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  • Question 1 - A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly diabetes check-up. He was diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly diabetes check-up. He was diagnosed with type two diabetes 3 years ago and is currently taking metformin 500mg tds. He reports no adverse effects and is compliant with medication instructions. There is no notable medical history.

      His latest HbA1c reading was 53 mmol/mol. You contemplate modifying his current medication.

      What is the desired HbA1c level for this individual?

      Your Answer: 48 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      The HbA1c target for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus who are taking a single drug not linked to hypoglycemia, such as metformin, is 48 mmol/mol. However, if they are taking multiple medications or a single medication that is associated with hypoglycemia, the target may differ.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      20.3
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  • Question 2 - You are examining test results of a 23-year-old woman who is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining test results of a 23-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant. The midstream specimen of urine (MSU) indicates bacteriuria. During the discussion with the patient, she reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or fever. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: No treatment

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics should be administered promptly to pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      17.3
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  • Question 3 - What are the reasons for performing circumcision in children? ...

    Correct

    • What are the reasons for performing circumcision in children?

      Your Answer: Phimosis

      Explanation:

      Indications for Paediatric Circumcision

      Paediatric circumcision is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the foreskin covering the head of the penis. While it is not a routine procedure, there are certain indications that may require it.

      The most common indication for paediatric circumcision is pathological phimosis, which is scarring of the foreskin opening that makes it non-retractable. However, this condition is rare before the age of 5 years. It is important to note that a non-retractile prepuce without inflammation is a normal variant in the first few years of life.

      Recurrent episodes of infection beneath the foreskin, known as balanoposthitis, may also be an indication for circumcision. This condition can be troublesome and may require surgical intervention to prevent further complications.

      In rare cases, paediatric circumcisions may be required for other conditions. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine if circumcision is necessary for your child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following secondary causes of hyperlipidaemia lead to mainly hypercholesterolaemia instead...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following secondary causes of hyperlipidaemia lead to mainly hypercholesterolaemia instead of hypertriglyceridaemia?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Secondary Causes of Hyperlipidaemia

      Hyperlipidaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of lipids (fats) in the blood. There are two main types of hyperlipidaemia: hypertriglyceridaemia, which is characterized by high levels of triglycerides, and hypercholesterolaemia, which is characterized by high levels of cholesterol. While primary hyperlipidaemia is caused by genetic factors, secondary hyperlipidaemia is caused by underlying medical conditions or lifestyle factors.

      Predominantly hypertriglyceridaemia can be caused by a variety of factors, including diabetes mellitus (types 1 and 2), obesity, alcohol consumption, chronic renal failure, certain medications such as thiazides and non-selective beta-blockers, and liver disease. On the other hand, predominantly hypercholesterolaemia can be caused by conditions such as nephrotic syndrome, cholestasis, and hypothyroidism.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of hyperlipidaemia in order to effectively manage the condition. Lifestyle modifications such as a healthy diet and regular exercise, as well as medications such as statins, can help to lower lipid levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      86.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 44-year-old woman has contacted you for a phone consultation regarding her recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman has contacted you for a phone consultation regarding her recent cervical smear test results. She has undergone her first cervical smear test as part of the routine screening programme and is currently not experiencing any symptoms. She has no significant medical history but is a smoker, consuming 10 cigarettes per day. Additionally, she is not sexually active. Her test results indicate a negative high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) status. What would be the appropriate next step in managing her case?

      Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 5 years

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 years

      Explanation:

      If the cervical cancer screening sample is negative for hrHPV, the patient can return to routine recall and should have a repeat cervical smear in 3 years. It is important for individuals, even if they are not sexually active, to attend routine cervical smear tests. No further cervical smears are required if the patient has no previous relevant history. A repeat cervical smear in 12 months is not necessary as the routine recall for this age group is every 3 years. Similarly, a repeat cervical smear in 5 years is not appropriate for this patient as routine cervical smear tests are every 5 years for individuals between the ages of 50 and 64 years.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He denies alcohol excess and has a body mass index of 36 kg/m2. He is also noted to be a diet-controlled type II diabetic and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.
      Investigations Results Normal value
      Cholesterol 7.7 mmol/l <5 mmol/l
      Fasting triglyceride 2.5 mmol/l <1.7 mmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/l <40 IU/l
      Which of the following is the single most likely explanation regarding the significance of his raised liver enzyme?

