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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits your clinic. He recently returned from a trip to Africa and is experiencing feelings of depression. He believes that his friends who accompanied him on the trip turned against him during the vacation. Since returning, he has been having unusual dreams and is feeling anxious. He reports taking malaria prophylaxis. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Primaquine
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Mefloquine and antimalarial Medication
Mefloquine is a commonly prescribed antimalarial medication that can cause side effects such as abnormal dreams, depression, psychosis, and panic attacks. As a GP, it is important to inform patients of the risks of malaria and the potential side effects of the medication so that they can make an informed decision.
When it comes to prescribing antimalarial medication, there are administrative issues to consider. For example, GPs can charge a private fee for prescribing or providing drugs for malaria chemoprophylaxis or for drugs that a patient requires solely in anticipation of an ailment while outside the UK. Some antimalarial medications can also be purchased from chemists without a prescription, which may be financially advantageous for patients.
It is important to follow national guidance when issuing prescriptions for travel abroad, and to not prescribe medication for longer than a period of three months for extended stays. By being familiar with these administrative issues, GPs can provide the best care for their patients traveling to areas with a high risk of malaria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to you urgently with a facial issue. He has been feeling unwell for a few weeks since returning from a camping trip in Hampshire. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. He initially experienced a flu-like illness with painful widespread arthralgia. He also has a rash, which has gradually increased in size and now measures approximately 5 cm in diameter on his leg. You observe a central spot surrounded by clear skin ringed by an outer erythematous area. There is local lymphadenopathy. He reports that he blacked out earlier this week. He hoped to recover from the illness, but when he developed a facial problem, he became concerned and made an appointment to see you. During the cranial nerve examination, you discover an isolated lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy. You also perform an ECG due to the loss of consciousness history, which reveals first-degree heart block. What is the underlying cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Bacterial infection
Correct Answer: Viral infection
Explanation:Lyme Disease: A Tick-Borne Infection
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted through tick bites. The disease was first described in Lyme, Connecticut, USA, and is also prevalent in areas such as the New Forest in Hampshire, UK. Not all patients remember being bitten, so a lack of tick bite history doesn’t rule out the disease.
Symptoms of Lyme disease include lethargy, arthralgia, and cognitive impairment, as well as lymphadenopathy, myocarditis, meningitis, cranial nerve palsies, and neuropathy. The typical rash, erythema chronicum migrans, presents as a papule that develops into a large spreading annular lesion with central fading. This rash can last up to three months, and multiple lesions can develop.
This patient has developed the typical rash and acute illness with a facial nerve palsy and evidence of myocarditis on the background of a trip to an area where infection is endemic. Serological diagnosis is needed to confirm infection, and treatment is with antibiotics active against the causative bacterium. Early treatment is essential, and treatment with antibiotics doesn’t preclude later testing. A common regime is several weeks’ treatment with doxycycline, provided treatment is started early.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 3
Correct
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A 29-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his primary care physician complaining of loose non-bloody stools and abdominal discomfort for the past 6 days. He has not been taking any regular medication and his disease has been quiescent for many years. A colonoscopy performed 5 years ago showed proctitis. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdomen is diffusely soft with no peritonism. A stool culture is negative. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Mesalazine suppository
Explanation:For a patient experiencing mild-to-moderate symptoms of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended first-line treatment is topical (rectal) aminosalicylates, such as mesalazine suppositories. This is particularly effective for patients with left-sided disease, such as proctitis or proctosigmoiditis. While budesonide foam enema is sometimes used as an additional treatment for mild-to-moderate disease, it is generally less effective at inducing remission. Oral azathioprine is not recommended for inducing remission, but may be used to maintain remission in patients who have had multiple inflammatory exacerbations or if remission is not maintained by aminosalicylates alone. Oral mesalazine is less effective than topical mesalazine for mild or moderate proctitis, but may be offered as an additional treatment if symptoms persist after 4 weeks of topical mesalazine. For patients with pancolitis or extensive disease, oral mesalazine may be offered as a first-line treatment.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is a not a cause of hypertension in adolescents?
