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Question 1
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of feeling sad and low since giving birth to her daughter 2 weeks ago. She reports difficulty sleeping and believes that her baby does not like her and that they are not bonding, despite breastfeeding. She has a strong support system, including the baby's father, and has no history of depression. She denies any thoughts of self-harm or substance abuse, and you do not believe the baby is in danger. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:The recommended first line treatment for moderate to severe depression in pregnancy or post-natal period for women without a history of severe depression is a high intensity psychological intervention, such as CBT, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. If this is not accepted or symptoms do not improve, an antidepressant such as a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) or tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) should be used. Mindfulness may be helpful for women with persistent subclinical depressive symptoms. Social services should only be involved if there is a risk to someone in the household. The British National Formulary (BNF) advises against using zopiclone while breastfeeding as it is present in breast milk.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking guidance on conceiving. She has a medical history of epilepsy and is currently taking lamotrigine. Her last seizure occurred 1 year ago. She is worried about the safety of epilepsy medications during pregnancy and wonders if there are any supplements she should take. What are the key counseling points to address her concerns?
Your Answer: Folic acid 5mg, continue lamotrigine
Explanation:When women who are taking antiepileptic medication plan to conceive, they should be given a higher dose of folic acid (5mg) instead of the usual 400 mcg once daily. Folic acid is recommended during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects, and a higher dose is necessary for women with epilepsy due to their increased risk of low serum folate levels. It is important to note that certain antiepileptic medications can interfere with folate metabolism, and switching to sodium valproate is not recommended as it is a known teratogen. It is also important for women to continue taking their medication during pregnancy to avoid an increased risk of seizures.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the Labour Suite, 2 weeks post-due date, for induction of labour. She is assessed using the Bishop’s scoring system and is noted to have a score of 5.
What is the recommended treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Artificial rupture of membranes
Correct Answer: Vaginal PGE2, then reassess 6 h later
Explanation:Induction of Labour: Methods and Indications
Induction of labour is a medical procedure that is carried out when the risks of continuing the pregnancy outweigh the risks of delivery. It is usually done in the interest of foetal wellbeing, rather than maternal wellbeing. There are various methods of inducing labour, and the choice of method depends on the individual case.
Vaginal PGE2 is a commonly used method of induction. The Bishop’s score is assessed, and if it is less than 6, vaginal PGE2 is administered. The cervix is reassessed after 6 hours, and if the score is still less than 7, further prostaglandin is given.
Other methods of induction include artificial rupture of membranes, which is performed when the woman is in active labour and her waters have not broken. A membrane sweep is offered at the 40- and 41-week checks for nulliparous women and at the 41-week check for multiparous women. Anti-progesterone is rarely used in the induction of labour.
Induction of labour is indicated in cases of foetal indications such as post-due date of more than 10 days, foetal growth restriction, deteriorating foetal abnormalities, and deteriorating haemolytic disease. It is also indicated in cases of maternal indications such as pre-eclampsia, deteriorating medical conditions, certain diabetic pregnancies, and if treatment is required for malignancy.
If vaginal PGE2 fails and the woman is not in active labour, artificial rupture of membranes with Syntocinon® may be performed. The choice of method depends on the individual case and the judgement of the healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a significant obstetric hemorrhage due to uterine atony. What is the initial medical management after stabilization and general measures?
Your Answer: Syntocinon
Explanation:To treat postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony, medical options include oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol.
The leading cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage is uterine atony. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guideline No.52) for managing primary PPH due to uterine atony. The first-line treatment recommended is 5U of IV Syntocinon (oxytocin), followed by 0.5 mg of ergometrine.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department with painless vaginal bleeding. She had her second baby three years ago, which was delivered via a c-section, but otherwise was a normal pregnancy. Upon obstetric examination, her uterus was non-tender, however, her baby was in breech presentation. The foetal heart rate was also normal, and she denied experiencing any contractions during the bleeding episode. What is the recommended next investigation for the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Understanding Placenta Praevia
Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.
There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.
Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.
