photoreceptor cells in the retina, which are responsible for detecting light and transmitting visual information to the brain. As a result, individuals with retinitis pigmentosa may experience difficulty seeing in low light conditions, loss of peripheral vision, and, in severe cases, complete blindness.

      In summary, retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic condition that primarily affects the peripheral retina, leading to tunnel vision. It is often associated with other diseases and can cause night blindness, loss of peripheral vision, and, in severe cases, complete blindness. Early diagnosis and management are crucial in preventing further vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      6.6
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the Ophthalmology department with a 3-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the Ophthalmology department with a 3-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
      On examination, visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 per minute
      Oxygen saturation 97% on air
      Temperature 38.2 °C
      Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
      What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?

      Your Answer: Cefuroxime and metronidazole IV

      Correct Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis

      Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.

      While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.

      In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      83.1
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  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his left eye upon waking up this morning. He reports no pain in his eye. His medical history includes diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Upon fundoscopic examination, the right eye appears normal, but the left eye shows multiple retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Explanation:

      The sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages observed on fundoscopy in this patient are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion. Amaurosis fugax, which is caused by atheroembolism from the carotid arteries, results in temporary vision loss that resolves within a few minutes. In contrast, this patient’s vision loss is persistent. While central retinal artery occlusion also causes acute painless vision loss, it is characterized by a loss of relative afferent pupillary defect, a cherry-red macula, and a white/pale retina on fundoscopy. Hypertensive retinopathy may cause flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton wool spots on the retina, but it does not result in sudden vision loss.

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.

      Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      17.4
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  • Question 12 - A young patient presents with a painful red eye.
    Which of the following findings...

    Correct

    • A young patient presents with a painful red eye.
      Which of the following findings is more suggestive of acute conjunctivitis than anterior uveitis?

      Your Answer: Profuse discharge

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Acutely Painful Red Eye

      A red eye can be a sign of various eye conditions, including conjunctivitis, anterior uveitis, scleritis, and more. One of the most common symptoms of conjunctivitis is profuse discharge, which can cause the eyelids to stick together on waking. On the other hand, anterior uveitis can cause blurred vision, small pupil, and photophobia. Scleritis, an inflammatory disease that affects the sclera, can cause severe pain that worsens with eye movement and may radiate to the forehead or jaw. It’s essential to seek medical attention promptly if you experience any of these symptoms, as they can indicate a serious underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.1
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  • Question 13 - A 62-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with elevated intraocular pressure and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with elevated intraocular pressure and peripheral vision loss. He also has a history of asthma. What is the most suitable course of treatment to begin in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Timolol

      Correct Answer: Latanoprost

      Explanation:

      Medications for Glaucoma: Uses and Contraindications

      Glaucoma is a condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. The primary goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure. Here are some common medications used for glaucoma and their uses and contraindications:

      1. Latanoprost: This prostaglandin analogue increases scleral permeability to aqueous fluid, reducing intraocular pressure. It is safe to use in asthmatics and is recommended as a first-line medication.

      2. Brinzolamide: This carbonic anhydrase inhibitor also lowers intraocular pressure but is not a first-line medication for glaucoma. It is safe to use in those with concurrent asthma.

      3. Pilocarpine: This muscarinic receptor agonist improves the flow rate of aqueous humour but is not a first-line medication. It is cautioned against use in asthmatics as it can increase bronchial secretions and airway resistance.

      4. Sodium cromoglicate: This mast-cell stabiliser is not usually used in glaucoma but is commonly used in conditions such as allergic rhinitis.

      5. Timolol: This beta-receptor antagonist is contraindicated in asthmatics as it can lead to increased airway resistance through bronchospasm.

      It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best medication for individual cases of glaucoma, taking into consideration any contraindications or potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 14 - Which of the following is not a recognized feature of Horner's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a recognized feature of Horner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, pre-ganglionic, and post-ganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, pre-ganglionic lesions, and post-ganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while pre-ganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. Post-ganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 15 - What is the most frequent ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis, typically seen in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis, typically seen in patients of all ages?

      Your Answer: Keratitis

      Correct Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of keratoconjunctivitis sicca include a sensation of dryness, burning, and grittiness in the eyes, which is caused by a reduction in the production of tears.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.

      The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.

