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  • Question 1 - A 59-year-old construction worker presents to the Emergency department after a workplace accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old construction worker presents to the Emergency department after a workplace accident. He fell from a ladder and sustained a deep wound on his forearm from a rusty nail.
      Upon examination, the wound appears to be severely contaminated. After obtaining an x-ray to rule out any foreign objects, what is the most effective cleaning agent to use for this wound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sterile 0.9% saline

      Explanation:

      There is no evidence that one cleaning agent is superior for wounds, but alcohol-based agents should be avoided. Hydrogen peroxide is not recommended. Tap water, sterile saline, aqueous chlorhexidine, and weak povidone-iodine solutions are commonly used. Contaminated wounds require thorough cleaning and debridement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 2 - You are asked to assess a 75-year-old man who has a medical history...

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    • You are asked to assess a 75-year-old man who has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and congestive heart failure. He has come to the hospital with worsening paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea and three pillow orthopnea, and is currently experiencing acute shortness of breath.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 120 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. The nurse has ordered a chest x-ray for the patient.

      Which of the following findings would be inconsistent with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Globular heart

      Explanation:

      Radiographic Signs of Congestive Cardiac Failure

      Congestive cardiac failure is a common reason for hospital admission, and it is important for all clinicians to be familiar with its presentation. One of the initial investigations is a chest radiograph, which can reveal various signs depending on the severity and acuteness of the condition.

      The earliest radiographic sign of congestive cardiac failure is the appearance of Kerley B lines, which indicate interstitial oedema and are typically found in the middle and lower zones of the lungs. Kerley A lines, on the other hand, are seen in the upper zones. As the condition progresses, alveolar oedema becomes more prominent and is distributed in a bat’s wing pattern around the hilar region. This leads to significant V/Q mismatch in the lower zones, causing upper lobe blood diversion to improve oxygenation.

      Bilateral pleural effusions, which are transudative in nature, are a common finding in congestive cardiac failure. In the long term, cardiomegaly may occur as a compensatory mechanism, but a globular heart is not typically associated with this condition. A globular heart is usually due to a pericardial effusion.

      In summary, the radiographic signs of congestive cardiac failure is crucial for clinicians in order to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old male presents with haematemesis and melaena.

    His initial blood pressure is...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents with haematemesis and melaena.

      His initial blood pressure is 80/46 mmHg, and his heart rate is 114 bpm. He has a history of idiopathic cirrhosis and mild encephalopathy.

      You begin resuscitation with colloid, blood, FFP, and dextrose.

      What is the most suitable next medical intervention while waiting for an OGD to be arranged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Gastrointestinal Bleed

      Terlipressin is a medication that causes constriction of blood vessels in the splanchnic region, which can help to control bleeding from varices, a common cause of gastrointestinal bleeding. In cases of acute gastrointestinal bleeding, glypressin is the preferred treatment to help with cardiovascular resuscitation. Beta-blockers may be used later on to manage portal hypertension on a chronic basis. Lactulose is another medication that may be considered to prevent the progression of encephalopathy.

      While an OGD (oesophagogastroduodenoscopy) may be necessary to diagnose the cause of the bleeding, it is important to first focus on resuscitation and medical management. In cases where ascites is present, ciprofloxacin may be used as a prophylactic measure against spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. However, this is considered a secondary concern in the context of acute gastrointestinal bleeding. By prioritizing the appropriate treatments and interventions, healthcare providers can help to manage this potentially life-threatening condition.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old law student presents with visual loss in the right eye, accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old law student presents with visual loss in the right eye, accompanied by a constant headache for the past three months. She also reports not having had her menstrual cycle for six months. Upon examination, her visual acuity in the affected eye is 6/24, with slight constriction of both temporal visual fields. However, there are no other neurological deficits present. The patient is stable, without fever or hemodynamic abnormalities. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Pituitary Lesion and Visual Pathway Involvement

      This patient is presenting with symptoms of headache and amenorrhoea, which are suggestive of a pituitary lesion. The lesion could either be a prolactinoma or a non-functioning tumour. Unfortunately, the involvement of the visual pathway has led to visual loss, which has further complicated the situation.