      Your Answer: Probably has non alcoholic steatohepatitis, which can include fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Liver Function Test Results in a Patient with Metabolic Risk Factors

      Liver function tests are an important tool for assessing liver health. In a patient with metabolic risk factors such as obesity, dyslipidaemia, and abnormal glucose tolerance, elevated liver transaminases may indicate non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), a condition that can lead to fibrosis and eventually cirrhosis if left untreated. Weight loss and control of comorbidities are the mainstay of management for NASH. While autoimmune hepatitis is a rarer possibility, it may be considered if the patient has a history of other autoimmune disorders and a normal body mass index and lipid profile. Regardless of the specific diagnosis, abnormal liver function test results in a patient with metabolic risk factors require further investigation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      87.6
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  • Question 7 - You see a 35-year-old patient in your morning emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone...

    Correct

    • You see a 35-year-old patient in your morning emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone 400 micrograms daily for her asthma. She is currently using her salbutamol more often than normal. Over the past two weeks she has been suffering with a 'cold' and feels her breathing has worsened. She is bringing up a small amount of white phlegm but doesn't complain of fevers. She tends to become wheezy (particularly at night). There are no associated chest pains but she does feel her chest is tight.

      On examination, she is afebrile and her oxygen saturations of 95% in air. Her peak flow is 340 L/min (usually 475 L/min). She is able to speak in full sentences. Her respiratory rate is 20 respirations per minute and pulse is 88 bpm.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe 40 mg prednisolone daily for five days

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma Symptoms

      Several important points should be considered when managing a patient with acute asthma symptoms. Firstly, it is important to note if the patient is already taking preventative treatment for asthma. If they are, an increase in the use of their salbutamol inhaler may indicate that their symptoms are worse than usual. Secondly, recent viral infections can trigger asthma symptoms. Additionally, the absence of discoloured thick phlegm and fever makes it less likely that the patient has a bacterial infection and therefore doesn’t require antibiotic therapy.

      When managing acute asthma symptoms, it is important to note that changing inhalers may not be appropriate at this stage. Oxygen therapy is not necessary if the patient’s oxygen saturations are above 94% in air. A nebuliser may not be indicated if the patient’s breathing rate is not compromised and they are clinically stable. It may be beneficial to initially try a salbutamol inhaler before ipratropium bromide. These considerations can help guide the management of acute asthma symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      84.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which treatment for hypercholesterolaemia in primary prevention trials has been shown to reduce...

    Correct

    • Which treatment for hypercholesterolaemia in primary prevention trials has been shown to reduce all cause mortality?

      Your Answer: Statins

      Explanation:

      Lipid Management in Primary Care

      Lipid management is a common scenario in primary care, and NICE has produced guidance on Lipid modification (CG181) in the primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. The use of statins in primary prevention is supported by clinical trial data, with WOSCOPS (The West of Scotland Coronary Prevention Study) being a landmark trial. This study looked at statin versus placebo in men aged 45-65 with no coronary disease and a cholesterol >4 mmol/L, showing a reduction in all-cause mortality by 22% in the statin arm for a 20% total cholesterol reduction.

      Other study data also supports the use of statins as primary prevention of coronary artery disease. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on lipid modification – CVD prevention recommends Atorvastatin at 20 mg for primary prevention and 80 mg for secondary prevention. Risk is assessed using the QRISK2 calculator. Overall, lipid management is an important aspect of primary care, and healthcare professionals should be familiar with the latest guidance and clinical trial data to provide optimal care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following medications, when taken with Tamoxifen, may decrease its efficacy...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications, when taken with Tamoxifen, may decrease its efficacy and are commonly prescribed to women for anxiety, depression, and hot flashes?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions with Tamoxifen

      Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer, and its effectiveness is dependent on the bioactivation process catalyzed by the cytochrome CYP2D6. However, studies have shown that certain drugs can inhibit CYP2D6, leading to a decrease in the clinical effectiveness of tamoxifen.

      Among the drugs that can inhibit CYP2D6, paroxetine and fluoxetine are considered strong inhibitors. Therefore, concomitant use of these drugs with tamoxifen should be avoided. Other drugs have not been shown to have this problem and can be used safely with tamoxifen. It is important to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure the best possible treatment outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - One of the secretaries at your practice slips on loose carpet when coming...

    Incorrect

    • One of the secretaries at your practice slips on loose carpet when coming down the stairs in the surgery and hurts her back. Although she did not sustain any serious injury she took time off as sick leave as a result of this injury.