      In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.

      Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old female visits her GP 4 days after undergoing cataract surgery in...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old female visits her GP 4 days after undergoing cataract surgery in her left eye. She reports that the procedure went smoothly and she was discharged on the same day. However, she is currently experiencing pain in the operated eye and notes that it appears redder than before. Her right eye has a corrected visual acuity of 6/6, while her left eye has a corrected visual acuity of 6/18. There are no abnormalities in her pupillary reactions or eye movements. What is the most appropriate course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Urgent ophthalmological referral

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences redness in the eye, pain, and a decrease in vision after intraocular surgery, it is important to seek urgent ophthalmic evaluation as these symptoms may indicate endophthalmitis, a serious infection within the eye. Treatment options include antibiotics administered systemically or directly into the eye.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 17 - A 52-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with raised intraocular pressure (IOP) and...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with raised intraocular pressure (IOP) and loss of peripheral vision. She also has diabetes.
      Which of the following treatments would ophthalmology have initiated?

      Your Answer: Timolol

      Correct Answer: Latanoprost

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Open-Angle Glaucoma and Treatment Options

      Chronic open-angle glaucoma (COAG) is a progressive and irreversible optic neuropathy that can lead to significant visual loss if left untreated. It is the second leading cause of irreversible blindness in developed countries. Patients with COAG may not present with any symptoms until late in the disease course, making early detection and treatment crucial.

      The first-line treatment for COAG is a prostaglandin analogue, such as latanoprost. Other options include pilocarpine, a cholinergic parasympathomimetic agent, and brinzolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. More than one agent may be needed concurrently to achieve the target intraocular pressure (IOP).

      Beta-blockers, such as timolol, may also be used as an alternative or adjuvant therapy, but should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma. Sodium cromoglicate eye drops are not effective in the management of COAG or ocular hypertension (OHT).

      OHT is a major risk factor for developing COAG, but COAG can also occur without raised IOP. Age thresholds for treatment recommendations only apply when vision is currently normal and treatment is purely preventative. Patients experiencing peripheral vision loss should be evaluated for COAG regardless of age.

      Early detection and appropriate treatment can help prevent significant visual loss in patients with COAG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his left eye. Upon examination, the sclera appears red and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scleritis

      Correct Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Should red eye be attributed to glaucoma or uveitis?
      Glaucoma is characterized by intense pain, haloes, and a partially dilated pupil, while uveitis is indicated by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 19 - A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with a decline in his vision....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with a decline in his vision. He describes a gradual onset of dark floaters in his vision over the past few months and has recently experienced some episodes of flashing lights when outside in bright sunlight. The patient has a history of hypertension, which is managed with 5mg ramipril daily. He has a smoking history of 45 pack-years, does not consume alcohol, and is able to perform his daily activities independently. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's vision changes?

      Your Answer: Vitreous detachment

      Explanation:

      The patient has flashers and floaters associated with vitreous detachment, which can lead to retinal detachment. This is not central retinal artery occlusion, ischaemic optic neuropathy, macular degeneration, or temporal arteritis.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 20 - An elderly woman of 74 years old comes in with a vesicular rash...

    Correct

    • An elderly woman of 74 years old comes in with a vesicular rash surrounding her left eye. The eye appears red and she is experiencing some sensitivity to light. The initial diagnosis is herpes zoster ophthalmicus and an immediate referral to ophthalmology is arranged. What is the probable treatment she will receive?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      If systemic therapy is administered, topical antivirals are unnecessary. However, secondary inflammation may be treated with topical corticosteroids.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 21 - A 21-year-old man who wears contact lenses comes to the Emergency Department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man who wears contact lenses comes to the Emergency Department complaining of eye pain. He reports experiencing severe pain, watery eyes, and sensitivity to light in his left eye. Upon examination, his left eye is red and his pupil appears normal. What is the most suitable investigation to confirm the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Techniques for Corneal Ulcers

      Corneal ulcers can cause severe eye pain, photophobia, and watery eyes. Early diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One diagnostic technique is the fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam, where an orange dye is applied to the ocular surface and observed under a blue light. If the dye is taken up by the corneal epithelium, it fluoresces green/yellow, indicating corneal ulceration.