      To determine the extent of the pituitary lesion, the patient needs to undergo an urgent assessment of her pituitary function. Additionally, an MRI scan of the pituitary gland is necessary to determine the extent of the lesion. One of the most important investigations to perform would be a serum prolactin test.

      It is unlikely that the patient is suffering from retrobulbar neuritis associated with MS, as the amenorrhoea would argue against this. Similarly, the peripheral visual field constriction would be unusual, as a central scotoma and fluctuating visual loss would be more typical.

      In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms suggest a pituitary lesion, which has been complicated by involvement of the visual pathway. Urgent assessment and imaging are necessary to determine the extent of the lesion and appropriate treatment.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while engaging in sexual activity. He reports no focal neurological symptoms but complains of neck stiffness. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT head scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

      When a patient is suspected of having subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), the initial diagnostic test should be a computerised tomography (CT) head scan. This test can identify over 93% of SAH cases within 24 hours. However, if the CT scan is normal or inconclusive and there is still a high clinical suspicion of SAH, a lumbar puncture should be performed.

      During the lumbar puncture, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is collected in four tubes and the red blood cell (RBC) count is determined in tubes one and four. If the RBC count does not decrease between these tubes and there is an elevated opening pressure, along with the development of xanthochromia (which may take up to 12 hours from the onset of headache), SAH is suggested. It is important to note that a Glasgow coma scale score of 15 does not rule out SAH.

      While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be a useful diagnostic tool, it takes too long to arrange and CT head scans are an excellent first line investigation for SAH. Early diagnosis and treatment of SAH is crucial for improving patient outcomes.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old accountant presents to the Emergency department with a sudden and severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old accountant presents to the Emergency department with a sudden and severe headache that started six hours ago. She also reports feeling nauseous and has vomited three times. Upon examination, she has neck stiffness and photophobia, but her GCS is 15 and she has no fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Severe Headaches: Subarachnoid Hemorrhage and Differential Diagnosis

      The sudden onset of a severe headache is a strong indication of subarachnoid hemorrhage, which can be confirmed through a head CT scan. If the scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should be performed to check for red blood cells and xanthochromia. Bacterial meningitis is also a possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with other symptoms of sepsis such as fever. Migraines, on the other hand, are usually preceded by an aura and visual disturbances, and are often associated with prior history and risk factors. Sinusitis and cluster headaches are not suggested by the patient’s history.

      Overall, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses when evaluating severe headaches, as prompt and accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to his right thumb. On examination, there is a 1.5 cm laceration on the ulnar aspect of the thumb. The neurovascular supply is intact, and there is no evidence of injury to other structures. What is the suitable local anaesthetic to use for exploring the wound and suturing the laceration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lidocaine 1% - 20 ml

      Explanation:

      Anaesthetics for Wound Management in the Emergency Department

      For wound management in the Emergency department, 1% lidocaine is the most commonly used anaesthetic for cleaning, exploring, and suturing wounds. However, adrenaline should not be used in areas supplied by end arteries, such as fingers and toes.

      The maximum dose of plain lidocaine in a healthy adult is 3 mg/kg or 200 mg (20 ml of 1%). It is important to note that 1% lidocaine is equivalent to 10 mg/ml. On the other hand, if lidocaine with adrenaline is used, the maximum dose is 7 mg/kg or 500 mg (50 ml of 1%). The duration of action for plain lidocaine is 30-60 minutes, while lidocaine with adrenaline lasts approximately 90 minutes.

      Another topical anaesthetic that can be used is ethyl chloride, which is sprayed onto the skin and causes rapid cooling. However, it is very short-acting and lasts less than 60 seconds, making it inadequate for providing sufficient analgesia in most cases.

      In summary, the choice of anaesthetic for wound management in the Emergency department depends on the location and severity of the wound, as well as the patient’s overall health. It is important to follow the recommended maximum doses and duration of action to ensure safe and effective pain management.

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  • Question 8 - A 14-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He has a two day history of general malaise, vomiting and vague abdominal discomfort. Over the past twelve hours he has become increasingly drowsy.