      According to Health & Safety law, for what duration of time would she need to be incapacitated for you to DOCUMENT the incident in your RIDDOR records?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding RIDDOR: Recording and Reporting Work-Related Injuries

      RIDDOR is a law that requires employers and those in control of work premises to report and keep records of work-related accidents, certain industrial diseases, and dangerous occurrences. When it comes to work-related injuries, employers must keep a record of any occupational accident that causes an employee to be away from work or incapacitated for more than three consecutive days, not including the day of the accident but including weekends or other rest days.

      It’s important to note that this threshold is for recording the incident, not reporting it. If an employee is incapacitated for seven days or more, the incident should be reported. By understanding the requirements of RIDDOR, employers can ensure they are meeting their legal obligations and promoting a safe working environment for their employees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      21.6
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  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over the last few days. Some of these he converts into apparently purposeful movement by pushing back his hair or scratching his nose. There is reduced tone in the limbs, and he is unsteady. He seems unconcerned and intermittently giggles. His mother tells you that he had a sore throat four weeks previously.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Correct Answer: Sydenham’s chorea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sydenham’s Chorea: A Common Cause of Acute Chorea Worldwide

      Sydenham’s chorea, also known as St Vitus’ dance, is a neurological manifestation of rheumatic fever and remains the most common cause of acute chorea worldwide. While it was commonly seen in the 1930s, it occurs less frequently in the UK today. This condition can occur with or without symptoms of rheumatic fever and is usually self-limiting. Improvement occurs over about two weeks, but total recovery can take up to nine months, and may recur in some patients.

      In this scenario, the short time course of the chorea and the girl’s age are useful diagnostically. It is important to note that psychological changes may precede or accompany the choreiform movements, as demonstrated by the girl’s emotional lability.

      It is important to consider other potential causes of chorea, such as cerebral tumour, cerebrovascular accident, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and Huntington’s chorea. However, in this case, these conditions are unlikely as they do not fit with the girl’s symptoms and age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What medical condition in a child would require circumcision? ...

    Incorrect

    • What medical condition in a child would require circumcision?

      Your Answer: Non-retractile foreskin in a 4-year-old child

      Correct Answer: Recurrent balanitis

      Explanation:

      Patients who suffer from chronic balanitis or recurrent episodes of the condition should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Recurrent balanitis can lead to phimosis, a condition where the foreskin becomes tight and difficult to retract, and in some cases, circumcision may be necessary to prevent further complications.

      • Ambiguous Genitalia:
        • Description: Ambiguous genitalia is a condition where a newborn’s external genitals do not appear to be clearly male or female. It can be part of a disorder of sex development (DSD).
        • Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is generally not performed as part of initial management for ambiguous genitalia. The condition requires careful evaluation, diagnosis, and sometimes gender assignment surgery, which may include or exclude circumcision.
      • Cryptorchidism:
        • Description: Cryptorchidism refers to undescended testes, where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum.
        • Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is not indicated for cryptorchidism. The standard treatment is orchidopexy, a surgical procedure to move the undescended testicle into the scrotum.
      • Recurrent Balanitis:
        • Description: Balanitis is inflammation of the glans penis, often associated with infection. Recurrent episodes can lead to discomfort, infection, and difficulty in hygiene.
        • Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is often recommended for recurrent balanitis to prevent further episodes. Removal of the foreskin reduces the risk of infection and improves hygiene.
      • Hypospadias:
        • Description: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis rather than at the tip.
        • Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is not performed in infants with hypospadias as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair of the urethra (urethroplasty). Surgery to correct hypospadias is typically done between 6-18 months of age.
      • Non-retractile Foreskin in a 4-year-old Child:
        • Description: Non-retractile foreskin (physiological phimosis) is normal in young children and usually resolves by age 5-7 as the foreskin becomes more retractable.
        • Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is not recommended for physiological phimosis in young children unless there are complications such as recurrent infections or significant ballooning during urination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 23-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a fight with her partner. She has a history of relationship problems and frequently argues with loved ones. She denies experiencing any paranoid thoughts or unusual beliefs but reports hearing a voice in her head that describes her negative thoughts. Upon examination, you observe several superficial scars on her forearms. There is no evidence of delusions or abnormal speech.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by recurrent self-harm and intense interpersonal relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation. Symptoms also include fluctuating mood and the possibility of paranoid thoughts and hallucinations.