In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are asked to see a patient on the Pediatric Ward who is suffering from severe eclampsia. Two hours previously, she began to bleed profusely from her cannula site. After checking her coagulation screen, you are suspicious she has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
Which one of the following test result would you expect in a diagnosis of DIC?Your Answer: High platelets
Correct Answer: Elevated prothrombin time (PT)
Explanation:Understanding DIC: Symptoms and Diagnostic Tests
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by abnormal clotting and bleeding at the same time. This widespread disorder of clotting is caused by both thrombin and plasmin activation. Acutely, haemorrhage often occurs as the clotting factors are exhausted. The severity of the condition is variable but can lead to severe organ failure.
To diagnose DIC, doctors typically perform a full blood picture, coagulation screen, and a group-and-save test. Tests for DIC include elevated prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Platelet counts in DIC are typically low, especially in acute sepsis-associated DIC, but may be increased in malignancy-associated chronic DIC. Fibrinogen level is also tested, as it falls in DIC.
Symptoms of DIC include abnormal bleeding, such as from the gums or nose, and bruising easily. Patients may also experience organ failure, such as kidney or liver failure. Treatment for DIC typically involves addressing the underlying cause, such as sepsis or cancer, and providing supportive care, such as blood transfusions or medications to prevent clotting.
In summary, DIC is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you experience symptoms of abnormal bleeding or organ failure, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits your clinic in the third trimester as her foetus is larger than expected for the gestational age. She has pre-existing type 2 diabetes and is taking medication to manage her blood glucose levels. She wants to know which medication is safe to take while breastfeeding.
Which of the following medications can she continue taking?Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Breastfeeding mothers should avoid taking sulfonylureas (such as gliclazide) as there is a potential risk of causing hypoglycemia in newborns. Similarly, exenatide, liraglutide, and sitagliptin should also be avoided during breastfeeding. However, it is safe to use metformin while breastfeeding.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient named Emily, who is a G2P1, visits you, a locum general practitioner, to inform you about her pregnancy. Upon reviewing her medical history, you discover that Emily has asthma, gastro-oesophageal reflux, constipation, and a recent deep vein thrombosis. She is currently taking senna, over the counter ranitidine, budesonide and salbutamol inhalers, and rivaroxaban. However, none of her medications have been altered due to her pregnancy status. Can you identify which medication needs to be changed?
Your Answer: Rivaroxaban
Explanation:Pregnant women should not use novel oral anticoagulants, so those who are currently taking them should switch to low molecular weight heparin.
Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures
Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.
Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.
The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.
If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.
If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.
In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is in labor with her first baby. In the second stage, fetal distress is detected, and instrumental delivery is being considered. What would be a contraindication to this procedure?
Your Answer: Head palpable abdominally
Explanation:Instrumental delivery is a method used to expedite delivery during the second stage of labor in order to prevent fetal and maternal morbidity. It involves the use of traction and is indicated in cases of prolonged active second stage, maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, breech presentation, and prophylactic use in medical conditions such as cardiovascular disease and hypertension. It can also be used to rotate a malpositioned fetal head.
To be eligible for instrumental delivery, the following requirements must be met, which can be remembered using the acronym FORCEPS:
– Fully dilated cervix, indicating that the second stage of labor has been reached
– Occiput anterior (OA) position, preferably with the head in the occiput posterior (OP) position, as delivery is possible with Kielland’s forceps and ventouse. The position of the head must be known to avoid maternal or fetal trauma and failure.
– Ruptured membranes
– Cephalic presentation
– Engaged presenting part, meaning that the head is at or below the ischial spines and cannot be palpated abdominally
– Pain relief
– Sphincter (bladder) empty, which usually requires catheterizationIt is important to note that there must be a clear indication for instrumental delivery.
When is a Forceps Delivery Necessary?
