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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman with menstrual migraines presents for evaluation. She experiences a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with menstrual migraines presents for evaluation. She experiences a severe headache every month just before the onset of her period. According to NICE, what is recommended to prevent the development of these headaches?

      Your Answer: Mefanamic acid (500mg tds) on the days around the start of menstruation

      Correct Answer: Frovatriptan (2.5 mg twice a day) on the days around the start of menstruation

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.8
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of loin...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of loin pain and haematuria. The GP refers him to the Nephrology Department for further investigation. A renal ultrasound (US) shows multiple bilateral renal cysts.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-recessive fashion

      Correct Answer: Screening for it is usually delayed until an individual is an adult

      Explanation:

      Screening for autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) in family members of affected individuals is typically delayed until they reach 20 years of age due to a high false-negative rate in childhood screening. However, there is ongoing debate about the benefits of earlier screening with more reliable ultrasound scanning. Loin pain is a common presenting symptom in newly diagnosed individuals, which can occur in the abdomen, side, and lower back. ADPKD is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion, and while an autosomal-recessive form of PKD exists, it is much less common. ADPKD can also affect other organs, such as the liver and pancreas, and can lead to renal failure in many elderly individuals, with about 50% requiring dialysis or transplantation before the age of 60.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      126.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 77-year-old woman presents with a complaint of distorted vision and difficulty reading...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman presents with a complaint of distorted vision and difficulty reading with her right eye. She reports seeing straight lines as bent and her peripheral vision is unaffected. Upon fundoscopy, yellow spots are observed around the macular region.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Branch retinal vein occlusion

      Correct Answer: Macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Visual Distortion

      Age-Related Macular Degeneration: A typical history of age-related macular degeneration includes yellow spots called drusen, which are collections of lipid and protein material beneath the retinal pigment epithelium and within Bruch’s membrane.

      Cataract: Cataract causes gradual loss of acuity but not distortion of lines.

      Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion: Patients with branch retinal vein occlusion usually complain of sudden onset of blurred vision or a central visual field defect.

      Chronic Glaucoma: Chronic glaucoma, also known as primary open-angle glaucoma, causes loss of peripheral vision while sparing central vision.

      Retinal Detachment: Symptoms of retinal detachment include floaters, flashes of light, and sudden loss of an outer part of the visual field, which may be described as a curtain over part of the field of vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      112.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with cramping abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with cramping abdominal pain and profuse diarrhoea, which is sometimes bloody. He thinks it may be related to some chicken he ate 3 days ago before returning from a holiday in South East Asia. He has no other comorbidities and works in the local pub.
      On examination, his temperature is 38.0 °C. There is mild tenderness in the left iliac fossa. His observations are normal. A stool sample is positive for campylobacter.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe an antibiotic

      Explanation:

      Managing Campylobacter Infection: Antibiotics, Hydration, and Work Restrictions

      Campylobacter is a common bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease, often contracted through undercooked meat, contaminated water, or contact with infected animals. When a patient presents with symptoms such as fever, bloody diarrhea, and abdominal pain, a stool culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. According to NICE guidelines, antibiotic treatment is recommended for patients with positive stool cultures and severe symptoms. Erythromycin is the first-line choice, with alternatives including azithromycin, clarithromycin, and ciprofloxacin.

      Patients should not return to work for at least 48 hours after the last episode of diarrhea or vomiting, and longer if they work with food or in other specific settings. Hospital admission is only necessary for severe symptoms or systemic illness. Antimotility drugs are not recommended for patients with possible Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli infection, but may be useful for travelers’ diarrhea. Oral rehydration salts are important for managing symptoms and preventing dehydration. With appropriate treatment and management, most cases of Campylobacter infection will resolve within a week.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Sarah is a 65-year-old woman with hepatocellular carcinoma, currently admitted to a hospice...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 65-year-old woman with hepatocellular carcinoma, currently admitted to a hospice for end of life care. She is experiencing nausea without vomiting and would like something to help alleviate this.

      During examination, she appears jaundiced and there is a significant amount of ascites present. She is feeling bloated and has not had a bowel movement in 3 days, but is passing gas.

      What medication would be the most appropriate to address her nausea?