Your Answer: Renal parenchymal disease
Correct Answer: Bartter's syndrome
Explanation:Bartter’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that typically follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. It results in severe hypokalemia due to a malfunction in the absorption of chloride at the Na+ K+ 2Cl- cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle. Unlike other endocrine causes of hypokalemia, such as Conn’s, Cushing’s, and Liddle’s syndrome, Bartter’s syndrome is associated with normotension.
The condition usually manifests in childhood and may present with symptoms such as failure to thrive, polyuria, polydipsia, weakness, and hypokalemia.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also affect children. To measure blood pressure in children, it is important to use a cuff size that is approximately 2/3 the length of their upper arm. The 4th Korotkoff sound is used to measure diastolic blood pressure until adolescence, when the 5th Korotkoff sound can be used. Results should be compared to a graph of normal values for their age.
In younger children, secondary hypertension is the most common cause, with renal parenchymal disease accounting for up to 80% of cases. Other causes of hypertension in children include renal vascular disease, coarctation of the aorta, phaeochromocytoma, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and essential or primary hypertension, which becomes more common as children get older. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension in children in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The cardiology department is attempting to establish the most effective medication for treating hypertension in patients over the age of 60. They conduct a study to compare the rate of blood pressure reduction in a group of patients (Group A) given medication A versus a group (Group B) given medication B. The systolic blood pressure readings of patients in both groups are recorded.
What is the most appropriate statistical test to determine if there is a significant difference in the effectiveness of the two medications?Your Answer: Student's t-test (paired)
Correct Answer: Chi-squared test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test to compare the percentage of wound infections developing in groups A and B is the Chi-squared test. This test is used to compare proportions or percentages and is non-parametric. The Mann-Whitney U test, Student’s t-test (paired and unpaired), and Wilcoxon signed-rank test are not appropriate for this scenario as they either measure different types of data or require normally distributed data.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 6
Correct
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A father brings his 3-year-old home-schooled daughter to a pediatrician concerned about her developmental progress, particularly her physical abilities. He mentions that his friends' children her age are able to climb stairs, throw a ball, dress themselves partially, and ride a tricycle. However, his daughter is unable to do any of these things. During the examination, she is only able to stack four blocks and can draw a straight line. She speaks in 2-word phrases, with no being a common response, and imitates frequently. Based on her abilities, what is her developmental age?
Your Answer: 2-years-old
Explanation:The milestones of development are categorized into gross motor skills, fine motor skills, vision, speech and hearing, and social behavior and play. For children who are -years old, they should be able to run, climb stairs, construct a tower using 6 cubes, replicate a vertical line, use 2-word phrases, eat with a spoon, dress themselves with a hat and shoes, and engage in play activities with other children.
Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones
Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.
In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.
It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You receive a phone call from the father of a 4-year-old girl who you saw earlier in the day and diagnosed with strep throat, starting amoxicillin. At home she has been feverish and sweaty, and Dad describes an episode of her 'going rigid' followed by shaking of all of her limbs for about 1 minute. She is currently sleeping but can be awakened. Other than that, Dad reports no other concerning symptoms. She has never experienced a similar episode before. What would be the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Reassure Mum this is common and no further action needs to be taken
Correct Answer: Arrange admission to paediatrics
Explanation:Although febrile seizures are frequent, it is crucial to have a pediatrician confirm the diagnosis and exclude any serious underlying condition. Therefore, according to NICE clinical knowledge summaries, if a child experiences their initial febrile seizure, they must be promptly hospitalized and assessed by a pediatrician.
It would be inappropriate to merely reassure the mother or postpone the evaluation until the following day. An antibiotic allergy would not typically trigger a seizure.
Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.
There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.
Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.
The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ºC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman is taking multiple medications for different ailments and has been diagnosed with macrocytic anaemia and low serum B12 levels. Which of the following medications could be responsible for the B12 deficiency?
Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Medications and their potential effects on vitamin B12 levels
Long-term use of metformin may increase the risk of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can lead to cognitive impairment, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, or anemia. Therefore, patients taking metformin should have their vitamin B12 levels regularly monitored.