      Paranoid personality disorder is not the correct answer, as it primarily involves difficulty trusting others and interpreting situations as threatening. While some degree of paranoia is described in the patient, the other symptoms are more indicative of borderline personality disorder.

      Schizoid personality disorder is also not the correct answer, as it involves difficulty forming close relationships and a preference for being alone. The patient in this scenario describes relationships with partners, friends, and family.

      Schizophrenia is not the correct answer either, as it primarily involves delusions, auditory hallucinations, and disorders of thought perception.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 39-year-old man returns for follow-up. You had previously provided him with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man returns for follow-up. You had previously provided him with a Statement of Fitness for Work, indicating that he may be eligible for 'modified duties' and 'adjusted hours' due to a recent ankle fracture. However, his employer has informed him that they are unable to accommodate these changes and instructed him to return to you. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Arrange a second opinion within the practice regarding his fitness to work

      Correct Answer: Do not issue any further sick notes and inform him that the original should now be treated as a 'not fit for work' note

      Explanation:

      The DWP advises that if a patient is unable to return to work, the advice provided by their healthcare provider should aim to assist both the patient and their employer in finding ways to facilitate a return to work. However, if it is determined that a return to work is not possible, the patient will be treated as if their healthcare provider had advised that they were not fit for work. In this case, the patient will not need to obtain a new Statement from their healthcare provider, as the previously issued Statement will be considered equivalent to a statement of unfitness for work.

      Understanding the Statement of Fitness for Work

      The Statement of Fitness for Work, previously known as sick notes, was introduced in 2010 to reflect the fact that most patients do not need to be fully recovered before returning to work. This statement allows doctors to advise that a patient may be fit for work taking account of the following advice. It replaces the Med3 and Med5 forms and has resulted in the withdrawal of the Med4, Med6, and RM 7 forms due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance.

      Telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment, and there is no longer a box to indicate that a patient is fit for work. Instead, doctors can state if they need to reassess the patient’s fitness for work at the end of the statement period. The statement provides increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient return to work.

      The statement can be issued on the day of assessment or at a later date if it would have been reasonable to issue it on the day of assessment. It can also be issued after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered healthcare professional.

      There are four tick boxes on the form that represent common approaches to aid a return to work, including a phased return to work, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. Patients may self-certify for the first seven calendar days using the SC1 or SC2 form, depending on their eligibility to claim statutory sick pay.

      It is important to note that the advice on the statement is not binding on employers, and doctors can still advise patients that they are not fit for work. However, the Statement of Fitness for Work provides a more flexible approach to returning to work and recognizes that many patients can return to work with some adjustments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old man presents to his GP for a review of his depression....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man presents to his GP for a review of his depression. He mentions that he recently applied for Universal Credit due to financial struggles after being made redundant. He requests a copy of his medical record to support his claim.

      The patient is currently single and resides alone in the UK. He was last employed six months ago with a private car detailing company, where he worked for over five years before leaving due to mental health issues. He has savings of approximately £20,000. He has no siblings or children, and his parents passed away in a car accident seven years ago.

      What is the probable outcome of his Universal Credit application?

      Your Answer: He is not eligible as he has more than £16,000 in savings

      Explanation:

      If you have savings exceeding £16,000, you are not eligible to receive Universal Credit. To qualify for Universal Credit, you must be 18 or over (with some exceptions for 16 to 17-year-olds), have a low income or be unemployed, be under State Pension age (or have a partner who is), have savings of £16,000 or less between you and your partner, and live in the UK. While medical conditions or dependents do not impact your eligibility, they may affect the amount of payment you receive.

      Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies

      Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.

      The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.

      Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.

      Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her rheumatoid arthritis is planning a 4-week holiday to a remote jungle region of Asia. She has completed her childhood vaccination programme and received a polio booster six years ago. However, she has heard that she requires further travel vaccinations. Her travel agent has suggested the items below, but she is a bit concerned about the safety of these given her medical history.
      Which vaccine would be contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Polio

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Considerations for Immunocompromised Individuals