      Your Answer: Ondansetron

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      When it comes to palliative care, the type of antiemetic used should be based on the underlying cause of nausea. For instance, if the cause is gastric dysmotility and stasis, dopamine (D2) receptor antagonists like metoclopramide would be appropriate. On the other hand, cyclizine can be used to treat nausea that is related to movement by blocking signals from the vestibular apparatus in the middle ear that trigger the vomiting center. In John’s case, his symptoms suggest gastric stasis, and therefore, metoclopramide would be a suitable option to alleviate his symptoms.

      Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Mechanistic Approach to Prescribing

      Nausea and vomiting in palliative care can have multiple causes, but identifying the most prominent one is crucial in guiding the choice of anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In general, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting in palliative care. There are two approaches to choosing drug therapy: empirical and mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting.

      For reduced gastric motility, pro-kinetic agents such as metoclopramide and domperidone are useful. However, metoclopramide should not be used when pro-kinesis may negatively affect the gastrointestinal tract. For chemically mediated nausea and vomiting, the chemical disturbance should be corrected first. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while anticholinergics such as hyoscine can be useful. For raised Intracranial pressure, cyclizine and dexamethasone are recommended. For vestibular causes, cyclizine is the first-line treatment, while atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine or risperidone can be used in refractory cases. If anticipatory nausea is the clear cause, a short-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam can be useful.

      NICE CKS recommends that oral anti-emetics are preferable and should be used if possible. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred. The intravenous route can be used if intravenous access is already established. By using a mechanistic approach to prescribing, healthcare professionals can tailor anti-emetic therapy to the specific cause of nausea and vomiting in palliative care patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Sophie is planning a backpacking trip to South America with her 3 friends...

    Correct

    • Sophie is planning a backpacking trip to South America with her 3 friends and is concerned about the prevalence of mosquitoes in the area. She visits the clinic seeking travel vaccinations and advice. What is accurate regarding preventing mosquito bites?

      Your Answer: DEET can repel mosquitos for up to 12 hours post application

      Explanation:

      DEET is safe to use topically on infants as young as 2 months old, as well as pregnant and breastfeeding women. It effectively repels mosquitos and can prevent tick attachment for up to 12 hours after application. However, it doesn’t offer any sun protection. To ensure proper protection, it is recommended to apply sunscreen first and then apply DEET on top.

      Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      25.4
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  • Question 7 - What changes can occur in uterine fibromyomata? ...

    Incorrect

    • What changes can occur in uterine fibromyomata?

      Your Answer: Pre-menopausal spontaneous degeneration

      Correct Answer: Squamous metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Changes in Fibromyomata

      Fibromyomata, also known as uterine fibroids, are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. These growths can undergo various changes over time, including muscle and fibrous tissue undergoing hyaline change, cystic change, infarction (red degeneration), deposition of fat globules in the tumor, typically at menopause, calcium deposition, atrophy, torsion of the pedicle, infection secondary to avascular necrosis, and malignant change, becoming sarcomatous, although this is very rare, and occurs more commonly in large tumors.

      Fibromyomata tend to show increased growth when exposed to estrogen, hence they are more common in menstruating women, and tend to shrink post-menopausally, unless a woman takes HRT. Additionally, fibromyomata typically show active growth at the periphery with the center tending to show degenerative changes. It is important for women to monitor any changes in their fibromyomata and consult with their healthcare provider for appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old female presents with a purpuric rash on the back of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female presents with a purpuric rash on the back of her legs, frequent nosebleeds, and menorrhagia. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 as her only regular medication. A full blood count is ordered and the results are as follows: Hb 11.7 g/dl, platelets 62 * 109/l, WCC 5.3 * 109/l. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Drug-induced thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of ITP is suggested by the presence of isolated thrombocytopenia in a healthy patient. Blood dyscrasias are not typically caused by the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks platelets, leading to a reduction in their count. This condition is more common in older females and tends to be chronic in adults. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation. ITP is usually detected incidentally during routine blood tests.

      Diagnosis of ITP is based on a full blood count, which shows isolated thrombocytopenia, and a blood film. A bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, and antiplatelet antibody testing has poor sensitivity and doesn’t affect clinical management.

      The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, which is effective in most cases. Pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used, especially if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. IVIG raises the platelet count quicker than steroids. Splenectomy, which used to be a common treatment for ITP, is now less commonly used.

