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Question 1
Correct
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Which among the following antibacterial regimens is considered the most appropriate to prescribe in a patient presenting with clinical signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease?
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline plus metronidazole
Explanation:The endocervix is the most common site of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in women. Symptoms of infection, when present, include dysuria, cervical discharge, and lower abdominal pain. However, 50% of cases in women may be asymptomatic leading to complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which may cause sterility, ectopic pregnancy, or perihepatitis.PID is also known as Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is defined as an inflammation of the upper genital tract due to an infection in women. The disease affects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically an ascending infection, spreading from the lower genital tract. The recommended intramuscular or oral regimens for PID are as follows:Ceftriaxone at 500 mg IM in a single dose (for persons weighing ≥150 kg, administer 1 g of ceftriaxone); plus doxycycline at 100 mg PO BID for 14 days with metronidazole at 500 mg PO BID for 14 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 2
Correct
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A 24-year-old student with red and painful right eye presents. Conjunctival erythema, mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting are seen on examination, and patient denies presence of itching of the eye. All his observations are normal, he has no fever and is otherwise well.Which of these is the most likely causative organism?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:The most frequent cause of red eye is conjunctivitis. It is caused by inflammation of the conjunctiva which can be infective or allergic and accounts for about 35% of all eye problems presenting to general practice.Viral conjunctivitis is commonly caused by adenoviruses and it is the most common infectious conjunctivitis.The common bacterial causes of conjunctivitis are Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Staphylococcus aureus.The clinical features of infective conjunctivitis include:Acute onset of conjunctival erythemaFeeling ‘grittiness’, ‘foreign body’ or ‘burning’ sensation in the eye.Watering and discharge which may cause transient blurring of visionThe discharge for viral conjunctivitis is less than that of bacterial conjunctivitis and usually watery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 3
Correct
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A 23-year-old has a known diagnosis of HIV. Blood is sent to the laboratory for tests.AIDS be diagnosed at a CD4 counts below?
Your Answer: 200 cells/mm 3
Explanation:A normal CD4 count ranges from 500-1000 cells/mm3.At CD4 count of less than 350 cells/mm3 treatment with anti-retroviral therapy should be considered.At a CD4 count of >200 cells/mm3 AIDS is diagnosed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman with history of gastritis and reflux esophagitis tested positive for Helicobacter pylori infection. Which of the following statements regarding Helicobacter pylori is considered true?
Your Answer: It is helix shaped
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori is a curved or helix-shaped, non-spore forming, Gram-negative, microaerophilic bacteria. It is motile, having multiple flagella at one pole. It has a lipopolysaccharide component in its outer membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 5
Correct
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A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is known to have a chronic hepatitis B infection.Which of the following hepatitis B serology results is consistent with a patient that is chronically infected? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: HBsAg positive, anti-HBc positive, IgM anti-HBc negative
Explanation:Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:Susceptible to infection:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = NegativeAnti-HBs = NegativeImmune due to natural infection:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = PositiveImmune due to vaccination:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = NegativeAnti-HBs = PositiveAcute infection:HBsAg = PositiveAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = NegativeIgM anti-HBc = PositiveChronic infection:HBsAg = PositiveAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = NegativeIgM anti-HBc = Negative
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 6
Correct
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An very unwell patient is receiving treatment in your hospital's HDU and is found to have an Escherichia coli O157 infection.Which one of these statements about Escherichia coli O157 is true?
Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome develops in approximately 6% of patients
Explanation:Escherichia coli O157 is a serotype of Escherichia coli.The Escherichia coliO157 strain is ‘enterohaemorrhagic’ and causes severe forms of acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea. It can also cause non-haemorrhagic diarrhoea. Incubation period of Escherichia coli O157 is usually 3-4 days and bloody diarrhoea usually begins on the 3rd or 4th day of the infection.Infections with Escherichia coliO157 are more common during the warmer months than in winter.Haemolytic uraemic syndrome develops in approximately 6% of patients. It is commonly seen in children and in the elderly. Escherichia coli O157 can also cause:Haemorrhagic colitisHaemolytic uraemic syndromeThrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura but not immune thrombocytopenic purpura.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A migrant from Eastern Europe needs to have screening performed for tuberculosis (TB) because he is a high-risk patient.Which statement concerning TB screening in the UK is true?