A forceps delivery may be necessary in certain situations during childbirth. These situations include fetal distress, maternal distress, failure to progress, and the need to control the head in a breech delivery. Fetal distress occurs when the baby is not receiving enough oxygen and can be detected through changes in the baby’s heart rate. Maternal distress can occur when the mother is exhausted or experiencing complications such as high blood pressure. Failure to progress refers to a situation where the mother has been pushing for an extended period of time without making progress. In a breech delivery, the baby’s head may need to be controlled to prevent injury. In these situations, a forceps delivery may be recommended by the healthcare provider to safely deliver the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of severe lower abdominal pain that is not relieved by painkillers. She has no significant medical history. During the evaluation, her GP conducts a pregnancy test, which comes back positive. The patient is immediately referred to the hospital, where a transvaginal ultrasound confirms an ectopic pregnancy in the left tube. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Salpingectomy
Explanation:If a patient has an ectopic pregnancy, the treatment plan will depend on various factors such as the size and location of the pregnancy, the patient’s overall health, and the potential impact on their fertility. If the pregnancy is small and the patient’s health is stable, they may be able to receive medication to dissolve the pregnancy. However, if the pregnancy is larger or causing severe symptoms, surgery may be necessary.
In cases where surgery is required, the surgeon may attempt to preserve the affected fallopian tube if possible. However, if the tube is severely damaged or the patient has other factors that may affect their fertility, such as age or previous fertility issues, the surgeon may opt to remove the tube completely. This decision will also depend on the patient’s desire for future fertility and the likelihood of requiring further treatment with methotrexate or a salpingectomy. If the patient’s contralateral tube is unaffected, complete removal of the affected tube may be the most appropriate course of action.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 32-year-old multiparous woman presents very anxious on day 10 postpartum. She is struggling with breastfeeding; her nipples are sore, and she feels her son is not feeding enough, as he is fussy and crying for most of the day. Breast examination reveals bilateral breast engorgement, but no evidence of infection. The patient tells you she felt embarrassed to ask the nurse for advice when she had her first postnatal visit, as she did not want her to think she was incompetent as a mother.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Arrange a one-to-one appointment with a health visitor
Explanation:Management options for breastfeeding problems in new mothers
Breastfeeding is a common challenge for new mothers, and it is important to provide them with effective management options. The first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines is a one-to-one visit from a health visitor or breastfeeding specialist nurse. This allows for observation and advice on optimal positioning, milk expressing techniques, and pain management during breastfeeding. Information leaflets and national breastfeeding support organisation websites can supplement this training, but they are not as effective as one-to-one observation. Prescribing formula milk may be an option if there is evidence of significant weight loss in the baby. It is important to reassure the mother that establishing a good breastfeeding technique can take time, but active support should be provided to maximise the chances of success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman who is 20-weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department after noticing a vesicular rash on her torso this morning. Upon further questioning, you discover that her 5-year-old daughter developed chickenpox last week and the patient cannot recall if she has had the condition before. She seems at ease while resting.
Serological testing for varicella zoster virus reveals the following results:
Varicella IgM Positive
Varicella IgG Negative
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Oral acyclovir
Explanation:Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant visits her local antenatal unit for a midwife check-up. She has been diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and is taking ursodeoxycholic acid. Additionally, she is being treated with lamotrigine for epilepsy. This is her first pregnancy, and she has not experienced any previous miscarriages. During her appointment, she expresses concern about her step-sister's recent stillbirth, as her step-sister has already had two prior stillbirths. Based on her medical history, which factor puts her at the highest risk for a similar outcome?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine treatment
Correct Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is known to increase the risk of stillbirth, which is why doctors usually recommend inducing labor at 37-38 weeks of gestation. Although some studies suggest that this may no longer be the case, the general consensus is that the risk of stillbirth is still relatively high. Therefore, early induction of labor is still advised.
While advanced maternal age is a risk factor for stillbirth, being 34 years old is not considered to be in the category of older maternal age, which is defined as 35 years old or older.
Although there may be a genetic component to stillbirths, having a step-sister with a history of stillbirth does not constitute a family history of the condition. This is because step-siblings are not biologically related, but rather connected through marriage.
Lamotrigine is considered the safest anti-epileptic medication to use during pregnancy, and there is no evidence to suggest that it increases the risk of stillbirth.
Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology department with a recent diagnosis of cervical cancer. Upon staging, it was found that she has a small malignant tumour that is only visible under a microscope and measures 6mm in width. The depth of the tumour is 2.5mm, and there is no evidence of nodal or distant metastases, classifying her disease as stage IA1. She expresses a desire to preserve her fertility as she has not yet started a family.
What treatment option would be most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Cone biopsy and close follow-up
Explanation:If a woman with stage IA cervical cancer wants to maintain her fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins and close follow-up may be considered as the best option. Hysterectomy with or without lymph node clearance would not preserve fertility. Radical trachelectomy, which involves removing the cervix, upper part of the vagina, and surrounding tissues, and checking for cancer spread in the pelvis, is an option for IA2 tumors that also preserves fertility.
Management of Cervical Cancer Based on FIGO Staging
Cervical cancer management is determined by the FIGO staging and the patient’s desire to maintain fertility. The FIGO staging system categorizes cervical cancer into four stages based on the extent of the tumor’s spread. Stage IA and IB tumors are confined to the cervix, with IA tumors only visible under a microscope and less than 7 mm wide. Stage II tumors have spread beyond the cervix but not to the pelvic wall, while stage III tumors have spread to the pelvic wall. Stage IV tumors have spread beyond the pelvis or involve the bladder or rectum.
The management of stage IA tumors involves a hysterectomy with or without lymph node clearance. For patients who want to maintain fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins can be performed, but close follow-up is necessary. Stage IB tumors are managed with radiotherapy and concurrent chemotherapy for B1 tumors and radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymph node dissection for B2 tumors.
Stage II and III tumors are managed with radiation and concurrent chemotherapy, with consideration for nephrostomy if hydronephrosis is present. Stage IV tumors are treated with radiation and/or chemotherapy, with palliative chemotherapy being the best option for stage IVB. Recurrent disease is managed with either surgical treatment followed by chemoradiation or radiotherapy followed by surgical therapy.
The prognosis of cervical cancer depends on the FIGO staging, with higher survival rates for earlier stages. Complications of treatments include standard surgical risks, increased risk of preterm birth with cone biopsies and radical trachelectomy, and ureteral fistula with radical hysterectomy. Complications of radiotherapy include short-term symptoms such as diarrhea and vaginal bleeding and long-term effects such as ovarian failure and fibrosis of various organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman, para 2+ 0, has given birth to a healthy baby. The third stage of labor was actively managed with Syntocinon, cord clamping, and controlled cord traction. The midwives examined the placenta, which appeared complete. However, the woman is experiencing postpartum bleeding and has lost an estimated 1,500 ml of blood. She has no prior medical history. What is the initial pharmacological treatment of choice to stop the bleeding?
Your Answer: IV syntocinon
Explanation:Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) caused by uterine atony can be treated with various medical options including oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Initially, non-pharmacological methods such as bimanual uterine compression and catheter insertion should be used. RCOG guidelines recommend starting with Syntocinon 5 Units by slow IV injection, followed by ergometrine (avoid in hypertension), and then a Syntocinon infusion. Carboprost (avoid in asthma) and misoprostol 1000 micrograms rectally are then recommended. If pharmacological management fails, surgical haemostasis should be initiated. In a major PPH, ABCD management should be initiated, including fluids while waiting for appropriate cross-matched blood. Primary PPH is defined as a loss of greater than 500 ml of blood within 24 hours of delivery, with minor PPH being a loss of 500-1000 ml of blood and major PPH being over 1000 ml of blood. The causes of primary PPH can be categorized into the 4 T’s: Tone, Tissue, Trauma, and Thrombin. Uterine atony is the most common cause of primary PPH.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 28-year-old gravid 3, para 2 at 24 weeks gestation comes to the antenatal clinic to discuss delivery options for her pregnancy. She has a history of delivering her previous pregnancies through vaginal and elective caesarean section, respectively. What is the definite reason for not allowing vaginal delivery after a previous caesarean section?