      In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), a condition known as Evan’s syndrome. In such cases, treatment may involve addressing both conditions simultaneously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      37.1
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man is undergoing a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme. He presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is undergoing a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme. He presents to a routine follow-up with his General Practitioner and states that he feels he needs a slower withdrawal regimen as he had to have a drink the night before. He is on day six of the programme and is also asking for a larger supply of medication as he lives five miles from the pharmacy and cannot drive.
      Which of the following is most in line with the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommendations on how such a programme should be carried out?

      Your Answer: Slow dose reduction until a low maintenance level is reached

      Correct Answer: No more than two days’ worth of medication to be dispensed at any one time

      Explanation:

      Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal in the Community: Recommendations and Guidelines

      To minimize the risk of overdose or supplying the drug to someone other than the intended patient, it is recommended that no more than two days’ worth of medication be dispensed at any one time. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence provides the following recommendations for assisted alcohol withdrawal in the community:

      – Use a benzodiazepine (chlordiazepoxide or diazepam) as the drug of choice.
      – Use fixed-dose medication regimens.
      – Monitor the patient every other day.
      – If possible, have a family member or carer oversee the use of medication.
      – Adjust the dose if there are signs of severe withdrawal or oversedation.
      – Gradually reduce the dose of benzodiazepine over 7-10 days to zero.
      – Do not offer clomethiazole due to a risk of overdose or it being misused.

      A symptom-triggered variable dosage regimen is preferred over a fixed-dose regimen, where doses are titrated in response to a points-based system. Detoxification should continue during incomplete abstinence, but if a patient relapses and starts drinking again during detoxification, the medication should be stopped. The standard regimen involves reducing the dose of benzodiazepine over 7-10 days, to reach zero at the end of the course. Patients on a community withdrawal program should be monitored every other day, with slow dose reduction until a low maintenance level is reached.

      Guidelines for Safe and Effective Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal in the Community

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      87.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are requested to visit a 38-year-old man with motor neurone disease at...

    Correct

    • You are requested to visit a 38-year-old man with motor neurone disease at his residence. He was hospitalized for urosepsis and has just returned home. During his hospital stay, he underwent percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy to facilitate enteral nutrition at home. What is the most probable complication of enteral feeding that he may experience?

      Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Common Problems with Enteral Feeding

      Enteral feeding, or tube feeding, can cause various gastrointestinal problems. Nausea is a common issue that can be caused by administering the feed too quickly or altered gastric emptying. Abdominal bloating and cramps can also occur for similar reasons. Constipation may be a problem, but it is unlikely that the lack of fiber in enteral feeds is the underlying cause. Diarrhea is the most common complication of enteral tube feeding, affecting up to 30% of patients on general medical and surgical wards and 68% of those on ITU. Diarrhea can be unpleasant for the patient and can worsen pressure sores and contribute to fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of fatigue and nocturia. On...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of fatigue and nocturia. On further questioning she also admits to increased thirst. She doesn't have dysuria or urgency, denies the possibility of pregnancy and has otherwise been well. Her sister was recently diagnosed with diabetes, although she is not sure which type. She has looked at the symptoms online and is worried about a possible diabetes diagnosis; she wants to know how she can distinguish between the types of diabetes.

      Her body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m².

      Which of the following tests would be best in differentiating these diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD)

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically made based on symptoms and signs of diabetic ketoacidosis, such as abdominal pain, polyuria, dehydration, and Kussmaul respiration. Diagnostic criteria include fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l. Antibody tests, such as anti-GAD and islet cell antibodies, can help distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Further investigation with C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies may be necessary in patients with atypical features or intermediate age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - You are evaluating a 79-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. He was seen...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 79-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. He was seen a few days ago with gradual onset exertional breathlessness over the last few months and a clinical diagnosis of cardiac failure was made.

      He reports reduced exercise tolerance, being easily fatigued and some mild breathlessness lying flat in bed at night. He has never smoked and aside from a 10 year history of hypertension is otherwise fit and well with no other medical problems. He takes lisinopril 10 mg OD.

      On examination he is comfortable at rest sitting in a chair with no appreciable shortness of breath. He has very subtle pitting pedal oedema and some scattered bibasal crepitations on auscultation of the chest. Heart sounds are normal. Pulse rate is 72 bpm, blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% in room air.