Your Answer: The Mantoux test administered using the ‘Sterneedle’ gun
Correct Answer: Vaccination with the BCG can result in a false positive test
Explanation:Vaccination with the BCG can result in a false positive test.The Mantoux test replaced the Heaf test as the TB screening test in the UK in 2005.The ‘Sterneedle’ gun is used to inject 100,000 units/ml of tuberculin purified protein derivative into the skin for the Heaf testThe Mantoux test involves the injection of 5 Tuberculin units (0.1mL) intradermally and the result read 2-3 days later. The interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) should NOT be used for neonates
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 8
Correct
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Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation period of 3 weeks and longer?
Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The incubation period for EBV varies from 2 weeks to 2 months.The usual incubation period for rubella is 14 days; with a range of 12 to 23 days.Gonorrhoea has a short incubation period of approximately 2 to 7 days.The mumps virus can be isolated from infected saliva and swabs rubbed over the Stensen’s duct from 9 days before onset of symptoms until 8 days after parotitis appears.Scarlet fever, which appears within 1 to 2 days after bacterial infection, is characterized by a diffuse red rash that appears on the upper chest and spreads to the trunk and extremities. The rash disappears over the next 5 to7 days and is followed by desquamation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 9
Correct
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A patient is diagnosed with a Klebsiella pneumoniae infection.Which SINGLE statement regarding Klebsiella pneumoniae is FALSE?
Your Answer: Species with ESBLs are sensitive to cefotaxime
Explanation:Klebsiellais a genus of non-motile,Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteriawith a prominent polysaccharide-based capsule. They are routinely found in the nose, mouth and gastrointestinal tract as normal flora, however, they can also behave as opportunistic pathogens.Infections with Klebsiella spp. areusually nosocomial. They are an important cause of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), urinary tract infection, wound infection and bacteraemia. Outbreaks of infections with Klebsiellaspp. in high-dependency units have been described and are associated with septicaemia and high mortality rates. Length of hospital stay and performance of invasive procedures are risk factors forKlebsiellainfections.Primary pneumonia withKlebsiella pneumoniaeis a rare,severe, community-acquired infection associated with a poor outcome.Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis causes a progressive granulomatous infection of the nasal passages and surrounding mucous membranes. This infection is mainly seen in the tropics.Klebsiella ozanae is a recognised cause of chronic bronchiectasis.Klebsiella organisms are resistant to multiple antibiotics including penicillins. This is thought to be a plasmid-mediated property. Agents with high intrinsic activity againstKlebsiellapneumoniaeshould be selected for severely ill patients. Examples of such agents include third-generation cephalosporins (e.g cefotaxime), carbapenems (e.g. imipenem), aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin), and quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin). These agents may be used as monotherapy or combination therapy. Aztreonam may be used in patients who are allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics.Species with ESBLs (Extended spectrum beta-lactamase) are resistant to penicillins and also cephalosporins such as cefotaxime and ceftriaxone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 10
Correct
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A patient with a diagnosis of HIV presents with a fever, sore throat, and general malaise and you are concerned the patient may have an AIDS defining illness.Which one of these, according to the CDC definition, would mean a patient infected with HIV has AIDS?
Your Answer: CD4 T-cell percentage of total lymphocytes of less than 15%
Explanation:According to the CDC definition, a patient co-infected with HIV can be diagnosed with AIDS if he or she has:A CD4 T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 or;A CD4 T-cell percentage of total lymphocytes of less than 15% or;An AIDS defining infectionA Streptococcal throat infection is not an AIDS defining infection.A normal CD4 count ranges from 500-1000 cells/mm3. A CD4 (not CD8) count of less than 200 cells/mm3 is AIDS defining.The CD4 count can vary from day to day and depending upon the time that the blood test is taken. It can also be affected by the presence of other infections or illnesses. Treatment with anti-retroviral therapy should be considered at CD4 count of less than 350 cells/mm3.Serum concentrations of the p24 antigen (the viral protein that makes up most of the core of the HIV) are usually high in the first few weeks after human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and testing for p24 antigen is therefore a useful way of diagnosing very early infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 11
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a red and painful left eye. Upon physical examination, it was noted that there is the presence of conjunctival erythema. A mucopurulent discharge and crusting of the lid was also evident. A diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis was made. According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following should NOT be a part of the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely
Explanation:The following are the NICE guidelines on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:- Infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting illness that usually settles without treatment within 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist for longer than two weeks they should return for review.- Seek medical attention urgently if marked eye pain or photophobia, loss of visual acuity, or marked redness of the eye develop.- Remove contact lenses, if worn, until all symptoms and signs of infection have completely resolved and any treatment has been completed for 24 hours.- Lubricant eye drops may reduce eye discomfort; these are available over the counter, as well as on prescription.- Clean away infected secretions from eyelids and lashes with cotton wool soaked in water.- Wash hands regularly, particularly after touching the eyes.- Avoid sharing pillows and towels.- It is not necessary to exclude a child from school or childcare if they have infective conjunctivitis, as mild infectious illnesses should not interrupt school attendance. An exception would be if there is an outbreak of infective conjunctivitis, when advice should be sought from the Health Protection Agency by the school. – Adults who work in close contact with others, or with vulnerable patients, should avoid such contact until the discharge has settled.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 12
Correct
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Which one of these infectious diseases typically has an incubation period of between 1 and 3 weeks?