Your Answer: Vertical (classic) caesarean scar
Explanation:VBAC is not recommended for patients who have had previous vertical (classical) caesarean scars, experienced uterine rupture in the past, or have other contraindications to vaginal birth such as placenta praevia. However, women who have had two or more previous caesarean sections may still be considered for VBAC. The remaining options in this question do not necessarily rule out VBAC.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman who is 26 weeks’ pregnant presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with some swelling of her ankles. She has had no other pregnancy problems and this is her first child. Her blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg and she has 2+ protein in her urine. After 4 hours, her blood pressure has decreased to 130/95 mmHg. Her booking bloods and previous bloods are not available. Her results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Blood pressure 130/95 mmHg < 120/< 80 mmHg
Haemoglobin (Hb) 85 g/l 115–155 g/l
Platelets (Plts) < 210 × 109/l 150-400 × 109/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 250 U/litre 25–250 U/litre (in pregnancy)
Which of the following statements is most likely to be true?Your Answer: By definition she has pre-eclampsia and should be admitted for investigations and blood pressure (BP) control
Explanation:Understanding Pre-eclampsia and HELLP Syndrome in Pregnancy
Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria. Diagnosis requires two readings of blood pressure, taken 4-6 hours apart, with a systolic reading of 140 or higher, a diastolic reading of 90 or higher, or an increase of 30 systolic or 20 diastolic from booking blood pressure in the second half of pregnancy. Proteinuria of at least 1+ on reagent stick testing is also required.
The severity of pre-eclampsia is classified based on blood pressure readings. Mild pre-eclampsia is characterized by a systolic reading of 140-149 or a diastolic reading of 90-99. Moderate pre-eclampsia is characterized by a systolic reading of 150-159 or a diastolic reading of 100-109. Severe pre-eclampsia is diagnosed with a systolic reading of 160 or higher or a diastolic reading of 110 or higher.
HELLP syndrome is a subtype of severe pre-eclampsia, characterized by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. Diagnosis requires a blood film showing fragmented red cells, an LDH level over 600 IU/litre, and raised bilirubin. Elevated AST or ALT levels over 70 IU/litre and platelet counts below 100 x 10^9/litre are also required.
It is important to note that not all cases of high blood pressure in pregnancy are pre-eclampsia or HELLP syndrome. However, if a pregnant woman meets the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia, it is an obstetrical emergency and requires immediate attention. Additionally, if a pregnant woman has high ALP levels, an ultrasound scan of the biliary tree may be necessary to check for biliary obstruction. It is also important to note that ALP levels are typically elevated during pregnancy due to the placenta releasing ALP.
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- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with anaemia at 20 weeks gestation. Her full blood count reveals a serum Hb of 104 g/L and MCV of 104 fL. Hypersegmented neutrophils are observed on a blood film. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease. What is the probable reason for her anaemia?
Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease
Correct Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation:The macrocytic anaemia revealed by the full blood count is indicative of a megaloblastic anaemia, as per the blood films. This type of anaemia can be caused by a deficiency in folate or B12. Given that folic acid deficiency is prevalent during pregnancy, it is the most probable cause in this instance. Additionally, the likelihood of coeliac disease exacerbating malabsorption further supports this conclusion.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a vaginal examination and membrane sweeping at her antenatal visit. Despite these efforts, she has not gone into labor after 6 hours. Upon examination, her cervix is firm, 1 cm dilated, 1.5 cm in length, and in the middle position. The fetal head station is -3, but there have been no complications during the pregnancy. What should be the next appropriate step?
Your Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin gel
Explanation:If the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, the recommended method for inducing labor is through vaginal PGE2 or oral misoprostol. In this case, since the Bishop score was less than 5, labor is unlikely without induction. One option could be to repeat a membrane sweep, but the most appropriate course of action would be to use a vaginal prostaglandin gel.
Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.
The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the obstetric clinic during her 28th week of pregnancy. She has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes and has been taking metformin for the past two weeks. However, her blood glucose levels are still elevated despite following a strict diet and taking the maximum dose of metformin. What is the next best course of action to manage her blood glucose levels?