      On examination, he was unresponsive to verbal commands. His temperature was 36.5°C and his blood pressure was 74/48 mmHg. The following investigations were done:

      - Sodium: 121 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium: 6.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 11.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 162 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Glucose: 1.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - Chloride: 91 mmol/L (95-107)
      - Bicarbonate: 14 mmol/L (20-28)

      After giving emergency treatment, what single investigation would be most valuable in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetracosactrin (Synacthen) test

      Explanation:

      Addisonian Crisis and Diagnosis with Synacthen Test

      The patient is experiencing an Addisonian crisis, which is a life-threatening condition caused by a severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone hormones. To confirm the diagnosis of Addison’s disease, a Synacthen test is performed. This test involves injecting a synthetic hormone called Synacthen, which stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol. Blood samples are taken before and after the injection to measure the levels of cortisol in the blood. If the adrenal glands are functioning properly, the cortisol levels will increase significantly after the injection. However, if the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, the levels will remain low. The Synacthen test is a reliable and accurate way to diagnose Addison’s disease and determine the appropriate treatment plan. It is important to diagnose and treat Addison’s disease promptly to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 9 - The following arterial blood gases (ABGs) were taken from an unconscious 50-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • The following arterial blood gases (ABGs) were taken from an unconscious 50-year-old woman in the Emergency department on FiO2 of 21%:
      pH 7.36 (7.36-7.44)
      pO2 13.0 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      pCO2 3.7 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      HCO3− 15 mmol/L (20-28)

      What is the correct interpretation of the ABG result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compensated metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of ABG Results

      The pH and bicarbonate levels in the ABG results indicate the presence of acidosis. However, the low level of carbon dioxide suggests that it is more likely to be metabolic acidosis rather than respiratory acidosis. The body tries to compensate for the acidosis by increasing the respiratory rate, which helps to eliminate excess hydrogen ions as carbon dioxide. This compensation can also lead to high oxygen levels due to deep and rapid breathing. However, it is important to note that high oxygen levels may also be a result of oxygen therapy provided in the Emergency department. It is worth mentioning that delayed analysis of ABG samples can sometimes lead to inaccurate results, such as a falsely low pO2. However, there is no indication that this has occurred in this particular case.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She recently returned from a trip to Italy with her family. She has no significant medical history but takes oral contraceptives. On examination, her pulse is 100 bpm, temperature is 37°C, oxygen saturation is 95%, respiratory rate is 28/min, and blood pressure is 116/76 mmHg. Chest examination is unremarkable and chest x-ray is normal. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CTPA scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Pulmonary Embolism in a Woman with Chest Pain and Dyspnoea

      This woman is experiencing chest pain and difficulty breathing, with a rapid heart rate and breathing rate. However, there are no visible signs on chest examination and her chest x-ray appears normal. Despite having no fever, her oxygen levels are lower than expected for a healthy person. To rule out a pulmonary embolism, doctors must consider risk factors such as recent air travel and use of oral contraceptives.

      The gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism is a CT pulmonary angiogram, as it can detect even large saddle emboli near the pulmonary arteries. While VQ scanning was previously used, it can miss these larger emboli. Additionally, doctors may perform Doppler ultrasounds of the venous system to check for deep vein thrombosis.

      This presentation is not indicative of atypical pneumonia, such as Legionella, as the patient’s temperature would be expected to be high and chest signs would be present. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a pulmonary embolism in a patient with chest pain and dyspnoea.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a 24-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a 24-hour history of epigastric pain that radiates to his back and vomiting. The doctors diagnose him with pancreatitis after his serum amylase levels come back at 2000. They also run some additional blood tests and find the following results:

      - WCC: 22 ×109/L (Neutrophils: 17.2)
      - Hb: 155 g/L
      - Urea: 18.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 105 μmol/L
      - AST: 250 IU
      - LDH: 654 IU
      - Calcium: 2.3 mmol/L
      - Albumin: 38 g/L
      - Glucose: 7.5 mmol/L
      - PaO2: 9.9 KPa

      What is the Modified Glasgow score for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Glasgow Score as a Predictor of Pancreatitis Severity

      The Glasgow score is a tool used to predict the severity of pancreatitis. It is based on several factors, which can be remembered using the mnemonic PANCREAS. These factors include low PaO2 levels, age over 55 years, high neutrophil count, low calcium levels, impaired renal function, elevated enzymes such as AST and LDH, low albumin levels, and high blood sugar levels. Each factor is assigned a certain number of points, and the total score can help determine the severity of the pancreatitis.