      On reviewing the patient today with some initial investigations you can see that his chest x ray has been reported as 'cardiothoracic ratio is at the upper limit of normal with clear lung fields' and his ECG shows sinus rhythm with no evidence of previous myocardial infarction and no left ventricular hypertrophy or bundle branch block.

      His blood tests show a 'raised' brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 900 ng/l.

      What is the next step in your management?

      Your Answer: Referral for specialist assessment not needed, initiate treatment for heart failure in primary care

      Explanation:

      The Importance of SNP Measurement in Suspected Heart Failure

      Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N terminal-pro-BNP (NT-proBNP) are peptide hormones produced in the heart that can help diagnose heart failure. Elevated levels of these hormones in the blood are indicative of cardiac failure and tend to correlate with the severity of the condition.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that SNP measurement be performed in patients with suspected heart failure to determine which patients should be referred for specialist assessment and echocardiography. It is important to note that the units used to measure SNP levels may vary between labs, so it is crucial to consider the units when interpreting the results.

      If a patient has a raised BNP level, they should be referred for assessment within six weeks. However, if a patient presents with signs and symptoms of heart failure and has previously had a myocardial infarction, SNP measurement may not be necessary, and they should be referred directly for assessment within two weeks.

      In summary, SNP measurement is a valuable tool in diagnosing heart failure and can help determine the appropriate course of action for patients with suspected cardiac failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      135.4
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  • Question 13 - You are evaluating a 45-year-old man who presents with erectile dysfunction (ED) that...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 45-year-old man who presents with erectile dysfunction (ED) that has been gradually worsening over the past 2 years, leading to relationship issues with his partner. He has no significant medical history and is generally healthy.

      Upon examination, his cardiovascular system appears normal, and his blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. His BMI is within the normal range, and his genitalia examination is unremarkable.

      You decide to order some blood tests, including HbA1c and lipid levels. What other blood test(s) should be included in this initial screening?

      Your Answer: Testosterone level

      Explanation:

      According to experts, it is important to screen men with erectile dysfunction for underlying conditions such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and hypogonadism. This can help identify opportunities for intervention and lifestyle modifications to improve both erectile dysfunction and cardiovascular health. A glucose and lipid profile should be conducted for all men with new onset erectile dysfunction due to the strong association with CVD and diabetes. Additionally, a testosterone level should be checked for all men with erectile dysfunction to screen for hypogonadism. The British Society for Sexual Medicine recommends testosterone screening as testosterone deficiency can negatively impact phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor efficacy and is reversible. Men with consistently low total serum testosterone levels may benefit from a trial of testosterone replacement therapy for up to 6 months. If free testosterone is low or borderline, repeat testing and measurement of FSH, LH, and prolactin levels should be considered. A PSA is recommended for men with an abnormal digital rectal examination or those over 50 years old who are at greater risk of prostate cancer or considering testosterone replacement. Cortisol and thyroid function tests are not recommended unless there are symptoms of thyroid, Cushing’s, or Addison’s disease.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 14 - A 59-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to discuss his medication for hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to discuss his medication for hypertension. He is currently taking ramipril 10 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and immediate-release indapamide 1.5 mg daily. Despite tolerating this treatment without any side-effects, his clinic blood pressure remains high at an average of 155/100 mmHg. The patient has no adverse lifestyle factors and a family history of hypertension and stroke. Secondary causes for hypertension have been ruled out, and routine blood tests including renal function, electrolytes, lipids, and glucose are all normal. His serum potassium level is 4.7 mmol/l (normal range 3.5-5.5 mmol/l). What is the most appropriate modification to this patient's treatment?

      Your Answer: Add spironolactone 25 mg daily

      Correct Answer: Increase indapamide to 2.5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for resistant hypertension

      Resistant hypertension can be a challenging condition to manage, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines to help healthcare professionals make informed decisions. In step 4 of the guidelines, NICE recommends a combination of ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and diuretic therapy, with the addition of further diuretic or alpha or beta blocker if necessary.

      If further diuretic therapy is required, NICE suggests a higher-dose thiazide-like diuretic or spironolactone, depending on the patient’s serum potassium level. However, if spironolactone is not licensed for use or not tolerated, increasing the dose of indapamide is a suitable alternative. It’s important to note that the maximum dose of modified-release indapamide is 1.5mg daily.