Your Answer: Add on insulin therapy
Explanation:When a woman has gestational diabetes, it is important to control her blood glucose levels to prevent complications such as premature birth, stillbirth, and macrosomia. If diet and exercise changes along with metformin do not meet blood glucose targets, insulin therapy should be added, according to NICE guidelines. Sulfonylureas are not recommended for gestational diabetes as they are less effective than the metformin and insulin combination and have been shown to be teratogenic in animals. Metformin should not be stopped as it increases insulin sensitivity, which is lacking during pregnancy. SGLT-2 antagonists are also not recommended due to their teratogenic effects in animals. Continuing metformin alone for two weeks despite high blood glucose levels increases the risk of complications, so insulin therapy should be added at this stage.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A 31-year-old woman arrives at 36 weeks gestation in her first pregnancy. She is admitted after experiencing a seizure following a 2 day period of intense abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbance. Her family has a history of epilepsy. During the examination, hyperreflexia is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Eclampsia
Explanation:Eclampsia is a medical condition where a pregnant woman with pre-eclampsia experiences seizures. Pre-eclampsia can be identified by early signs such as high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Other symptoms may include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. While prolonged hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to dehydration and metabolic issues that may cause seizures, this is less likely given the patient’s one-day history. There is no indication in the patient’s history to suggest any other diagnoses.
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 36-year-old G5P2 woman comes to antenatal clinic at 35+2 gestation with a history of uneventful pregnancy except for moderate morning sickness in the first trimester. She reports several minor symptoms. What symptoms would require further investigation and raise concern?
Your Answer: Dysuria
Explanation:While many symptoms experienced during pregnancy are normal and not a cause for concern, it is important to be aware of symptoms that may indicate a medical issue, such as dysuria.
Dysuria, or painful urination, can be a sign of a urinary tract infection (UTI), which should be treated promptly during any stage of pregnancy. UTIs have been linked to premature birth, as the inflammation caused by the infection can irritate the cervix and trigger preterm labor.
Fatigue during pregnancy is a common experience and can have multiple causes. In the third trimester, it is considered normal. Lower back pain is also a common symptom, caused by the hormone relaxin increasing laxity in the sacroiliac joints and the added mechanical strain of pregnancy.
Nausea and vomiting are most commonly experienced in the first trimester, but can still occur throughout pregnancy and are generally considered normal.
Minor Symptoms of Pregnancy
During pregnancy, women may experience minor symptoms that are common and not usually a cause for concern. These symptoms may include nausea and vomiting, tiredness, and musculoskeletal pains. Nausea and vomiting, commonly known as morning sickness, can occur at any time of the day and may last throughout the first trimester. Tiredness is also a common symptom, especially during the first and third trimesters. Musculoskeletal pains, such as back pain and pelvic pain, may also occur due to the changes in the body’s structure and weight distribution. While these symptoms may be uncomfortable, they are typically manageable and can be relieved with rest, exercise, and proper nutrition. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider if these symptoms become severe or persistent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old primiparous woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is at 12 weeks’ gestation and attended for her nuchal scan. She is currently on insulin treatment. Her HbA1c at booking was 34 mmol/mol (recommended at pregnancy < 48 mmol/mol).
What is the most appropriate antenatal care for pregnant women with pre-existing diabetes?Your Answer: Women with diabetes should be advised to deliver by induction of labour or Caesarean section between 38 and 39+6 weeks’ gestation
Correct Answer: Women with diabetes should be seen in the Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic every one to two weeks throughout their pregnancy
Explanation:Guidelines for Managing Diabetes in Pregnancy
Managing diabetes in pregnancy requires close monitoring to reduce the risk of maternal and fetal complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for healthcare professionals to follow when caring for women with diabetes during pregnancy.
Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic Visits
Women with diabetes should be seen in a Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic every one to two weeks throughout their pregnancy. This ensures that any problems are addressed promptly and appropriately.
Serial Fetal Scanning
Women with diabetes should be offered serial fetal scanning from 26 weeks’ gestation every four weeks. This helps to monitor and prevent complications such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, stillbirth, and congenital anomalies.