Amiodarone, ezetimibe, nicotinic acid, and sodium valproate are other medications that can cause blood disorders, such as anemia or thrombocytopenia, but they do not typically affect vitamin B12 levels. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential effects of medications on vitamin B12 levels and to monitor patients accordingly. Proper monitoring can help prevent or manage potential complications associated with vitamin B12 deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a four-week history of stiffness, pain and swelling of her wrists and knuckles. The symptoms improve by mid-day but persist daily. She reports feeling unwell.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Distinguishing Rheumatoid Arthritis from Other Joint Conditions
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles. Unlike carpal tunnel syndrome, which can affect both hands and is often worse in bed and in the morning, rheumatoid arthritis is typically symmetrical and develops gradually. In addition, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience systemic symptoms such as pyrexia, feeling unwell, weight loss, and muscle aches. Gout, on the other hand, usually presents as an acute monoarthritis in the metatarsal-phalangeal joint of the great toe, while osteoarthritis commonly affects the hands and is characterized by bony nodules at the distal interphalangeal joints. Rheumatic fever, which is caused by a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus, is more common in children and presents as a migratory arthritis affecting large joints like the knees, ankles, wrists, and elbows, along with pyrexia and constitutional symptoms. By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat joint disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has no symptoms but has entered into a new relationship. You suggest that she visit the sexual health clinic for a comprehensive screening, but you agree to perform a Chlamydia test today.
What is the preferred diagnostic test for detecting this organism?Your Answer: Endocervical swab
Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
Explanation:When it comes to diagnosing Chlamydia, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) are the preferred method. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often go unnoticed, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications like infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease. NAATs are also used to diagnose Gonorrhoea. Women can use a self-swab, while men can provide a urine sample. To treat Chlamydia, doctors typically prescribe azithromycin or doxycycline. Charcoal swabs are used to diagnose other infections, such as Candida.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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As the on-call physician, you receive a lab report for a 75-year-old man who has undergone routine blood tests to monitor his Antihypertensive medication.
The blood results are as follows:
Na+ 126 mmol/l
K+ 4.8 mmol/l
eGFR 85 ml/min/1.73m2
Upon calling the patient, he reports no symptoms and confirms that he is taking his regular lisinopril and amlodipine.
What would be the most appropriate course of action to manage this situation?Your Answer: Stop ramipril and repeat urea and electrolytes in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital
Explanation:Patients who have acute severe hyponatraemia, which is defined as having a serum sodium concentration of less than 125 mmol/L, must be urgently hospitalized, as per the current NICE CKS guidelines. Therefore, referring the patient to a routine endocrinology clinic is not appropriate, as immediate action is necessary. Although diuretics like bendroflumethiazide can cause low sodium, it would be inappropriate to wait for 2 weeks before repeating the sodium levels. Similarly, ramipril can also cause low sodium, but waiting for 2 weeks before repeating the sodium level would be inappropriate, and urgent measures must be taken. Waiting for 2 weeks for repeat blood tests is not appropriate, and the patient should be admitted to the hospital due to the low level of serum sodium.
Understanding Hyponatraemia: Causes and Diagnosis
Hyponatraemia is a condition that can be caused by either an excess of water or a depletion of sodium in the body. However, it is important to note that there are also cases of pseudohyponatraemia, which can be caused by factors such as hyperlipidaemia or taking blood from a drip arm. To diagnose hyponatraemia, doctors often look at the levels of urinary sodium and osmolarity.
If the urinary sodium level is above 20 mmol/l, it may indicate sodium depletion due to renal loss or the use of diuretics such as thiazides or loop diuretics. Other possible causes include Addison’s disease or the diuretic stage of renal failure. On the other hand, if the patient is euvolaemic, it may be due to conditions such as SIADH (urine osmolality > 500 mmol/kg) or hypothyroidism.