Your Answer: Chickenpox
Explanation:The incubation period for Chickenpox is 7-23 days (usually around 2 weeks).Incubation period of botulism is 18-36 hoursIncubation period of Meningococcaemia is 1-7 days.Incubation period of Gonorrhoea is 3-5 days.Incubation period of Hepatitis A is 3-5 weeks.Other infectious with an incubation period of between 1 and 3 weeks are:Whooping cough (7-10 days)Brucellosis (7-21 days)Leptospirosis (7-12 days)Malaria (7-40 days depending on strain)Typhoid (8-21 days)Measles (10-18 days)Mumps (14-18 days)Rubella (14-21 days)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old girl presents with a 5-day history of persistent fever despite regular paracetamol, throbbing left ear pain, ear discharge and deafness. Her parents have observed that she is not her usual self, not eating well, and has been lethargic. On examination there is a tender swelling in the post auricular region on the left hand side.What is the most likely causative organism?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumonia
Explanation:Acute mastoiditis is a complication (rare) of acute otitis media (AOM) and the commonest causative organism is Streptococcus pneumoniae.Generally, acute mastoiditis presents with:PyrexiaRecent history of AOMMastoid swelling and erythemaOtalgiaOtorrhoea and perforation of tympanic membranePost-auricular painProtrusion of the ears
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 14
Correct
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A 23-year-old man is discovered to have an infection from Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following types of cancer is mostly associated with Helicobacter pylori infection?
Your Answer: Gastric cancer
Explanation:H. pylori is recognized as a major cause of type B gastritis, a chronic condition formerly associated primarily with stress and chemical irritants. In addition, the strong association between long-term H. pylori infection and gastric cancer has raised more questions regarding the clinical significance of this organism. There is speculation that long-term H. pylori infection resulting in chronic gastritis is an important risk factor for gastric carcinoma resulting in H. pylori being classified as a carcinogen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 15
Correct
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A 40-year-old male presents to your clinic complaining of a cough with bloody sputum for the past three months. He has also had fever, night sweats, and has noticed some weight loss over the past three months.Which ONE of the following statements regarding this disease is correct?
Your Answer: It can be diagnosed using the Ziehl-Neelson stain
Explanation:Tuberculosis is an infection caused by the microorganism Mycobacterium tuberculosis. TB can affect any organ system in the body, but it most commonly affects the lungs, followed by the lymph nodes. Option Tuberculosis is spread by the faecal-oral route: It is spread by inhalation of droplet nuclei. There are different methods to diagnose a tuberculosis infection. 1) Direct Microscopy: The organisms are visualised using Ziehl-Neelsen or Auramine staining. This is the quickest method to establish a diagnosis and start treatment.2) Culture: M. tuberculosis can be grown on Lowenstein-Jensen or Ogawa mediums, but it can take up to 8 weeks; therefore, ZN staining is also performed to start treatment immediately. Option There are several types of vaccine currently available: The BCG vaccine is the only vaccine approved to prevent TB and is administered at birth. Option Miliary tuberculosis refers to tuberculosis that affects the spine: Miliary tuberculosis refers to a tuberculosis infection disseminated throughout the body’s organ systems via the blood or lymphatics. Pott’s disease is extrapulmonary TB that affects the spine. It usually affects the lower thoracic and upper lumbar regions.Option A Ghon focus typically appears at the apex of a lung: The Ghon focus is a primary sign of TB that forms in the lung of previously unaffected patients. It typically occurs in the mid or lower zones of the lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 16
Correct
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On his stool culture, a patient with a diarrhoeal illness grows Escherichia coli.What SINGLE statement about Escherichia coli is true?