      For example, a patient who is over 55 years old, has high neutrophil count, impaired renal function, and elevated enzymes would score a total of 4 points. The higher the score, the more severe the pancreatitis is likely to be. UK guidelines recommend that a severity score be calculated for every patient with acute pancreatitis to help guide their management and treatment.

      In summary, the Glasgow score is a useful tool for predicting the severity of pancreatitis based on several factors. By calculating a patient’s score, healthcare providers can better manage and treat their condition.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 12 - A 57-year-old man who has been physically active throughout his life experiences a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man who has been physically active throughout his life experiences a sudden onset of severe chest pain that spreads to his back, causing him to lose consciousness within minutes. He has a medical history of hypertension, but a recent treadmill test showed no signs of cardiac disease. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tear in the aortic intima

      Explanation:

      Aortic Dissection: A Probable Cause of Sudden Collapse with Acute Chest Pain

      The given history suggests that aortic dissection is the most probable cause of sudden collapse with acute chest pain radiating to the back. Although other conditions may also lead to sudden collapse, they do not typically present with acute chest pain radiating to the back in the presence of a recent normal exercise test. While acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a possible cause, it is not the most likely in this scenario.

      References such as BMJ Best Practice, BMJ Clinical Review, and eMedicine support the diagnosis and management of aortic dissection. Therefore, it is crucial to consider this condition as a potential cause of sudden collapse with acute chest pain and seek immediate medical attention. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis and prevent life-threatening complications.

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  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B through blood tests....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B through blood tests. The doctor explains that the patient is highly contagious and at a greater risk of long-term disease. Which of the following blood results is most likely to be seen in this patient?
      HbSAg Anti-HBs IgM anti-HBc IgG anti-HBc HBeAg Anti-HBe
      A + - + + + -
      B - + - + - +
      C + - - + + -
      D + - - + - +
      E - + - - - -

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Infection and Immunity

      The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the host cells, whether it is a chronic or acute infection. All patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are markers of acute infection and disappear in chronic infection, while IgG antibodies to the core antigen remain present even after the infection has been cleared. Vaccinated individuals develop antibodies to the surface antigen, which confers natural immunity after the infection has cleared.

      If HBsAg persists for more than six months, the patient is a chronic carrier. HBeAg is a marker of virus replication, and HBeAg-positive carriers are highly infectious. However, over time, the HBeAg can be lost from the blood, and anti-HBe can be detected. These carriers are much less infectious.

      In summary, acute HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgM antibodies, while cleared HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgG antibodies. Chronic HBV infection can be high or low in infectivity, depending on the presence of HBeAg or anti-HBe. Finally, individuals who respond to the HBV vaccine develop immunity to the virus. these markers and their implications can aid in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B infection.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing lethargy. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing lethargy. She has a history of drinking a bottle of vodka daily and has been experiencing persistent vomiting for the past week.

      On examination, her pulse is 96/min and blood pressure is 109/70 mmHg. The following blood results are obtained:

      - pH 7.32 (7.36-7.44)
      - PaO2 12.0 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      - PaCO2 3.1 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      - Standard bicarbonate 10 mmol/L (20-28)
      - Base excess −8 mmol/L (+/−2)
      - Lactate 1.2 mmol/L (0.5-2.2)
      - Sodium 142 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium 3.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine 72 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Plasma glucose 3.4 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - Urine analysis Ketones +++

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV thiamine followed by 5% dextrose plus 40 mmoles potassium chloride

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Starvation Ketosis in Alcoholic Abuse Patients

      Alcoholic abuse patients with starvation ketosis exhibit low pH, low bicarbonate, low base excess, and compensatory low PaCO2. The appropriate treatment for this condition is intravenous (IV) dextrose. However, it is important to note that glucose can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain’s ability to process information. Therefore, before administering IV dextrose, patients with alcoholic abuse and starvation ketosis require initial treatment with IV Pabrinex.