If the urinary sodium level is below 20 mmol/l, it may indicate sodium depletion due to extra-renal loss caused by conditions such as diarrhoea, vomiting, sweating, burns, or adenoma of rectum. Alternatively, it may be due to water excess, which can cause the patient to be hypervolaemic and oedematous. This can be caused by conditions such as secondary hyperaldosteronism, nephrotic syndrome, IV dextrose, or psychogenic polydipsia.
In summary, hyponatraemia can be caused by a variety of factors, and it is important to diagnose the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. By looking at the levels of urinary sodium and osmolarity, doctors can determine the cause of hyponatraemia and provide the necessary interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father was diagnosed with a malignant melanoma at the age of 49. He has worked in construction since leaving school and has spent many years working outside. He tells you that he has spent about 10 years working in North Africa, the majority of the time he spent outside in the sun.
The patient has fair hair and blue eyes. You examine his skin and he has about 60 common naevi 2 mm or less in diameter. He also has four atypical naevi (naevi with flat and raised areas, oval in shape, with some colour variation) which are all 6 mm or more in diameter. He reports no changes in any of the moles but as he has so many is worried about his risk of skin cancer.
What is the greatest risk factor for this patient to develop a melanoma?Your Answer: The number and characteristics of his naevi
Correct Answer: His history of high sun exposure
Explanation:Assessing Pigmented Skin Lesions and Identifying Risk Factors for Melanoma
When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider any risk factors for melanoma. The number and characteristics of naevi are the greatest risk factors for melanoma, with individuals who have more than 50 melanocytic naevi, of which 3 or more are atypical in appearance, classified as having atypical mole syndrome. This syndrome occurs in about 2% of the population and increases the risk of developing melanoma by 7 to 10 fold. The risk is further increased if there is a family history of melanoma in a first or second degree relative, known as familial atypical mole syndrome. Other risk factors include light-colored eyes, unusually high sun exposure, and red or light-colored hair.
It is important to understand the extent of risk associated with these factors, as identifying high-risk patients presents an opportunity to advise them accordingly. Patients at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, and organ transplant recipients. Patients with giant congenital pigmented naevi also require long-term follow-up by a specialist, usually a dermatologist. By understanding these risk factors and providing appropriate guidance, healthcare professionals can help prevent and detect melanoma in high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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You are asked to see a middle-aged lady in a nursing home. Staff at the home report that she has developed some facial spasms. You review her notes and see that she was seen about five months ago with persistent nausea. She was prescribed a drug taken orally to assist with her symptoms. On examination, she has obvious involuntary movements affecting the facial muscles. She appears to be chewing and grimacing repeatedly. Long-term use of which of the following drugs would account for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Metoclopramide is a medication commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting. However, it can also lead to extrapyramidal side-effects (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. This condition is often associated with antipsychotic medications, but can also occur with prolonged oral use of metoclopramide.
Younger patients may experience dystonic reactions, such as occulogyric crisis, with intravenous administration of metoclopramide. Meanwhile, older patients, particularly females, are at higher risk of developing EPS with prolonged oral use. The risk factors for developing EPS include the duration of treatment and cumulative dose.
It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients on metoclopramide for signs of EPS and to consider alternative treatments if necessary. Patients should also be informed of the potential risks associated with this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change?
Your Answer: Denial
Correct Answer: Recirculation
Explanation:The Cycle of Change: Understanding the Stages of Personal Transformation
The Cycle of Change is a model that illustrates the different stages individuals go through when making changes in their lives. The first stage is precontemplation, where the person is not yet aware that a problem exists. The next stage is contemplation, where the person begins to recognize the issue and considers making a change. The third stage is action, where the person takes steps towards making the change. The fourth stage is maintenance, where the person works to sustain the change. However, it is important to note that relapse can occur, which is a full return to the old behavior.
Understanding the Cycle of Change can be helpful in personal transformation, as it allows individuals to recognize where they are in the process and what steps they need to take to move forward. By acknowledging the different stages and potential setbacks, individuals can better prepare themselves for the challenges that come with making significant changes in their lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man who is a non-smoker has routine blood tests as part of a 'well man' check. His full blood count comes back with a haematocrit of 0.59 (Normal: 0.35-0.55) and a haemoglobin level of 182 g/l (Normal: 135-175 g/l).