      If further diuretic therapy is not tolerated or contraindicated, NICE recommends considering an alpha or beta blocker. In cases of resistant hypertension, seeking expert advice may also be beneficial. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide effective treatment options for patients with resistant hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old man was prescribed fluoxetine for a depressive illness related to a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man was prescribed fluoxetine for a depressive illness related to a recent breakup. You receive a call one week later from his family, stating that he has become very ill after increasing his dose without medical advice. Upon visiting him, you observe that he is confused, sweating profusely, and has a fever of 39.5°C. He is experiencing tremors and myoclonus, but no other physical symptoms. He denies taking any other medications or substances. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome and Related Drug Reactions

      Serotonin syndrome is a serious drug reaction that can occur due to therapeutic drug use, drug interactions, overdose, or recreational drug use. It is caused by excessive activity at serotonin receptors in the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. Symptoms typically appear within six hours of taking the provoking drug and may include tremors, restlessness, diarrhea, agitation, hypervigilance, and acute delirium.

      The syndrome can cause a triad of abnormalities, including cognitive effects like headache and hallucinations, autonomic effects like sweating and nausea, and somatic effects like muscle twitching and tremors. While it is uncommon, the incidence is unclear due to underdiagnosis.

      The most important step in treating serotonin syndrome is to remove the offending agent or interacting drugs. Supportive measures like IV fluids and benzodiazepines may also be used. Mild cases usually resolve within 24 hours, while severe cases may require intensive care.

      Fluoxetine overdoses are typically minimally toxic, but cardiac conduction abnormalities and fatalities have been reported in cases involving co-ingested drugs or other factors. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs that causes fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. Tardive dyskinesia, characterized by oral grimaces and choreoathetoid movements, is caused mainly by antipsychotic drugs and may resolve when the drug is stopped.

      Overall, understanding these drug reactions and their symptoms is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Her full blood count and liver function tests are being monitored. What other aspects of her treatment should be monitored?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Hypertension can be a possible side effect of taking leflunomide.

      Leflunomide: A DMARD for Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Leflunomide is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage rheumatoid arthritis. It is important to note that this medication has a very long half-life, which means that its teratogenic potential should be taken into consideration. As such, it is contraindicated in pregnant women, and effective contraception is essential during treatment and for at least two years after treatment in women, and at least three months after treatment in men. Caution should also be exercised in patients with pre-existing lung and liver disease.

      Like any medication, leflunomide can cause adverse effects. Some of the most common side effects include gastrointestinal issues such as diarrhea, hypertension, weight loss or anorexia, peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and pneumonitis. To monitor for any potential complications, patients taking leflunomide should have their full blood count (FBC), liver function tests (LFT), and blood pressure checked regularly.

      If a patient needs to stop taking leflunomide, it is important to note that the medication has a very long wash-out period of up to a year. To help speed up the process, co-administration of cholestyramine may be necessary. Overall, leflunomide can be an effective treatment option for rheumatoid arthritis, but it is important to carefully consider its potential risks and benefits before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman with a significant family history of diabetes is currently 30...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a significant family history of diabetes is currently 30 weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy.

      Upon completing the oral glucose tolerance test, she has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes, with a fasting glucose level of 7.3mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 9.2mmol/L.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      Immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis. Glibenclamide may be considered for women who cannot tolerate metformin or do not achieve glucose targets with metformin but decline insulin therapy. If the fasting plasma glucose level is less than 7 mmol/L, lifestyle interventions such as a low glycemic index diet and exercise should be attempted first. If glucose targets are not achieved within 1-2 weeks of lifestyle measures, metformin may be initiated.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old professional footballer collapses while playing football.

    He is rushed to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old professional footballer collapses while playing football.

      He is rushed to the Emergency department, and is found to be in ventricular tachycardia. He is defibrillated successfully and his 12 lead ECG following resuscitation demonstrates left ventricular hypertrophy. Ventricular tachycardia recurs and despite prolonged resuscitation he dies.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy and its ECG Findings

      The sudden onset of arrhythmia in a young and previously healthy individual is often indicative of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). It is important to screen relatives for this condition. The majority of patients with HCM have an abnormal resting ECG, which may show nonspecific changes such as left ventricular hypertrophy, ST changes, and T-wave inversion. Other possible ECG findings include right or left axis deviation, conduction abnormalities, sinus bradycardia with ectopic atrial rhythm, and atrial enlargement.