Delivery by Induction of Labour or Caesarean Section
Women with diabetes should be advised to deliver by induction of labour or Caesarean section between 38 and 39+6 weeks’ gestation. This is because diabetes is associated with an increased risk of stillbirth, and the risk is managed by inducing labour when the pregnancy reaches term.
Induction at 41+6 Weeks’ Gestation
Women with diabetes who do not opt for an elective induction or a Caesarean section between 37+0 to 38+6 weeks’ gestation and wish to await spontaneous labour should be warned of the risks of stillbirth and neonatal complications. In cases of prolonged pregnancy, the patient should be offered induction by, at most, 40+6 weeks’ gestation.
Retinal Assessment
All women with pre-existing diabetes should be offered retinal assessment at 16–20 weeks’ gestation. If initial screening is normal, then they are offered a second retinal screening test at 28 weeks’ gestation. If the booking retinal screening is abnormal, then a repeat retinal screening test is offered to these women earlier than 28 weeks, usually between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation.
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- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Correct
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You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone an anomaly scan and is undergoing a routine review. During the consultation, she expresses her concern about not feeling any fetal movement yet, despite experiencing it by 18 weeks gestation in her previous pregnancies.
At what point in her gestation would it be appropriate to refer her to the maternal fetal medicine unit for further evaluation?Your Answer: 24 weeks
Explanation:Referral to a maternal fetal medicine unit is recommended if fetal movements have not been felt by 24 weeks, as reduced movements can be a sign of fetal distress and hypoxia. While most women feel their babies move around 18-20 weeks, it can happen earlier in some cases. Although singular episodes of reduced movements may not be harmful, they can also indicate stillbirths and restricted growth. The absence of movements is particularly concerning and requires further investigation. The RCOG has set the 24 week cut off as a guideline.
Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Introduction:
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.Physiology:
Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.Epidemiology:
Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.Investigations:
Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.Prognosis:
Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities. -
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- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant visits her GP complaining of intense itching on the soles of her hands and feet, particularly at night, which is disrupting her sleep. Due to abnormal liver function tests (LFTs), she is referred to the obstetric team. The team prescribes medication that greatly alleviates her pruritus symptoms.
What is the probable medication that the obstetric team has prescribed to this patient based on the given information?Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Ursodeoxycholic acid is the recommended initial medical treatment for intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. The patient’s symptoms and abnormal liver function tests, along with her pregnancy status, suggest obstetric cholestasis. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends ursodeoxycholic acid to alleviate pruritus and improve liver function in women with obstetric cholestasis. Cetirizine is not effective for pruritic symptoms during pregnancy, while cholestyramine is the preferred treatment for cholestatic pruritus but is not typically used for obstetric cholestasis. Dexamethasone is not the first-line therapy for obstetric cholestasis. Rifampicin may be used as an alternative treatment for pruritus, but caution should be exercised in patients with pre-existing liver disease due to potential hepatotoxicity, and it is not indicated for obstetric cholestasis.
Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.
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- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 29-year-old primip is brought in by ambulance at 38+2 weeks’ gestation. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy so far, and she is a smoker. This morning, she had sudden-onset abdominal pain, which has become very severe. The uterus is hard and contracted. There is no vaginal bleeding, and the os is closed, with a long cervix. She looks clammy and pale.
Her observations are as follows: heart rate (HR) 130 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 98/56 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 20 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 96% on air, and temperature 37.1 °C. The cardiotocogram shows fetal distress, and fetal movements cannot be palpated.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Emergency Caesarean section
Explanation:Management of Placental Abruption: Emergency Caesarean Section and Other Options
Placental abruption is a serious obstetric emergency that can lead to maternal and fetal mortality. Risk factors include smoking, pre-eclampsia, cocaine use, trauma, and maternal age >35. Symptoms may include sudden-onset, severe pain, a contracted uterus, and fetal distress. In severe cases, an emergency Caesarean section is necessary to reduce the risk of mortality.