Which of the following is the most likely complication of this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Myelofibrosis
Correct Answer: Stroke
Explanation:Understanding Polycythemia Rubra Vera: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Polycythemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the body to produce too many red blood cells. A person with this condition may experience generalized pruritus, splenomegaly, thrombocytosis, and neutrophil leukocytosis. To confirm the diagnosis, a blood test for a specific mutation (JAK2) present in more than 95% of people with polycythemia vera is necessary.
Without treatment, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera is only 6-18 months. This is due to the high risk of thrombosis, which can lead to ischaemic stroke and myocardial infarction. Venous and arterial thrombosis can also cause other complications such as pulmonary emboli, renal failure, intestinal ischaemia, and peripheral arterial emboli. Bleeding is also a common complication, usually resulting from vascular occlusion due to thrombosis or hyperviscosity. Acute leukaemia, myelofibrosis, and peptic ulcer disease are also possible complications.
However, with treatment to maintain a normal haematocrit, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera can increase to an average of 20 years. While this is still reduced compared to the general population, it is a significant improvement. It is important for individuals with this condition to receive proper medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has developed a polymorphic eruption over the dorsa of both hands and feet. The lesions started 2 days ago and she now has some lesions on the arms and legs. Individual lesions are well-demarcated red macules or small urticarial plaques. Some lesions have a small blister or crusting in the centre, which seems darker than the periphery.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Bullous pemphigus
Correct Answer: Erythema multiforme
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics
Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that typically begins with lesions on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and the palms and soles may also be involved. The initial lesions are red or pink macules that become raised papules and gradually enlarge to form plaques up to 2-3 cm in diameter. The center of a lesion darkens in color and may develop blistering or crusting. The typical target lesion of erythema multiforme has a sharp margin, regular round shape, and three concentric color zones. Atypical targets may show just two zones and/or an indistinct border. The rash is polymorphous, meaning it can take many forms, and lesions may be at various stages of development. The rash usually fades over 2-4 weeks, but recurrences are common. In more severe cases, there may be blistering of mucous membranes, which can be life-threatening. Some consider erythema multiforme to be part of a spectrum of disease that includes Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, while others argue that it should be classified separately as it is associated with infections rather than certain drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You encounter a 49-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes by your GP colleague. The patient has been prescribed gliclazide and has experienced one instance of mild hypoglycaemia since commencing this medication. The patient inquires about driving his vehicle. What guidance should be given?
Your Answer: Must take his BM twice daily when driving
Correct Answer: Must contact DVLA if has two episodes of severe hypoglycaemia in 12 months
Explanation:If a Group 1 driver with diabetes is taking oral medication that may cause hypoglycemia, they do not need to inform the DVLA as long as they are being regularly monitored and have not experienced more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance from another person within the last year. However, Group 2 drivers must notify the DVLA and adhere to stricter guidelines. If they have had even one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance from another person within the last year, they will not be permitted to drive. Both groups must inform the DVLA if they experience any impairment in their ability to detect hypoglycemia.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain. He has been experiencing the pain for the past two months and has come in for an emergency appointment today because he has not had a bowel movement in a week. He cannot recall the last time he passed gas.
He mentions that his stools have been significantly looser over the past few months and that he has noticed blood in his feces on occasion. Upon examination, it is discovered that he has lost over two stone in weight since his last visit to the practice six months ago. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a soft but distended abdomen with a mass in the left lower quadrant. A rectal examination shows an empty rectum with no abnormalities.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Colonic carcinoma
Explanation:Likely Diagnosis for a 69-Year-Old with Weight Loss and Constipation
A 69-year-old man with a history of weight loss, blood in his stool, and a palpable abdominal mass is likely suffering from bowel carcinoma. His symptoms have now progressed to absolute constipation due to an obstructing tumor. Other potential diagnoses, such as diverticular abscess, faecal impaction, and inflammatory bowel disease, are less likely based on his history and examination.