      Live vaccines, such as rubella, measles, mumps, BCG, yellow fever, and oral polio vaccine, should not be administered to individuals who are immunocompromised. However, the hepatitis, typhoid Vi, and tetanus vaccines, which are formaldehyde-inactivated virus, polysaccharide antigen, and adsorbed toxoid, respectively, pose no risk to these individuals. Although their efficacy may be reduced in immunocompromised individuals, inactivated polio vaccine is available if needed. It is important to note that polio has been eradicated in the Americas since 1991. The main concern for immunocompromised individuals is the yellow fever vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 38 year old, asymptomatic man is incidentally found to have a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old, asymptomatic man is incidentally found to have a clinic blood pressure reading of 148/92 mmHg. His GP requests ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. The average ABPM is found to be 144/90 mmHg. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication. Urine dip is negative. His BMI is 35 kg/m². Appropriate further management in this case would be to:

      Your Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care

      Explanation:

      For individuals under the age of 40 who have stage 1 hypertension and no signs of target organ damage, NICE suggests referring them to rule out secondary causes of hypertension. It is recommended to conduct a thorough evaluation of potential target organ damage in this age group as risk assessments may not accurately predict the lifetime risk of cardiovascular events.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the most probable outcome of using allopurinol as the sole treatment...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable outcome of using allopurinol as the sole treatment for an acute gout attack?

      Your Answer: Rapid reduction in the uric acid level

      Correct Answer: Exacerbation and/or prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol: A Drug for Gout Treatment

      Allopurinol is a medication used for the treatment of gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. It works by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is responsible for the production of uric acid. Allopurinol is typically prescribed after two or more gout attacks within a year or for individuals at higher risk with certain medical conditions. The drug should be started after the inflammation has settled and the dose should be titrated until the serum uric acid level is below 300 micromol/L. However, an abrupt lowering of urate levels can trigger an acute gout attack, so prophylactic treatment with a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug or colchicine is recommended. Allopurinol is not a uricosuric drug, so it can be used in people with poor kidney function, but lower doses are advisable. Febuxostat is an alternative for individuals who are intolerant to allopurinol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. On ultrasound examination, ascites is observed. Her blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
      - Sodium (Na+): 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145 mmol/L)
      - Potassium (K+): 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L)
      - Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 mmol/L)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120 µmol/L)
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 8 mg/L (normal range: <5 mg/L)
      - Hematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48)

      What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?

      Your Answer: Letrozole

      Correct Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy

      Explanation:

      Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a result of ovulation induction, as seen in this case with symptoms such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit. Different medications can be used for ovulation induction, with gonadotrophin therapy carrying a higher risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome compared to other options like clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. It is likely that the patient in question was given gonadotrophin therapy.

      Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories

      Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.

      There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

      One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell with increased respiratory rate, drowsiness and thirst.

      On examination she is pyrexial 38°C, just about communicating, and smells of acetone. Her BP is 100/60 mmHg with a pulse of 105, her glucose is 27.5.

      How would you manage her?

      Your Answer: Push fluids

      Correct Answer: Review next day

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Ketoacidosis: A Serious Condition Requiring Hospital Management

      Diabetic ketoacidosis is a life-threatening condition that occurs due to absolute insulin deficiency, which is almost exclusively seen in type 1 diabetes. It carries a mortality rate of up to 5% and requires immediate hospital management.

      The accumulation of ketones in the body leads to metabolic acidosis, which is compensated for by respiratory mechanisms. Hyperkalaemia is often present at the time of presentation, but it can be resolved quickly with insulin therapy and fluid resuscitation.

      It is important to note that starting antibiotics or increasing insulin in a domiciliary setting is not appropriate for managing diabetic ketoacidosis. This condition requires prompt medical attention and close monitoring to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old lady presented 48hrs ago with a tender swelling in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old lady presented 48hrs ago with a tender swelling in her left breast. She was prescribed flucloxacillin but her symptoms have failed to settle. She had been Breastfeeding her baby for three weeks and was well until four days prior to being seen when she noted a painful swelling developing.

      On examination there was a tender, erythematous, warm area in the left breast. She has been fully compliant with her medication and an alternative diagnosis appears unlikely on clinical grounds.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue with flucloxacillin for a further 5 days before re-assessing

      Correct Answer: Breast milk should be cultured

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Lactational Mastitis

      Lactational mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women. If symptoms fail to improve after 48 hours of first-line antibiotic treatment, it is important to check that the woman has taken the antibiotic correctly and consider the possibility of an alternative diagnosis such as breast cancer or a breast abscess. If an abscess is suspected, it is important to note that malaise and fever may have subsided if antibiotics have been started.

      If an alternative diagnosis is unlikely, a sample of breast milk should be sent for microscopy, culture, and antibiotic sensitivity. A second-line antibiotic, co-amoxiclav 500/125 mg three times a day, should be prescribed for 10-14 days, with a review of this choice when breast milk culture results become available. It is important to seek specialist advice if the woman is allergic to penicillin.