      Ambulatory ECG monitoring can reveal atrial and ventricular ectopics, sinus pauses, intermittent or variable atrioventricular block, and non-sustained arrhythmias. However, the ECG findings do not necessarily correlate with prognosis. Arrhythmias associated with HCM can include premature ventricular complexes, non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is also a common complication, occurring in approximately 20% of cases and increasing the risk of fatal cardiac failure.

      It is important to note that there is no history to suggest drug abuse, and aortic stenosis is rare in the absence of congenital or rheumatic heart disease. A myocardial infarction or massive pulmonary embolism would have distinct ECG changes that are not typically seen in HCM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old man who is injecting heroin and abusing alcohol requests detoxification.
    Which treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man who is injecting heroin and abusing alcohol requests detoxification.
      Which treatment option should the patient be offered?

      Your Answer: Detoxification on a 12-week harm-reduction regime

      Correct Answer: Stabilisation on methadone or buprenorphine before detoxification is attempted

      Explanation:

      Detoxification from Opioid Addiction: Best Practices and Considerations

      Detoxification from opioid addiction is a complex process that requires careful planning and monitoring. Stabilisation on methadone or buprenorphine is recommended before attempting detoxification. Both drugs are approved by The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for substitute prescribing, for both detoxification and maintenance to prevent opioid withdrawal symptoms.

      Patients may prefer a faster reduction at the start of a detoxification regimen, but a slower reduction over months or even years is also possible. It is important for patients to stay on their optimal dose of methadone until they have stopped using heroin completely and then reduce the dose at their own pace.

      Alcohol detoxification can occur simultaneously with heroin detoxification, but careful monitoring and support are crucial. Patients should be aware of the loss of opioid tolerance during and following detoxification, which increases the risk of overdose and death from any illicit drug use, especially when combined with alcohol or benzodiazepines.

      Detoxification with buprenorphine is also an option, and if the patient has been on methadone or buprenorphine for maintenance, detoxification should usually be undertaken using the same drug.

      There are no set time limits for a detoxification regimen, but a common regime is to come off methadone over 12 weeks with a reduction of around 5 mg every 1-2 weeks. Detoxification can be done as an inpatient or outpatient, depending on the patient’s needs and preferences. Community-based organisations often administer these types of substance abuse programmes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old patient is being evaluated post-hospitalization for chest pain and has been...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old patient is being evaluated post-hospitalization for chest pain and has been prescribed standard release isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN) for ongoing angina. The medication instructions indicate taking it twice daily, but with an 8-hour interval between doses. What is the rationale behind this uneven dosing schedule?

      Your Answer: Prevent nitrate tolerance

      Explanation:

      To prevent nitrate tolerance, it is recommended to use asymmetric dosing regimens for standard-release ISMN when taken regularly for angina relief. This involves taking the medication twice daily, with an 8-hour gap in between to create a nitrate-free period. It is important to note that nitrates only provide relief for angina symptoms and do not improve cardiovascular outcomes. While asymmetric dosing doesn’t affect the efficacy of nitrates, it can prevent tolerance from developing. However, patients should still be aware of potential adverse effects such as dizziness and headaches, which can occur even with asymmetric dosing. Proper counseling on these side effects can help prevent falls and discomfort.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You see a 26-year-old patient who is wondering about the duration of her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 26-year-old patient who is wondering about the duration of her Kyleena® coil for contraception. She currently has the 19.5mg levonorgestrel (LNG) IUS which was inserted 20 months ago.

      What is the licensed duration of the Kyleena® coil for contraception in this patient's case?

      Your Answer: 3 years

      Correct Answer: 5 years

      Explanation:

      The Kyleena intrauterine system (IUS) is approved for use as a contraceptive for a period of 5 years. It contains 19.5mg of levonorgestrel (LNG) and is a relatively new option in the UK. Compared to the Mirena IUS, it has a smaller frame and insertion tube. The Mirena IUS, which contains 52mg of LNG, is also approved for 5 years of use as a contraceptive. The Jaydess IUS, which contains 13.5mg of LNG, is approved for 3 years of use. Copper coils typically have a contraceptive license for a period of 5 years or less.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is a true statement about mumps infection? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about mumps infection?