A diverticular abscess typically presents with a tender mass and fever, while faecal impaction may cause a palpable mass but doesn’t typically result in weight loss or blood in the stool. Inflammatory bowel disease is rare in patients of this age and would not typically cause such significant weight loss. Overall, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with a diagnosis of bowel carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Correct
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What is the correct statement about the use of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinson's disease from the given list of options?
Your Answer: The lowest effective dose should be used
Explanation:Levodopa: A First Line Drug for Parkinson’s Disease Treatment
Levodopa is considered as the primary medication for treating Parkinson’s disease, especially for individuals in the early stages of the disease whose motor symptoms affect their quality of life. Compared to other alternatives such as dopamine agonists and MAO-B inhibitors, levodopa is more effective in managing motor symptoms, although it has more motor complications.
To prevent peripheral metabolism of the drug, levodopa is combined with a peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor called carbidopa. This combination allows a greater proportion of levodopa to cross the blood-brain barrier for central nervous system effect. The most commonly used preparations are Sinemet® and Madopar®.
It is recommended to start with the lowest effective dose that maintains good function, such as Sinemet® 62.5 mg tds with food, which can be increased to 125 mg after two weeks. Levodopa is generally well-tolerated, and side-effects such as nausea and dizziness are rare and mild. There is no evidence that using modified-release levodopa from the start delays the onset of motor complications. However, prolonged use of levodopa may be associated with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that produces clear sputum and feeling generally unwell for the past three days. The physician provides him with a prescription for antibiotics to be filled at a later time. What is the estimated percentage of patients who will ultimately take antibiotics using this approach?
Your Answer: 75%
Correct Answer: 33%
Explanation:The Debate on Delayed Prescribing for Antibiotics
Delayed prescribing has been a topic of debate for many years, particularly in relation to reducing antibiotic prescriptions for respiratory tract infections. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) currently advocates for this strategy, but its effectiveness and acceptability among patients remain in question.
In 2013, Cochrane conducted a review of 10 studies on the delayed prescription of antibiotics for acute respiratory tract infections. The review found that delayed prescribing reduced antibiotic use from 93% to 32%, regardless of the method used (e.g. post-dated script, same-day script with advice to use after 48 hours). However, patient satisfaction levels were not significantly affected by delayed prescribing.
Critics of delayed prescribing argue that patient satisfaction levels were just as high for patients who were refused antibiotics. Despite the ongoing debate, delayed prescribing remains a potential strategy for reducing unnecessary antibiotic use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his mother due to concerns about his recent behavior. The mother has noticed that he appears paler than usual and has been experiencing increased fatigue over the past few weeks, despite maintaining his regular routine. Additionally, he has been experiencing multiple colds and coughs over the past month, which is unusual for him. Upon examination, the boy's vital signs are all within normal range, and some pallor is noted, but no other abnormalities are observed. What would be the next step in investigating this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Routine FBCs within 2 weeks
Correct Answer: FBC to be performed within 48 hours
Explanation:An urgent full blood count is required to evaluate for leukaemia in children and young adults (0-24 years) who exhibit symptoms suggestive of the disease. These symptoms may include persistent fatigue, unexplained infections, and pallor. The primary concern is to rule out leukaemia, and a full blood count should be conducted within 48 hours. While a lymph node biopsy and bone marrow biopsy may be necessary in the future, they are not currently required.
Identifying Haematological Malignancy in Young People
Young people aged 0-24 years who exhibit any of the following symptoms should undergo a full blood count within 48 hours to investigate for leukaemia: pallor, persistent fatigue, unexplained fever, unexplained persistent infections, generalised lymphadenopathy, persistent or unexplained bone pain, unexplained bruising, and unexplained bleeding. These symptoms may indicate the presence of haematological malignancy, which requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify these symptoms early to ensure timely treatment and improve outcomes for young people with suspected haematological malignancy. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in recognising these symptoms and referring patients for urgent investigation. Proper management of haematological malignancy in young people can significantly improve their quality of life and long-term prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are seeing a teenage patient who has been diagnosed with PTSD.
