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  • Question 1 - Which of the following conditions is not screened for in the blood spot...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not screened for in the blood spot screening test for infants?

      Your Answer: Galactosaemia

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A father brings his 18-month-old son in for review. He started walking five...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 18-month-old son in for review. He started walking five months ago. The father has noticed that his son seems to be 'bow-legged' when he walks.

      Examination of the knees and hips is unremarkable with a full range of movement. Leg length is equal. On standing the intercondylar distance is around 7cm.

      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Reassure that it is a normal variant and likely to resolve by the age of 4 years

      Explanation:

      It is common for children under the age of 3 to have bow legs, which is considered a normal variation. Typically, this condition resolves on its own by the time the child reaches 4 years old.

      Common Lower Limb Variants in Children

      Parents often become concerned when they notice apparent abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This can lead to a visit to their primary care physician and a referral to secondary care. However, many of these presentations are actually normal variants that will resolve on their own.

      One common variant is flat feet, where the child’s medial arch is absent when standing. This typically resolves between the ages of 4-8 years and does not require orthotics. In-toeing is another common presentation, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. Most cases resolve spontaneously, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, is another normal variant that presents in the first or second year of life. This is characterized by an increased intercondylar distance and typically resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, presents in the third or fourth year of life and is characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This also typically resolves spontaneously.

      Overall, it is important for parents to be aware of these common lower limb variants in children and to seek medical advice if they have concerns. However, in many cases, parental reassurance and monitoring is all that is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      86.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 3-day old baby boy was delivered vaginally at full term after two...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-day old baby boy was delivered vaginally at full term after two cycles of In vitro fertilization (IVF). All antenatal scans were normal. Initially, he was feeding well, but over the past 24 hours, he has been feeding poorly, and his tummy has become larger. He has not had a bowel movement yet, and his mother has noticed multiple green/yellow vomits in the last few hours. There is no projectile vomiting. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duodenal atresia

      Correct Answer: Meconium ileus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is meconium ileus, as the baby is showing signs of abdominal distension and bilious vomiting within the first 24-48 hours of life, and has not passed any meconium. While meconium ileus is more common in children with cystic fibrosis, the baby is too young to have been diagnosed with this condition yet, as the heel prick test is normally done at day 5.

      Duodenal atresia is less likely, as it typically presents in the first few hours of life and is often detected on antenatal scans, which were normal in this case.

      Necrotizing enterocolitis is unlikely, as it typically affects preterm babies at a few weeks of life, whereas this baby was born at term and is only 2 days old.

      Posseting, which is the act of bringing up small quantities of milk without pain or discomfort, is not associated with any pathology. However, in this scenario, the baby is vomiting green/yellow fluid, which is not typical of posseting. Therefore, posseting is an incorrect answer.

      Causes and Treatments for Bilious Vomiting in Neonates

      Bilious vomiting in neonates can be caused by various disorders, including duodenal atresia, malrotation with volvulus, jejunal/ileal atresia, meconium ileus, and necrotising enterocolitis. Duodenal atresia occurs in 1 in 5000 births and is more common in babies with Down syndrome. It typically presents a few hours after birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows a double bubble sign. Treatment involves duodenoduodenostomy. Malrotation with volvulus is usually caused by incomplete rotation during embryogenesis and presents between 3-7 days after birth. An upper GI contrast study or ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment involves Ladd’s procedure. Jejunal/ileal atresia is caused by vascular insufficiency in utero and occurs in 1 in 3000 births. It presents within 24 hours of birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels. Treatment involves laparotomy with primary resection and anastomosis. Meconium ileus occurs in 15-20% of babies with cystic fibrosis and presents in the first 24-48 hours of life with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Diagnosis involves an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels, and a sweat test can confirm cystic fibrosis. Treatment involves surgical decompression, and segmental resection may be necessary for serosal damage. Necrotising enterocolitis occurs in up to 2.4 per 1000 births, with increased risks in prematurity and inter-current illness. It typically presents in the second week of life and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows dilated bowel loops, pneumatosis, and portal venous air. Treatment involves conservative and supportive measures for non-perforated cases, while laparotomy and resection are necessary for perforated cases or ongoing clinical deterioration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      72.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United...

    Correct

    • When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives with preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation. What...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives with preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation. What is the primary intervention to prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

      Your Answer: Administer dexamethasone to the mother

      Explanation:

      Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS) is a condition that primarily affects premature newborns due to a lack of surfactant. This deficiency causes an increase in alveolar surface tension, leading to reduced compliance and increased breathing effort. The production of surfactant in the fetus is aided by natural maternal glucocorticosteroids, and synthetic steroids are the first-line treatment for preventing NRDS in high-risk pregnancies. Tocolytics, which can delay preterm labor, are not typically used, but may be considered in certain cases to allow time for maternal steroids to take effect. While curosurf, continuous positive airway pressure, and extracorporeal membrane oxygenation can be effective treatments for NRDS, they are not used as preventative measures.

      Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants

      Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.

      The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.

      Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      41.9
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  • Question 6 - A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother....

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She had a runny nose for two days and has had a cough for three days. She has not been feeding as much as usual.
      On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C. Her respiratory rate is slightly raised. On auscultation of the chest, she has a widespread wheeze and crepitations. Her other observations are within normal limits.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between respiratory illnesses in children: A guide

      When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it can be difficult to determine the underlying cause. Here, we will discuss the key features of several common respiratory illnesses in children and how to differentiate between them.

      Bronchiolitis is characterized by coryzal symptoms followed by a persistent cough, tachypnea, chest recession, and wheezing or crepitations on auscultation. A low-grade fever and reduced feeding may also be present.

      Croup is a viral upper airway infection that causes a barking cough, predominantly inspiratory stridor, hoarse voice, intercostal or sternal indrawing, fever, and coryzal symptoms.

      Asthma typically presents with shortness of breath, cough, wheeze, and chest tightness, and is more common in children over two years old.

      Acute epiglottitis is an insidious but rapidly progressive airway emergency that causes fever, sore throat, odynophagia, muffled voice, dysphagia, dyspnea, respiratory distress, dysphonia, and stridor. The child may sit in a tripod position to maximize airway opening.

      A viral upper respiratory tract infection may cause coryzal symptoms, cough, and fever, but crepitations on auscultation would not be expected.

      By understanding the key features of these respiratory illnesses, healthcare providers can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      60.5
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  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old girl presented to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl presented to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history of fever, and watery diarrhoea for the previous 8 days. After initial management, she now appears well hydrated and is drinking as usual. Her observations are normal. The child's stool culture result returns positive for Salmonella spp.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in your management?

      Your Answer: Discharge home with no antibiotic treatment

      Explanation:

      Management of Salmonella Infection in Children: Discharge Home with No Antibiotic Treatment

      Salmonella infection is a common cause of gastroenteritis in children. The mainstay of treatment is oral rehydration for correction of dehydration and prevention of further fluid losses. Most children with salmonella infection do not need any specific treatment, and symptoms usually improve in a few days. Unless symptoms are severe, children with salmonella can usually be cared for at home. Infection with Salmonella spp. is a notifiable disease in the UK. Antibiotics should be considered in children with salmonella gastroenteritis who are aged < 6 months, malnourished or immunocompromised. However, in this case, the child is well hydrated and drinking as usual, and therefore, discharge home with no antibiotic treatment is the correct management approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      66.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A neonate is diagnosed with a cardiac congenital abnormality where the foetal aorta...

    Correct

    • A neonate is diagnosed with a cardiac congenital abnormality where the foetal aorta and pulmonary trunk are parallel with an absence of crossing. What medication should be initiated urgently before corrective surgery can be performed?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1

      Explanation:

      The initial management for duct dependent congenital heart disease involves maintaining the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. In neonates with transposition of the great arteries (TGA), prostaglandin E1 is given intravenously to ensure the ductus arteriosus remains open, as its closure can lead to circulatory failure and profound cyanosis. Prostaglandins work by dilating vascular smooth muscle, which maintains the patency of the ductus arteriosus. Administering prostaglandins after delivery is necessary as the prostaglandin-rich placenta is no longer present to keep the ductus arteriosus open. Adenosine is not indicated in this case, as the newborn’s issue is circulatory rather than related to cardiac electrical activity. If heart failure occurs, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be used, but prostaglandins should be the first-line treatment to prevent heart failure. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided as they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, leading to closure of the ductus arteriosus and likely death of the newborn. Prostaglandin E is the most potent type of prostaglandin responsible for maintaining ductus arteriosus patency, not prostaglandin F2.

      Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.

      The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.

      To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      153.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following statements regarding congenital inguinal hernias is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding congenital inguinal hernias is accurate?

      Your Answer: They should be managed conservatively

      Correct Answer: They are more common on the right side

      Explanation:

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      21.1
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  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old boy comes to the pediatrician's office as his parents are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy comes to the pediatrician's office as his parents are concerned about his early development. He is now a lot taller than most of his friends and he has started to develop hair around his genitalia and armpits. On examination, his penis is also large for his age however his testes remain prepubertal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this boy's precocious puberty?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic precocious puberty

      Correct Answer: Adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      When dealing with precocious puberty, it is important to examine the size of the testicles to determine the underlying cause. In cases where the testicles are small, such as in this situation, it suggests an adrenal origin of the symptoms. On the other hand, if there is bilateral testicular enlargement, it may indicate central precocious puberty caused by an astrocytoma or other brain tumor. Testotoxicosis, which is associated with a history of childhood sexual aggression, would result in advanced development in all areas. A sex cord-gonadal stromal tumor would cause unilateral enlargement of the affected testicle. Finally, an idiopathic cause of precocious puberty would lead to advanced development in all pubertal areas, resulting in enlarged testicles.

      Understanding Precocious Puberty

      Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      36.7
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Paediatrics (7/10) 70%
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