      Your Answer: Sterility commonly follows orchitis

      Explanation:

      Mumps: Symptoms and Complications

      Mumps is a viral infection that has an incubation period of 14-21 days. It can affect any of the salivary glands, but sometimes only one gland is affected. In rare cases, mumps can cause meningoencephalitis, which is inflammation of the brain and its surrounding tissues.

      One of the common complications of mumps is orchitis, which is inflammation of the testicles. This occurs in around 25% of cases and can cause pain, swelling, and fever. However, sterility is a relatively uncommon complication following orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      278.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of urgency of urine and urinary incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of urgency of urine and urinary incontinence. He denies any voiding symptoms or post-micturition symptoms. There is no evidence of haematuria.

      On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender with no evidence of a distended bladder and his prostate feels normal. Blood tests for renal function, fasting glucose and PSA were all normal. Urinalysis is also reported as normal as well as MSU.

      He was sent for bladder training which didn't help his symptoms and tolterodine and darifenacin haven't helped his symptoms. He became confused with oxybutynin.

      Which of the following options would you offer next?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Correct Answer: Refer to urology

      Explanation:

      Management of Overactive Bladder in Frail Older Men

      When dealing with an overactive bladder in frail older men, it is important to rule out other diagnoses and try bladder training before considering medication. Oxybutynin is not recommended due to potential risks, while solifenacin is unlikely to work. Duloxetine is not recommended for overactive bladder in men, but may be used for stress incontinence in women. Desmopressin has no role in overactive bladder in men. Urology referral may be an option, but mirabegron can be used prior to referral and its effectiveness can be reviewed at 4-6 weeks. It is important to note that mirabegron is a ‘black triangle’ drug and is subject to intensive post-marketing safety surveillance. For more information on managing overactive bladder in men, visit the link provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      2153.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 31-year-old woman who confesses to occasional drug use in the past 5...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman who confesses to occasional drug use in the past 5 months visits her primary care physician complaining of jaundice. Her screening blood tests show a hepatocellular pattern with a significant increase in transaminases. The following are her antibody results:
      HBsAg +
      HBeAg -
      Anti-HBcAb +
      Anti-HBeAb +
      HCV RNA +
      What is the most probable reason for her jaundice?

      Your Answer: Acute hepatitis B infection

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hepatitis B Infection

      Explanation: The patient’s symptoms suggest that she is in the final stages of acute hepatitis B infection, with jaundice still present. Although hepatitis C infection was detected, it is usually asymptomatic until later stages of the disease. The absence of HBeAg indicates that the infection is a few months old. The presence of both anti-HBc and anti-HBe antibodies supports the diagnosis of acute hepatitis B infection. Anti-HBs antibodies, which appear around 3 months after acute infection and persist, are the last antibodies to appear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 12-year-old girl is brought in for an urgent appointment with her mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is brought in for an urgent appointment with her mother. She has been experiencing a sore throat, fever, malaise, and headache for the past two days. Yesterday, she complained of pain in her right ear, which has now spread to both ears. She has difficulty eating and drinking due to discomfort.
      During the examination, bilateral swelling is observed, which is obstructing the angle of the jaw on both sides. When attempting to open her mouth to examine her throat, she experiences discomfort.
      The patient has no significant medical history, and her mother is unsure if she has received all of her scheduled vaccinations.
      What is the incubation period for this infection?

      Your Answer: 28-35 days

      Correct Answer: 14-21 days

      Explanation:

      Mumps: Symptoms, Complications, and Incubation Period

      Mumps is a viral infection that has an incubation period of 14-21 days. The patient typically experiences a nonspecific prodrome of sore throat, fever, malaise, and headache, which eventually leads to inflammation of the parotid gland. Fortunately, symptomatic treatment is usually sufficient, and the illness resolves within one to two weeks.

      However, mumps can lead to serious complications, with meningoencephalitis occurring in 10% of patients with parotitis, and orchitis occurring in 25% of postpubertal males affected by mumps. In about 15% of those affected by orchitis, it is bilateral.