He has previously been treated with sertraline but wants to stop because of a rash.
He has a review appointment with a psychiatrist in 3 months. Assuming any appropriate cross tapering and initiation, what alternative treatment could you prescribe instead?Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Buspirone
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults
The NICE guidance on the management of PTSD was updated in 2018, and there were a few changes from earlier guidance. One of the changes was regarding drug treatments for adults with PTSD. According to the latest NICE guidance NG116, benzodiazepines should not be offered as a drug treatment to prevent PTSD in adults. However, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, can be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have a preference for drug treatment. It is important to review this treatment regularly.
In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone can be considered, along with psychological therapies, to manage symptoms for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and their symptoms have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important that antipsychotic treatment is started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with sudden shortness of breath. An ambulance is called and a brief medical history is obtained. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy recently. The following are her vital signs:
- Blood pressure: 100/60 mmHg
- Respiratory rate: 28 breaths per minute
- Temperature: 36.8ºC
- Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air
While waiting for the ambulance, the patient is given oxygen through a face mask and an ECG is performed. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the expected ECG finding?Your Answer: Sinus tachycardia
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. One of the most common signs of PE is an elevated heart rate, which can be caused by the increased demand on the right ventricle of the heart. This can lead to a range of other symptoms, including shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing.
Another common sign of PE is the presence of S1Q3T3 on an electrocardiogram (ECG). This is characterized by a deep S-wave in lead I, a Q-wave in lead III, and an inverted T-wave in lead III. While this finding is associated with PE, it is not specific to the condition and may not be present in all cases.
T-wave inversions in leads V1-V4 can also be a sign of right ventricular strain, which can occur as a result of the increased demand on the heart caused by PE. However, this is not the most common finding in cases of PE.
Pulmonary embolism can be difficult to diagnose as it can present with a variety of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were common clinical signs in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE use tachycardia rather than tachypnea. All patients with symptoms or signs suggestive of a PE should have a history taken, examination performed, and a chest x-ray to exclude other pathology.
To rule out a PE, the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) can be used. All criteria must be absent to have a negative PERC result, which reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. If the suspicion of PE is greater than this, a 2-level PE Wells score should be performed. A score of more than 4 points indicates a likely PE, and an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged. If the CTPA is negative, patients do not need further investigations or treatment for PE.
CTPA is now the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease. D-dimer levels should be considered for patients over 50 years old. A chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. The sensitivity of V/Q scanning is around 75%, while the specificity is 97%. Peripheral emboli affecting subsegmental arteries may be missed on CTPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 24
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman presents requesting a repeat prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC).
Which of these statements is true about the COC?Your Answer: A 12 month review is acceptable once the patient is established on the pill
Explanation:Starting and Maintaining the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COC) can be started at any point during the menstrual cycle, as long as the woman is not pregnant. Once established on the COC, it is reasonable to give a 12-month prescription.
According to the latest guidance from the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), additional precautions are no longer required to maintain contraceptive efficacy when using antibiotics that are not enzyme inducers with the COCP for durations of 3 weeks or less. However, if the antibiotics or illness cause vomiting or diarrhea, the usual additional precautions relating to these conditions should be observed.
If seven COC pills have been taken, ovulation is suppressed for a further seven days, and emergency contraception is not required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother complaining of recurrent episodes of mouth, tongue, and lip itchiness shortly after eating bananas. The symptoms usually subside within half an hour. The child has a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis. He has undergone allergy testing before, which revealed a positive result for birch pollen.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Anaphylaxis
Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Angioedema can be triggered by drug-induced reactions or, in rare cases, other factors.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of fatigue and nocturia. On further questioning she also admits to increased thirst. She doesn't have dysuria or urgency, denies the possibility of pregnancy and has otherwise been well. Her sister was recently diagnosed with diabetes, although she is not sure which type. She has looked at the symptoms online and is worried about a possible diabetes diagnosis; she wants to know how she can distinguish between the types of diabetes.