      In summary, patients with alcoholic abuse and starvation ketosis require prompt medical attention to prevent further complications. The treatment involves administering IV Pabrinex before IV dextrose to avoid triggering Wernicke’s encephalopathy. This approach can help stabilize the patient’s condition and prevent further health complications.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 15 - A 19-year-old male is admitted with acute asthma. He has been treated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male is admitted with acute asthma. He has been treated with steroid, bronchodilators and 15 l/min of oxygen.

      His pulse rate is 125/min, oxygen saturation 89%, respiratory rate 24/min, blood pressure 140/88 mmHg and he has a peak flow rate of 150 l/min. On auscultation of his chest, he has bilateral wheezes.

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) result taken on 15 l/min oxygen shows:

      pH 7.42 (7.36-7.44)
      PaO2 8.4 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      PaCO2 5.3 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      Standard HCO3 19 mmol/L (20-28)
      Base excess −4 (+/-2)
      Oxygen saturation 89%

      What is the most appropriate action for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call ITU to consider intubation

      Explanation:

      Urgent Need for Ventilation in Life-Threatening Asthma

      This patient is experiencing life-threatening asthma with a dangerously low oxygen saturation level of less than 92%. Despite having a normal PaCO2 level, the degree of hypoxia is inappropriate and requires immediate consideration for ventilation. The arterial blood gas (ABG) result is consistent with the clinical presentation, making a venous blood sample unnecessary. Additionally, the ABG and bedside oxygen saturation readings are identical, indicating an arterialised sample.

      It is crucial to note that in cases of acute asthma, reducing the amount of oxygen below the maximum available is not recommended. Hypoxia can be fatal and must be addressed promptly. Therefore, urgent intervention is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.

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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a Pretibial laceration and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a Pretibial laceration and skin flap after injuring her leg on furniture at home. She is currently taking prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica. What is the optimal approach to managing this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clean then steristrip the laceration

      Explanation:

      Management of Pretibial Lacerations in Different Patient Populations

      In managing Pretibial lacerations, the approach may vary depending on the patient’s age and skin condition. For young patients with good skin, suturing with non-absorbable sutures is usually done and removed after seven to 10 days. However, for elderly patients with thin skin or those taking warfarin or steroids, suturing may not be possible due to fragile skin. In this case, the wound is cleaned thoroughly and steristripped meticulously to promote skin healing. A non-adherent dressing and light bandage are applied, and the patient is advised to elevate the leg.

      After a week, patients should be reviewed to monitor the wound’s progress. It is important to note that Pretibial lacerations may take several months to heal, and some may require skin grafting procedures. By tailoring the management approach to the patient’s specific needs, optimal wound healing can be achieved.

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  • Question 17 - A known case of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A known case of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency department, distressed and cyanosed. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44), PaO2 8.3 kPa (11.3-12.6 kPa), PaCO2 10 kPa (4.7-6.0 kPa). The patient, who is in his 60s, is given high concentration oxygen together with a salbutamol nebuliser and intravenous hydrocortisone. Despite these interventions, the patient's breathing effort worsens, although pulse oximetry showed SaO2 of 93%. What could be the reason for the patient's deterioration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High concentration oxygen administration

      Explanation:

      The Dangers of High Concentration Oxygen for COPD Patients

      The patient’s acute exacerbation of COPD had led to hypoxia and hypercapnia. Due to the nature of his condition, his respiratory centre was only stimulated by hypoxia. As a result, when he was given high concentration oxygen, his respiratory effort decreased and his condition worsened. This is because the high concentration of oxygen deprived him of the hypoxic drive that was necessary to stimulate his respiratory centre. Therefore, it is important to be cautious when administering oxygen to COPD patients, as high concentrations can have dangerous consequences. Proper monitoring and management of oxygen levels can help prevent exacerbations and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old homosexual male has tested positive for both IgM anti-HBc antibody and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old homosexual male has tested positive for both IgM anti-HBc antibody and hepatitis B surface antigens. What is his current disease state?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acutely infected

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B and its Markers

      Hepatitis B surface antigen is a marker that indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the cells of the host. This marker is present in both chronic and acute infections. Patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are indicative of acute infection and are not present in chronic infections. On the other hand, IgG antibodies to the core antigen are present even after the infection has been cleared.