      Tonometry is another diagnostic technique used to measure intraocular pressure and diagnose glaucoma, but it is not appropriate for corneal ulcers. Computed tomography (CT) head scans are also not useful as they do not show soft-tissue abnormalities in the corneas.

      Orbital magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used to look for vascular lesions in the orbit, optic-nerve-sheath meningioma, optic-nerve neuritis, optic-nerve glioma, and orbital abscess. Retinoscopy, on the other hand, is used to measure refractive error and is not appropriate for diagnosing corneal ulcers.

      In summary, the fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam is a valuable diagnostic technique for corneal ulcers, while other techniques such as tonometry, CT head scans, and retinoscopy are not appropriate. Orbital MRI may be useful in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in her...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in her left eye. She reports experiencing pain with eye movement and a decrease in colour vision. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.

      During the examination, her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/24. A relative afferent pupillary defect is observed in her left eye, and visual field testing reveals a central scotoma in the left eye.

      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      A central scotoma is a common feature of optic neuritis, along with visual loss, periocular pain, and dyschromatopsia (change in colour perception). Other classic signs on examination include a relative afferent pupillary defect. Unlike open-angle glaucoma, which typically causes painless, gradual loss of peripheral vision, optic neuritis often affects the central vision. Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, on the other hand, causes sudden, painless loss of vision and is more common in people over 50. Optic nerve glioma, which is rare after age 20 and may be associated with neurofibromatosis, can cause visual defects and headaches but is not typically associated with eye movement pain or colour desaturation.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old retired teacher visits the doctor with a painless gradual loss of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old retired teacher visits the doctor with a painless gradual loss of vision. She reports difficulty reading as the words on the page are becoming harder to see. Additionally, she notices that straight lines in her artwork are appearing distorted, which is confirmed by Amsler grid testing. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dry age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient’s gradual central loss of vision and difficulty reading is dry age-related macular degeneration. This subtype accounts for the majority of cases of macular degeneration and typically presents with a gradual loss of vision. Glaucoma and retinal detachment are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms such as peripheral vision loss and sudden vision loss with flashes and floaters, respectively.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a red right eye. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a red right eye. She reports experiencing photophobia, blurred vision and excessive tearing of the eye for the last three days. She has a history of eczema and takes oral corticosteroids for it. She is referred to an ophthalmologist and fluorescein staining reveals the presence of a dendritic ulcer.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corneal abrasion

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex keratitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Dendritic Ulcer in the Eye

      A dendritic ulcer in the eye is a characteristic finding of herpes simplex keratitis, caused by the herpes simplex virus type 1. It may occur as a primary infection in children or as a reactivation in response to triggers such as stress or immunosuppression. The affected eye may present with redness, pain, photophobia, blurred vision, and increased tearing. However, other conditions may mimic the appearance of a dendritic ulcer on fluorescein staining, such as corneal abrasion, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, bacterial conjunctivitis, and cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 25 - Which one of the following features is not present in pre-proliferative retinopathy in...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is not present in pre-proliferative retinopathy in elderly diabetic patients?

      Your Answer: Microaneurysms

      Correct Answer: Neovascularisation

      Explanation:

      Proliferative retinopathy is characterized by the presence of retinal neovascularization.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old female patient arrived at the emergency department complaining of intense pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female patient arrived at the emergency department complaining of intense pain in her left eye, along with redness and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, her intraocular pressure was found to be elevated at 30 mmHg, and her pupil was mid-dilated. After diagnosing her with acute angle closure glaucoma, you promptly administered IV acetazolamide and topical pilocarpine. What is the definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical prostaglandin analogues in both eyes

      Correct Answer: Laser peripheral iridotomy in both eyes

      Explanation:

      The definitive treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma is laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates an additional pathway in the iris for aqueous to flow from the posterior chamber to the anterior chamber and be drained into the angle. While topical beta blockers, alpha agonists, prostaglandin analogues, and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can all help control intraocular pressure in glaucoma patients, they are not considered definitive treatments for AACG.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - You assess a patient in the Emergency Department who was admitted after a...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient in the Emergency Department who was admitted after a motorcycle accident. He is a diabetic patient, with multiple recent hospitalizations due to non-adherence to insulin therapy. Both of his pupils are small, responsive to accommodation, but unresponsive to light.
      What is the most appropriate description of this situation?