      Breastfeeding should continue from both breasts if possible, with the affected breast being expressed if feeding is too uncomfortable. In the absence of culture and sensitivity results, flucloxacillin is the usual first choice, with erythromycin for those who are penicillin allergic. Recurrences are best treated with co-amoxiclav. It is worth noting that some cases progress to an obvious abscess, which should be drained.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 47-year-old patient complains of pruritic lesions on the soles of their feet...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old patient complains of pruritic lesions on the soles of their feet that have persisted for the last two months. Upon examination, small blisters are observed, accompanied by dry and cracked skin in the surrounding area. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pustular psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Pompholyx

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pompholyx Eczema

      Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.

      To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of joint pains and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of joint pains and muscle aches that have been developing over the past few months. She also reports experiencing extreme fatigue and hair loss during the same period. She has been taking omeprazole for dyspepsia recently. A blood test shows positive results for anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid antibodies (anti-dsDNA).
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Connective Tissue Disorders: Differential Diagnosis Based on Antibody Subtypes

      Connective tissue disorders can present with similar symptoms such as joint and muscle pains and fatigue. However, the specific antibody subtype can help differentiate between different conditions.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is highly associated with anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid antibodies (anti-dsDNA), which has a sensitivity of 70% and is variable based on disease activity. On the other hand, drug-induced lupus erythematosus is associated with omeprazole but rarely presents with positive anti-dsDNA antibodies.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is more likely to present with positive rheumatoid factor and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies, while scleroderma is associated with anti-centromere antibodies and anti-Scl-70.

      Sjögren syndrome, which commonly presents with dry eyes, mouth, and skin, can also cause fatigue and joint pains. However, it is more likely to be associated with positive anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies rather than anti-dsDNA antibodies.

      Therefore, understanding the specific antibody subtype can aid in the differential diagnosis of connective tissue disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 39 year-old woman reports trouble sleeping. She discloses that she experienced sexual...

    Correct

    • A 39 year-old woman reports trouble sleeping. She discloses that she experienced sexual assault 10 months ago. What symptoms are indicative of post traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer: Hypervigilance

      Explanation:

      PTSD symptoms include re-experiencing, avoidance of reminders, hypervigilance, poor concentration, exaggerated startle responses, and sleep problems. People may also have recurrent distressing images, flashbacks, nightmares, and may constantly re-think the event.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test score.
      He says he is a bit worried about his memory. He is a retired lawyer. The three questions he got wrong related to short-term memory loss.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Undertake a full assessment

      Correct Answer: Diagnose dementia

      Explanation:

      Management of Memory Loss in the Elderly

      MRCGP candidates are expected to have an understanding of the management of conditions commonly associated with old age, including memory loss. However, the correct course of management for memory loss would be to undertake a full assessment in the first instance. The abbreviated mental test is only a screening test and should not be used alone to form a diagnosis. If a significant problem is found, it is usual to refer to memory assessment services, which may be provided by a memory assessment clinic or community mental health teams. This should be the single point of referral for all people with a possible diagnosis of dementia. GPs would not normally initiate prescribing in this manner, although they may be involved in a shared care arrangement with specialist initiation and supervision of medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of recurrent loin-to-groin pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of recurrent loin-to-groin pain and frank haematuria. A CT scan of his KUB shows a renal calculus located at the left vesico-ureteric junction. What is the most accurate understanding of this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Renal calculi are usually radio-opaque

      Correct Answer: Recurrent proteus urinary tract infections (UTIs) are associated with renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Understanding Renal Calculi and Recurrent Proteus Urinary Tract Infections

      Recurrent Proteus urinary tract infections (UTIs) are often associated with renal calculi, which can be detected through persistently alkaline urine and a finding of Proteus on culture. This is because Proteus organisms produce urease, which converts urea into ammonia and alkalinizes the urine, leading to the formation of organic and inorganic compounds that contribute to calculi formation.

      The severity of symptoms related to renal calculi is directly proportional to the size of the stone. Smaller stones usually cause severe pain as they pass into the ureter, while larger stones such as staghorn calculi often remain asymptomatic in the kidney. A moving stone is usually more painful than a static stone.