      Antibodies to the surface antigen are produced in individuals who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B. This confers natural immunity once the infection has been cleared. the markers of hepatitis B is crucial in diagnosing and managing the infection. It is important to note that chronic hepatitis B can lead to serious liver damage and even liver cancer if left untreated. Therefore, early detection and treatment are essential in preventing complications.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has been ongoing for eight hours. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine and atenolol, and type 2 diabetes that is controlled through diet. Upon examination, the patient displays watering of the right eye, a slight droop of the eyelid, and displacement of the eye to the right. The left eye appears to have a full range of movements, and the pupil size is the same as on the left. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes

      Explanation:

      Causes of Painless Partial Third Nerve Palsy

      A painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. This condition is thought to be due to a microangiopathy that leads to the occlusion of the vasa nervorum. On the other hand, an aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery is associated with a painful third nerve palsy, and pupillary dilation is typical. Cerebral infarction, on the other hand, does not usually cause pain. Hypertension, which is a common condition, would normally cause signs of CVA or TIA. Lastly, cerebral vasculitis can cause symptoms of CVA/TIA, but they usually cause more global neurological symptoms.

      In summary, a painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. Other conditions such as aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery, cerebral infarction, hypertension, and cerebral vasculitis can also cause similar symptoms, but they have different characteristics and causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the condition to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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  • Question 20 - For which group is hepatitis B vaccination not typically recommended due to their...

    Incorrect

    • For which group is hepatitis B vaccination not typically recommended due to their low risk status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frequent travellers

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B and Travel: the Risks

      Frequent travel alone does not pose a significant risk for contracting hepatitis B. However, certain behaviors during travel can increase the likelihood of infection. These include injecting drugs, participating in relief work, engaging in sexual activity, and contact sports. If a traveler is involved in any of these activities, they should consider getting vaccinated against hepatitis B.

      It is important to note that hepatitis B can also be transmitted vertically, from mother to child. Therefore, individuals who work closely with children, such as foster carers, should also be vaccinated regardless of the child’s HBV status. By the risks associated with hepatitis B and taking appropriate precautions, travelers can protect themselves and others from this potentially serious infection.

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  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and stable ischaemic heart disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and stable ischaemic heart disease presents with palpitations lasting for 4 days. The patient is currently taking metformin 500 mg tds, aspirin 75 mg daily, ramipril 2.5 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily. Upon examination, the patient's pulse rate is 140/minute and blood pressure is 128/98 mmHg. There is no chest pain or evidence of acute heart failure, but the ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. What is the most appropriate treatment for managing the patient's atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Onset Symptomatic Atrial Fibrillation

      In cases of acute onset symptomatic atrial fibrillation (AF), the most appropriate chemical agent for rate control is beta blockers. However, if the patient has ischaemic heart disease, rate control is the initial management strategy. If beta blockers are contraindicated, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers can be used instead. In the event that the patient is hypotensive, IV digoxin is the preferred rate control medication. If the patient cannot tolerate beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin, amiodarone is given.

      Long-term anticoagulation is necessary after an appropriate risk assessment. Chemical cardioversion can be performed with amiodarone or flecainide, but the latter is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease. Although AF is generally well tolerated, patients with haemodynamic instability that is considered life-threatening require DC cardioversion. If there is a delay in DC cardioversion, amiodarone is recommended.

      Overall, the management of acute onset symptomatic AF involves careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and current condition to determine the most appropriate treatment strategy.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 22-year-old individual is brought to the medical team on call due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old individual is brought to the medical team on call due to fever, neck stiffness, and altered Glasgow coma scale. The medical team suspects acute bacterial meningitis.

      What would be the most suitable antibiotic option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Empirical Antibiotic Treatment for Acute Bacterial Meningitis

      Patients aged 16-50 years presenting with acute bacterial meningitis are most likely infected with Neisseria meningitidis or Streptococcus pneumoniae. The most appropriate empirical antibiotic choice for this age group is cefotaxime alone. However, if the patient has been outside the UK recently or has had multiple courses of antibiotics in the last 3 months, vancomycin may be added due to the increase in penicillin-resistant pneumococci worldwide.