      Your Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil

      Explanation:

      – Adie pupil: A condition where the pupil is constantly dilated and reacts slowly to light, but responds better to accommodation. It is caused by damage to the parasympathetic innervation of the eye due to viral or bacterial infection. It is more commonly seen in females and is often accompanied by absent knee or ankle jerks.
      – Marcus-Gunn pupil: A relative afferent pupillary defect that is observed during the swinging light examination of pupil response. The pupils constrict less and appear to dilate when a light is swung from the unaffected to the affected eye. This condition is most commonly caused by damage to the optic nerve or severe retinal disease.
      – Horner’s syndrome: A condition characterized by miosis (pupillary constriction), ptosis (droopy eyelid), apparent enophthalmos (inset eyeball), with or without anhidrosis (decreased sweating) occurring on one side. It is caused by damage to the sympathetic trunk on the same side as the symptoms, due to trauma, compression, infection, ischaemia, or other causes.
      – Hutchinson’s pupil: A condition where the pupil on one side is unilaterally dilated and unresponsive to light. It is caused by compression of the occulomotor nerve on the same side, usually by an intracranial mass such as a tumor or hematoma.

      Argyll-Robertson Pupil: A Classic Pupillary Syndrome

      The Argyll-Robertson Pupil (ARP) is a classic pupillary syndrome that is sometimes observed in neurosyphilis. It is characterized by small, irregular pupils that do not respond to light but do respond to accommodation. A useful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA).

      The ARP can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis. It is important to note that the presence of an ARP may indicate underlying neurological or systemic disease and should prompt further evaluation and management. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying condition can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old man presents to ophthalmology with complaints of progressive vision loss over...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to ophthalmology with complaints of progressive vision loss over the past few months, which has worsened suddenly in the last week. On visual field testing, a central scotoma is noted, and fundoscopy reveals well-defined red patches on the retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wet age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences a gradual decline in vision over several months, along with metamorphopsia and a central scotoma, it is highly likely that they have wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). This condition is characterized by a sudden deterioration in vision, red patches on the retina during fundoscopy, and leakage of serous fluid and blood. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, on the other hand, presents with severe headaches, vomiting, and mid-dilated or irregularly shaped pupils. Dry ARMD also causes a slow decline in vision, but it does not result in sudden deterioration or red patches on the retina. Retinal detachment causes a painless loss of vision that starts peripherally and progresses centrally, while vitreous hemorrhage is a common cause of sudden visual loss in diabetics, characterized by dark spots in the vision and a hemorrhage within the vitreous cavity during fundoscopy.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 29 - During your FY2 rotation in General Practice, you saw a 75-year-old man in...

    Incorrect

    • During your FY2 rotation in General Practice, you saw a 75-year-old man in your GP clinic who complained of blurred vision in his right eye for the past 4 months. He finally decided to come to see you because he felt his vision was now very distorted. On dilated fundoscopy, the left eye appeared normal, but you could see drusen at the macula in the right eye. You suspect age-related macular degeneration.
      What is the ONE next step in management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Administer anti-VEGF injections

      Correct Answer: Refer to ophthalmology urgently within 1 week

      Explanation:

      It is essential to refer patients suspected of having AMD to ophthalmology urgently within 1 week for a formal diagnosis. This is because if the diagnosis is wet AMD, anti-VEGF injections can be administered, which will improve the patient’s long-term visual outcome. Even if drusen is present, which is more indicative of dry AMD, an urgent referral should still be made within 1 week. Delaying the referral for a month will postpone the formal diagnosis and treatment commencement for the patient. While multi-vitamins may be beneficial for dry AMD, it is not the next step in management. Atorvastatin is used to lower blood cholesterol levels and is not effective in treating drusen.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of left eye pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of left eye pain, headache, and blurred vision that started 3 hours ago. He denies any history of eye disease or trauma.
      During the examination, the left eye appears red and watery, while the right pupil reacts normally to light, but the left pupil remains dilated and unresponsive.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute closed-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is characterized by sudden onset of unilateral eye pain and visual loss, often accompanied by a headache. Examination findings consistent with glaucoma include an erythematous globe with a fixed and dilated pupil and a hazy cornea. Anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, and keratitis are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms and examination findings.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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