      Contrary to popular belief, most symptomatic urinary calculi originate in the upper renal tract, with the location and composition varying for different types of stones. While gallstones are composed of bile salts, renal stones are usually composed of calcium, oxalate, or uric acid.

      About 75% of renal calculi are radio-opaque, meaning they can be detected through conventional KUB X-rays. However, urate and xanthine stones are radiolucent and may be too small to be detected through this method. Understanding the relationship between recurrent Proteus UTIs and renal calculi can help prompt early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      64.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old man presents with a history of thirst, polyuria and a recent...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a history of thirst, polyuria and a recent 3.2 kg (7 lb) weight loss. His urine contains a small amount of ketones.
      Which of the following features would suggest this patient is most likely to have type II rather than type I diabetes?

      Your Answer: High circulating insulin level

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Diabetes Mellitus: Clarifying the Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. However, there are still misconceptions about the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of this disease. In particular, there are several incorrect statements that need to be clarified.

      Firstly, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance and high insulin levels, not low insulin levels as in type I diabetes. Insulin resistance is a precursor to type II diabetes and is linked to a higher risk of developing heart disease. The causes of insulin resistance are both genetic and lifestyle-related.

      Secondly, HLA DR-3 is not associated with type I diabetes mellitus. Instead, this disease is linked to HLA DR-3 or DR-4.

      Thirdly, patients with type II diabetes typically have a high BMI (>25 kg/m2), not a BMI of 23 kg/m2.

      Fourthly, a plasma bicarbonate level of 8 mmol/l (normal range 24–30 mmol/l) is not commonly seen in patients with type II diabetes. While these patients may have + or ++ ketones in their urine, severe acidosis is more common in type I diabetes, with diabetic ketoacidosis being a potentially fatal complication.

      Finally, positive islet-cell antibodies are not associated with type II diabetes. Instead, type I diabetes is an autoimmune disorder characterised by the presence of autoantibodies to the islet cell, insulin or glutamic acid dehydrogenase.

      In conclusion, it is important to clarify the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of diabetes mellitus to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 40-year-old man with advanced HIV disease complains of dysphagia and odynophagia. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with advanced HIV disease complains of dysphagia and odynophagia. What could be the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal Kaposi's sarcoma

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal Candidiasis in HIV Patients

      Oesophageal candidiasis is a prevalent cause of oesophagitis in individuals with HIV. It is commonly observed in patients with a CD4 count below 100. The most common symptoms include difficulty swallowing and painful swallowing. The first-line treatments for this condition are fluconazole and itraconazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 21-year-old male has successfully made lifestyle changes to lose weight, including diet...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male has successfully made lifestyle changes to lose weight, including diet and exercise. He has lost 10kg over the past 6 months, but his BMI today still measures 33 kg/m^2. He has no other medical issues and is not taking any regular medication. He expresses concern about the potential health risks associated with his excess weight and asks if medication could aid in his weight loss.

      Which of the following options would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      - Trial an appetite suppressant such as sibutramine for 3 months and continue if effective.
      - Consider orlistat as a potential treatment option.
      - Advise against pharmacological treatment as the patient's BMI is below 35 kg/m^2.
      - Offer a referral for bariatric surgery as the patient is a strong candidate.
      - Initiate oral thyroxine (T4) to increase the patient's basal metabolic rate.

      Note: According to NICE guidelines, orlistat can be considered for patients with a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more, provided they have other risk factors such as type 2 diabetes or hypertension. Safe prescribing is a key component of the MRCGP Applied Knowledge Test (AKT).

      Your Answer: Pharmacological treatment is not advised below a BMI (body mass index) of 35 kg/m^2

      Correct Answer: You could consider orlistat

      Explanation:

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You are about to start a patient in their 70s on lisinopril for...

    Incorrect

    • You are about to start a patient in their 70s on lisinopril for hypertension. Which one of the following conditions is most likely to increase the risk of side-effects?

      Your Answer: Chronic kidney disease stage 2

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors pose a significant risk of profound hypotension in patients with aortic stenosis. However, the co-prescription of bendroflumethiazide, a weak diuretic, is commonly used and doesn’t increase the risk of hypotension as seen with high-dose loop diuretics such as furosemide 80 mg bd. Patients with chronic kidney disease stage 2, which is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate of > 60 mL/min/1.73 m², are unlikely to experience significant side effects.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      12.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (2/5) 40%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Children And Young People (1/3) 33%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/3) 33%
Mental Health (3/4) 75%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/3) 33%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/2) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Passmed