If a patient presents with a history suggestive of placental abruption but no maternal or fetal compromise, a transabdominal and/or transvaginal ultrasound scan can confirm the diagnosis and assess fetal wellbeing.
Admission for monitoring and analgesia may be appropriate in cases where there is a concealed or resolved placental abruption and the patient is stable without fetal distress. However, in the presence of maternal and fetal compromise, induction of labor is not appropriate.
In cases where there is no maternal or fetal distress, admitting for intravenous analgesia and fluids can be appropriate to assess the patient and make a timely decision for delivery as required.
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- Obstetrics
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Question 27
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You are summoned to attend to a 26-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant and has arrived at the Emergency Department with complaints of heavy vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Her vital signs are stable and she has no fever. An ultrasound reveals that the fetal heart rate is still present and the size of the uterus is as expected. Upon examination, her cervical os is closed. How would you categorize her miscarriage?
Your Answer: Threatened
Explanation:It should be noted that a significant percentage of women who experience threatened miscarriages will ultimately miscarry. Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy in pregnant patients who present with both pain and bleeding.
Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.
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- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes for a check-up. She had contact with a child who has chickenpox earlier in the day, but she is uncertain if she had the illness as a child. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe oral acyclovir
Correct Answer: Check varicella antibodies
Explanation:To ensure that a pregnant woman has not been exposed to chickenpox before, the initial step is to test her blood for varicella antibodies.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular Epilepsy Clinic appointment with her partner. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but she wants to start trying for a baby. She is currently on sodium valproate and has been seizure-free for one year.
What is the most suitable antiepileptic medication for this patient to take during the preconception period and pregnancy?Your Answer: Stop sodium valproate and commence levetiracetam
Correct Answer: Stop sodium valproate and commence lamotrigine
Explanation:Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age
Introduction:
Women of childbearing age with epilepsy require careful consideration of their antiepileptic medication options due to the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. This article will discuss the appropriate medication options for women with epilepsy who are planning to conceive or are already pregnant.Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age
Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Lamotrigine:
Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Lamotrigine and carbamazepine are recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) as safer alternatives. Lamotrigine is a sodium channel blocker and has fewer side effects than carbamazepine. It is present in breast milk but has not been associated with harmful effects on the infant.Continue Sodium Valproate:
Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Women taking sodium valproate should be reviewed preconception to change their medication to a safer alternative. Untreated epilepsy can be a major risk factor in pregnancy, increasing maternal and fetal mortality.Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Ethosuximide:
Ethosuximide is not appropriate for this patient’s management as it is recommended for absence seizures or myoclonic seizures. Use during breastfeeding has been associated with infant hyperexcitability and sedation.Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Levetiracetam:
Levetiracetam is recommended as an adjunct medication for generalised tonic-clonic seizures that have failed to respond to first-line treatment. This patient has well-controlled seizures on first-line treatment and does not require adjunct medication. Other second-line medications include clobazam, lamotrigine, sodium valproate and topiramate.Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Phenytoin:
Phenytoin is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. It can lead to fetal hydantoin syndrome, which includes a combination of developmental abnormalities. -
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- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. The abdominal pain started suddenly in the night, about 3 hours ago. It is a severe dull pain in the suprapubic region and doesn't radiate anywhere. The pain has not settled at all since onset and is not positional. She rates the pain as 10/10 in severity. She passed about 2 cupfuls of blood 1 hour previously. She reports that the bleeding has soaked through 2 sanitary pads. She also complains of back pain and is exquisitely tender on suprapubic palpation. She has not noticed any decreased foetal movements, although says that her baby is not particularly active usually. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Placenta accreta
Correct Answer: Placenta abruption
Explanation:Placenta abruptio is characterized by painful vaginal bleeding, while placenta praevia typically does not cause pain. In cases of placenta abruptio, the uterus may feel hard and woody to the touch due to retroplacental blood tracking into the myometrium. The absence of fetal heart rate and shock in the mother are common symptoms. Immediate resuscitation is crucial, and once stable, the baby will require urgent delivery. Postpartum hemorrhage is more likely to occur in these cases.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors
Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.
The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.
In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.
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- Obstetrics
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