Her body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m².
Which of the following tests would be best in differentiating these diagnoses?Your Answer: Fasting glucose
Correct Answer: Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD)
Explanation:The diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically made based on symptoms and signs of diabetic ketoacidosis, such as abdominal pain, polyuria, dehydration, and Kussmaul respiration. Diagnostic criteria include fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l. Antibody tests, such as anti-GAD and islet cell antibodies, can help distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Further investigation with C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies may be necessary in patients with atypical features or intermediate age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing dinner. Upon examination, you note a three inch laceration on her left hand which is cleaned and sutured. She recalls receiving a tetanus booster shot approximately 10 years ago and has received a total of five tetanus vaccines throughout her life. What is the appropriate recommendation for tetanus prophylaxis?
Your Answer: She should be given one booster tetanus vaccination
Correct Answer: She should be given tetanus immunoglobulin
Explanation:Tetanus Vaccination Not Required for Low-Risk Wound
This woman’s wound is clean and low-risk, with a very low chance of being contaminated with tetanus bacteria. Fortunately, she has already received five doses of the tetanus vaccine in the past, which means she should not require any further vaccination. It is important to note that tetanus vaccination is crucial for individuals who have not received the vaccine or have not completed the recommended doses. However, in this case, the woman can rest assured that she is protected against tetanus and can focus on proper wound care to promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A mother brings her 4-year-old girl who is known to have Down's syndrome to surgery, as she is worried about her vision. Which of the following eye issues is the least commonly linked with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Vision and Hearing Issues in Down’s Syndrome
Individuals with Down’s syndrome are at a higher risk of experiencing vision and hearing problems. When it comes to vision, they are more likely to have refractive errors, which can cause blurred vision. Strabismus, a condition where the eyes do not align properly, is also common in 20-40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Cataracts, which can cause cloudiness in the eye lens, are more prevalent in those with Down’s syndrome, both congenital and acquired. Recurrent blepharitis, an inflammation of the eyelids, and glaucoma, a condition that damages the optic nerve, are also potential issues.
In terms of hearing, otitis media and glue ear are very common in individuals with Down’s syndrome. These conditions can lead to hearing problems, which can affect speech and language development. It is important for individuals with Down’s syndrome to receive regular vision and hearing screenings to detect and address any issues early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman has had Paget's disease of bone for at least 10 years. She has complained of a worsening pain at rest around her lower back and hip area. You arrange an X ray which shows a destructive mass in the bony pelvis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of Bone
Paget’s disease of bone is a condition that typically affects individuals in later life. It occurs when the normal repair process of bone is disrupted, leading to the formation of weak bones that are prone to fractures. Specifically, the repair process ends at the stage of vascular osteoid bone, which is not as strong as fully mineralized bone.
Unfortunately, Paget’s disease of bone can also lead to complications such as osteogenic sarcoma, which occurs in approximately 5% of cases. As such, it is important for individuals with Paget’s disease to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to prevent and manage potential complications. By understanding the underlying mechanisms of Paget’s disease and its associated risks, individuals can take steps to protect their bone health and overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old nursing home resident, with advanced dementia, has become increasingly verbally disruptive at meal times, often shouting out incoherent phrases at staff and other residents. A general examination, urine dipstick and baseline blood tests were normal.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Offer non-pharmacological interventions, e.g. aromatherapy, animal-assisted therapy
Correct Answer: Restrain the patient at meal times in case of violent behaviour
Explanation:Managing Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia
With Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia (BPSD), it is crucial to identify and treat any reversible causes. However, in cases where there are no other symptoms and normal examination and investigations, empirical antibiotics should be avoided as they may lead to adverse clinical events such as Clostridium difficile. If conservative measures fail, it is advisable to seek advice from an elderly care physician who may recommend short-term use of medications such as haloperidol or lorazepam. It is important to note that restraining the patient during anticipated bad behaviour is not appropriate. By following these guidelines, we can effectively manage BPSD and improve the quality of life for patients with dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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