Your Answer: Most serotypes are harmless
Explanation:Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative, non-spore forming, facultative anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium. Although some can cause serious food poisoning, most serotypes are harmless.Escherichia coli is transmitted via the faeco-oral route.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Klebsiella infections?
Your Answer: Klebsiella spp. are non-motile
Explanation:Klebsiella is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped, non-motile bacteria. The absence of motility distinguishes Klebsiella spp. from most other members of the family Enterobacteriaceae. K. pneumoniae is the most commonly isolated species and has the distinct feature of possessing a large polysaccharide capsule. The capsule offers the organism protection against phagocytosis and antimicrobial absorption,contributing to its virulence. Colonization of gram-negative bacilli in the respiratory tracts of hospitalized patients, particularly by K. pneumoniae, increases with the length of hospital stay. It is a frequent cause of lower respiratory tract infections among hospitalized patients and in immunocompromised hosts such as newborns,elderly patients, and seriously ill patients on respirators.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 18
Correct
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A 25-year-old girl just got back from a trip to Northern India. She complains of headaches and intermittent fever. The fever starts with intense chills, then feels very hot, followed by profuse sweating. She is drowsy and is running a fever of 39.0°C. On examination, there are no palpable lymph nodes or rash seen. She has hepatosplenomegaly. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Malaria
Explanation:Malaria is a protozoal infection of red blood cells and the liver. It is caused by the parasite belonging to the genus Plasmodium. It is transmitted by the female mosquito Anopheles.Several species with distinct features:P. vivax/P. ovaleP. malariaeP. falciparumThe common symptoms of malaria are:Paroxysms of fever – a cyclical occurrence of:1) a cold phase – the patient experiences intense chills2) a hot stage – the patient feels extremely hot3) a sweating stage – the fever declines and the patient sweats profusely- Fever recurs at regular intervals (48hrs, 72hrs): Variable by species of PlasmodiumAnaemia (RBC infection)- Severity varies by species of Plasmodium- Haemolytic: sometimes jaundiceSplenomegalyAlso nonspecific symptoms:- Sweating- fatigue- malaise- arthralgias- headache- Sometimes cough, vomiting, diarrhoea
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 19
Correct
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A patient with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhoea develops a low platelet count and deranged renal function. A diagnosis of haemolytic uraemic syndrome is made.Which of the following organisms is a recognised cause of haemolytic uraemic syndrome? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:E.Colistrain 0157 causes enterohaemorrhagic diarrhoea and can be followed by haemolytic uraemic syndrome (renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, fever, vomiting, and abdominal cramps. A stool culture was ordered and showed growth of Salmonella spp.Among the following serotypes of Salmonella spp., which is considered to be the most common cause of salmonella gastroenteritis?
Your Answer: Serotype D
Explanation:A common cause of gastroenteritis, Salmonella enteritidis, and Salmonella typhi, which causes enteric fever, are both group D. Therefore, serotype D Salmonella species are most commonly associated with gastroenteritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 21
Correct
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A 28-year-old medical student ate a reheated Chinese takeaway and developed severe vomiting a few hours after.What is the SINGLE MOST likely causative organism?
Your Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:Bacillus cereusis is the correct answer. It is a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, beta-haemolytic bacterium that causes ‘fried rice syndrome’.Hardy spores in rice can survive boiling. When left at room temperature for long periods prior to frying these spores germinate. The emetic enterotoxin-producing strains cause nausea and vomiting between 1 and 6 hours after consumption while the diarrheagenic enterotoxin-producing strains (commonly associated with ingestion of meat, vegetables and dairy products) causes abdominal pain and vomiting, which starts 8-12 hours after ingestion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents with night sweats, fever, and haemoptysis. A diagnosis of tuberculosis was suspected.Which of the following statements regarding the diagnosis of tuberculosis is considered correct?