      It’s worth noting that the incubation period for mumps may vary slightly depending on the reference source. However, the correct answer should always fall within a reasonable range, so don’t be too concerned if the limits of the reference range differ slightly from what you may have read elsewhere.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of feeling easily fatigued. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of feeling easily fatigued. Upon further inquiry, it is discovered that she experiences double vision towards the end of the day and that her level of tiredness increases with physical activity. During the examination, she reports that her hands feel exhausted after repeatedly opening and closing them for 5 minutes. What is the most conclusive test for diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis is a condition that affects a significant number of patients and is often associated with the presence of Antimuscarinic antibodies. Thymomas are typically linked to the presence of anti-striational receptor antibodies. While MRI scanning is important in ruling out other potential causes of symptoms, it is not a diagnostic tool. Lumbar puncture is not useful in diagnosing myasthenia gravis, but it can help eliminate infection as a potential cause when there is a mixed clinical presentation.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 75-year-old woman comes to you with an itchy rash on both hands,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman comes to you with an itchy rash on both hands, anterior aspects of both elbows, axillae and groins. Other residents in her nursing home have reported experiencing similar symptoms.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bullous pemphigus

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Scabies, Henoch-Schönlein Purpura, Psoriasis, Pemphigus Vulgaris, and Bullous Pemphigoid

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, resulting in a pruritic eruption with a characteristic distribution pattern. Permethrin-containing lotions are the treatment. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a form of vasculitis, while psoriasis is characterized by plaques over extensor surfaces. Pemphigus vulgaris may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions, and bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication. It is important to consider the specific symptoms and distribution patterns of each condition to accurately diagnose and treat them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She has been experiencing occasional itchy rashes. He decided to eliminate all nuts from her diet and the rashes have disappeared. However, she recently had an episode of vomiting, so he also removed milk from her diet. He has been giving her antihistamines regularly. He is curious if she can undergo a blood test for allergies.

      What is the most suitable advice you can provide him?

      Your Answer: It cannot be used if a patient is taking antihistamines

      Correct Answer: It is indicated for a child who has a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts

      Explanation:

      Understanding IgE Immunoassay Testing for Peanut Allergies

      IgE immunoassay testing is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate hypersensitivity to various allergens, including peanuts. This test is particularly useful for children who have a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts. IgE produced by B cells in response to specific antigens binds to receptors on mast cells, triggering an immediate (type I) response that can lead to anaphylaxis, urticaria, bronchospasm, and other symptoms.

      Compared to skin-prick testing, IgE immunoassay testing is more sensitive and doesn’t carry the risk of anaphylaxis. However, it can give false-negative results in patients who have true IgE-mediated disease, as confirmed by skin testing or allergen challenge. Therefore, it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes.

      A positive IgE immunoassay test indicates past sensitization to an allergen, but it doesn’t necessarily mean that the patient has clinically relevant disease. Some patients may show positive results but no symptoms associated with that allergen. Therefore, the history is more important in making a diagnosis.

      It is important to note that IgE immunoassay testing cannot be used if a patient is taking antihistamines. However, it is a useful diagnostic tool for patients on long-term corticosteroids, although data are conflicting.

      In summary, IgE immunoassay testing is a valuable diagnostic tool for peanut allergies, but it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes. A positive test supports the diagnosis of peanut allergy, but the history is more important.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the primary purpose of checking the urea and electrolytes before initiating...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary purpose of checking the urea and electrolytes before initiating amiodarone therapy in a patient?

      Your Answer: To detect hyponatraemia

      Correct Answer: To detect hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The risk of arrhythmias can be increased by all antiarrhythmic drugs, especially when hypokalaemia is present.

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which one of the following statements regarding the electronic fit note (eMed) is...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the electronic fit note (eMed) is accurate?

      Your Answer: Following patient consent a copy of the note is sent electronically to the employer

      Correct Answer: A printed copy of the electronic fit note is handed to the patient

      Explanation:

      The eMed Initiative: Electronic Fit Notes

      The eMed initiative is a project by the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) aimed at replacing handwritten fit notes with electronically printed ones. This new system will be integrated into existing electronic record systems, such as EMIS, and stored alongside the patient’s record. The printed note will be given to the patient, who will use it in the same way as a handwritten note.

      It is important to note that the electronic fit note will not be sent electronically to the employer, patient, or DWP. However, the DWP plans to collect anonymous data on sick notes in the future to inform policy development.

      Despite the introduction of the eMed initiative, GPs will still be able to issue handwritten notes during home visits. Hospital doctors will also not be switching to the new system. The eMed initiative is a step towards modernizing the healthcare system and improving efficiency in the issuance of fit notes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      32.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/3) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/2) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/3) 33%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Older Adults (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (2/3) 67%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/2) 50%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Passmed