Your Answer: Mycobacteria tuberculosis appears blue on acid-fast staining
Correct Answer: Mycobacteria tuberculosis can be typed using a RFLP method
Explanation:Although a variety of clinical specimens may be submitted to thelaboratory to recover MTB and NTM, respiratory secretions suchas sputum and bronchial aspirates are the most common. Anearly-morning specimen should be collected on three consecutivedays, although recent studies have suggested that the addition ofa third specimen does not significantly increase the sensitivityof detecting Mycobacteria.Mycobacterium tuberculosis appear red on acid-fast staining because they take up the primary stain, which is carbolfuchsin, and is not decolorized by the acid alcohol anymore.Culture on Lowenstein-Jensen medium should be read within 5 to 7 days after inoculation and once a week thereafter for up to 8 weeks.Nucleic acid amplification assays designed to detect M. tuberculosis complexbacilli directly from patient specimens can be performed in as little as 6 to 8 hours on processed specimens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old patient is suspected to have a possible acute hepatitis B infection and is currently under investigation.Which of the following markers is considered the earliest indicator of acute infection in acute Hepatitis B?
Your Answer: IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B surface Ag
Explanation:HBsAg is the serological hallmark of HBV infection. After an acute exposure to HBV, HBsAg appears in serum within 1 to 10 weeks. Persistence of this marker for more than 6 months implies chronic HBV infection.Anti-HBs is known as a neutralizing antibody, and confers long-term immunity. In patients with acquired immunity through vaccination, anti-HBs is the only serological marker detected in serum.HBcAg is an intracellular presence in infected hepatocyte, thus it is not identified in the serum. During acute infection, anti-HBc IgM and IgG emerges 1–2 weeks after the presence of HBsAg along with raised serum aminotransferase and symptoms. After 6 months of acute infection, anti-HBc IgM wears off. Anti-HBc IgG continues to detect in both patients with resolved HBV infection and chronic hepatitis B.Hepatitis D virus, also known as the delta hepatitis virus, is a defective ssRNA virus that requires HBV for replication. The infection can occur in one of two clinical forms, co-infection or superinfection. In a co-infection, the patient is simultaneously infected with HBV and HDV. In a superinfection, an HDV infection develops in a patient with a chronic HBV infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 24
Correct
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A 6-year-old female is brought to the Ophthalmology Clinic by her mother with the complaint of itching, redness, and a watery discharge of the right eye. Past medical history revealed an upper respiratory tract infection one week ago. On examination of the right eye, there is mild erythema of the palpebral conjunctiva and visible follicles seen on eversion of the eyelid, lid oedema, and subconjunctival petechial haemorrhages. The discharge is watery and not purulent. You diagnose her with viral conjunctivitis. According to the current NICE guidelines, which ONE of the following management options would NOT be included for this patient?
Your Answer: The child should be excluded from school until the infection has resolved
Explanation:The NICE guidelines do NOT recommend isolating a patient with viral conjunctivitis from others or skipping school or work. The disease is contagious, but the spread of the disease can be controlled by maintaining good hygiene practices such as:1. frequent hand washing2. use of separate flannels and towels3. Avoid close contact with othersAntibiotic prescriptions are not part of the NICE guidelines for viral conjunctivitis as they will not affect the course of the disease. Most cases of viral conjunctivitis are self-limiting and resolve within one to two weeks.The NICE guidelines recommend that symptoms may be eased with self-care measures such as:1. Bathing/cleaning the eyelids with cotton wool soaked in sterile saline or boiled and cooled water to remove any discharge2. Cool compresses applied gently around the eye area3. Use of lubricating drops or artificial tears
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 25
Correct
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All of the following statements is considered true regarding Streptococcus pneumoniae, except:
Your Answer: It is the commonest cause of erysipelas
Explanation:Erysipelas is a rare infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissues observed frequently in elderly patients. It is characterized by an acute spreading skin lesion that is intensely erythematous with a plainly demarcated but irregular edge. It is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Group A Streptococcus (GAS).GAS are susceptible to penicillin, which remains the drug of choice for treatment. For patients allergic to penicillin, erythromycin can be used.S. pyogenes colonizes the throat and skin on humans, making these sites the primary sources of transmission. Infections resulting from S. pyogenes include pharyngitis, scarlet fever, skin or pyodermal infections, and other septic infections. In addition, the sequelae rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis can occur as a result of infection with S. pyogenes.Agammaglobulinemia is mostly associated with S. pneumoniae.The M protein is attached to the peptidoglycan of the cell wall and extends tothe cell surface. The M protein is essential for virulence. The polysaccharide capsule is characteristic of S. pneumoniae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 26
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room with complaints of a headache, stiffness of the neck, and photophobia. Upon observation, the following were noted: HR 124, BP 86/43, RR 30, SaO 95%, temperature 39.5 deg C. A recently developed non-blanching rash on his legs was also observed.What is most likely the causative agent of the case presented above?
Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis group B
Explanation:The meningococcus is solely a human pathogen, and up to 50% of the population may carry meningococci in the nasopharynx. Factors that lead to invasion and production of disease include complex inter-relationships of genetic predisposition, host status, environmental conditions, and virulence of the organism.Meningococcal disease is the most common infectious cause of death in childhood in developed countries. It presents as septicaemia, meningitis, or a combination. Septicaemia is the more dangerous presentation, especially with septic shock; meningitis is more likely to lead to neurodevelopmental sequelae. Classic features of septicaemia are a non-blanching rash in a feverish, ill child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a profuse, offensive smelling diarrhoea. A diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea is made after investigations.Which antibiotic is associated with the greatest risk of causing Clostridium Difficile diarrhoea?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) occurs. About 80% of Clostridium Difficile infections are seen in people over the age of 65 and its main clinical features are:Abdominal cramps, severe bloody and/or watery diarrhoea, offensive smelling diarrhoea, and fever. CDI is the most severe consequence of antibiotic treatment and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality. Risk for CDI has been found to be greatest with clindamycin followed by fluoroquinolones Tetracyclines are not associated with risk for CDI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of these statements about the monospot test is true?
Your Answer: It uses sheep red blood cells
Correct Answer: It can be positive in rubella
Explanation:Infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed using specific EBV antibodies and a variety of unrelated non-EBV heterophile antibodies.Heterophile antibodies:About 70-90% of patients with EBV infectious mononucleosis produce antibodies against an antigen produced in one species that react against antigens from other species called heterophile antibodies. False positives can be seen with rubella, hepatitis, SLE, malaria, toxoplasmosis, lymphoma and leukaemia. These antibodies can be detected by two main screening tests:The monospot test uses horse red blood cells. It agglutinates in the presence of heterophile antibodies.Paul-Bunnell test uses sheep red blood cells. The blood agglutinates in the presence of heterophile antibodies.EBV-specific antibodies:Patients can remain heterophile-negative after six weeks and are then considered to be heterophile-negative and should be tested for EBV-specific antibodies. EBV-specific antibodies test are helpful if a false positive heterophile antibody test is suspected.The indirect Coombs test is used to detect in-vitro antibody-antigen reactions. It is typically used in antenatal antibody screening and in preparation for blood transfusion.Heterophile antibody tests are generally not positive in the incubation period of infectious mononucleosis (4-6 weeks) before the onset of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old student presents with a 1-week history of sore throat, low grade fever, and malaise. Upon history taking, she noted that she had a fine rash over her body a week ago that quickly fades. Further examination and observation was done and the presence of mild splenomegaly was noted. Her test shows positive for heterophile antibody test, suspecting a diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.Which of the following characteristics is mostly associated with the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis?
Your Answer: Pruritic maculopapular rash
Correct Answer: Atypical lymphocytes
Explanation:Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis which is a clinical entity characterized by sore throat, cervical lymph node enlargement, fatigue and fever. It is accompanied by atypical large peripheral blood lymphocytes. These atypical lymphocytes, also known as Downey cells, are actually activated CD8 T lymphocytes, most of which are responding to EBV-infected cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with haemoptysis, night sweats, and weight loss. Further examinations were done and a diagnosis of tuberculosis is suspected. Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is impervious to decolourisation with acid
Explanation:Mycobacterium tuberculosis are part of the Mycobacteriaceae family. They are described to have the characteristics of a Gram-positive cell wall but they are not easily stained with Gram stain. This is because their cell wall contains a high lipid content, and this lipid allows the Mycobacteria to bind to alkaline stains with the application and help of heat. Once stained, they are able to resist decolorization even with the use of acid alcohol as the decolourizer, making them very difficult to decolorize, that is why they are known to be acid-fast.The Ghon complex is a non-pathognomonic radiographic finding on a chest x-ray that is significant for pulmonary infection of tuberculosis. The location of the Ghon’s focus is usually subpleural and predominantly in the upper part of the lower lobe and lower part of the middle or upper lobe. Skeletal tuberculosis of the spine is referred to as Pott disease.The risk of reactivation TB is about 3.3% during the first year after a positive PPD skin test and a total of 5% to 15% thereafter in the person’s lifetime. Progression from infection to active disease varies with age and the intensity and duration of exposure. Reactivation TB occurs when there is an alteration or suppression of the cellular immune system in the infected host that favoursreplication of the bacilli and progression to disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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