      For infants over 3 months old up to adults of 50 years old, cefotaxime is the preferred antibiotic. If the patient is under 3 months or over 50 years old, amoxicillin is added to cover for Listeria monocytogenes meningitis, although this is rare. Ceftriaxone can be used instead of cefotaxime.

      Once the results of culture and sensitivity are available, the antibiotic choice can be modified for optimal treatment. Benzylpenicillin is usually first line, but it is not an option in this case. It is important to choose the appropriate antibiotic treatment to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 23 - A 20-year old woman arrives at the Emergency department after a night out...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old woman arrives at the Emergency department after a night out with her friends. According to her friends, she has been talking to herself about nonsensical things and appears agitated and restless. During the examination, it is noted that her reflexes are heightened and an electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ventricular ectopics. What type of substance abuse is suspected in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ecstasy

      Explanation:

      Ecstasy Overdose

      Ecstasy, also known as MDMA, is a drug that stimulates the central nervous system. It can cause increased alertness, euphoria, extroverted behavior, and rapid speech. People who take ecstasy may also experience a lack of desire to eat or sleep, tremors, dilated pupils, tachycardia, and hypertension. However, more severe intoxication can lead to excitability, agitation, paranoid delusions, hallucinations, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. In some cases, convulsions, rhabdomyolysis, hyperthermia, and cardiac arrhythmias may also develop.

      Severe cases of MDMA poisoning can result in hyperthermia, disseminated intravascular coagulation, rhabdomyolysis, acute renal failure, hyponatremia, and even hepatic damage. In rare cases, amphetamine poisoning may lead to intracerebral and subarachnoid hemorrhage and acute cardiomyopathy, which can be fatal. Chronic amphetamine users may also experience hyperthyroxinemia.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 24 - You are the foundation year doctor on the medical admissions unit and have...

    Incorrect

    • You are the foundation year doctor on the medical admissions unit and have been asked to review a 60-year-old female who has been referred to the unit for palpitations.

      The venous gas has been performed by the nurse and has revealed a potassium of 6.5 mmol/L. The patient's ECG shows tented T waves.

      What is the most important first drug intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate 10% 10 ml

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is a potentially life-threatening condition with a strict definition of K+ > 5.5 mmol/L. The underlying causes can be divided into renal, intracellular shift out, increased circulatory K+, and false positives. In severe cases with symptomatic and ECG changes, calcium chloride should be given first to stabilise the myocardium. The conventional treatment is a combination of insulin and dextrose infusions, with salbutamol nebulisers and sodium bicarbonate as additional options. Sodium bicarbonate should be used in discussion with a renal physician.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 25 - What vitamin is utilized to treat confusion in individuals with chronic alcoholism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What vitamin is utilized to treat confusion in individuals with chronic alcoholism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

      Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a condition that arises due to insufficient intake of thiamine, as well as impaired absorption and storage. This condition is known to cause various symptoms, including dementia, nystagmus, paralysis of extra ocular muscles, ataxia, and retrograde amnesia, particularly in individuals who struggle with alcoholism.

      The inadequate intake of thiamine is often associated with chronic alcoholism, as alcohol can interfere with the body’s ability to absorb and store thiamine. This can lead to a deficiency in the vitamin, which can cause damage to the brain and nervous system. The symptoms of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome can be severe and can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life.

      It is essential to understand the causes and symptoms of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome to ensure that individuals who are at risk receive the necessary treatment and support. With proper care and management, it is possible to manage the symptoms of this condition and improve an individual’s overall health and well-being.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 26 - An 80-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department and has a witnessed...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department and has a witnessed seizure in the resuscitation room. His blood glucose is recorded as 1.0 mmol/L. He does not have diabetes, nor other significant medical history. He is given 50 ml of 50% dextrose and he slowly recovers over the next one hour. A serum cortisol concentration later returns as 800 nmol/L (120-600). What investigation would be most relevant for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged 72 hour fast

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Spontaneous Hypoglycaemia

      The patient’s medical history and biochemical evidence suggest a diagnosis of spontaneous hypoglycaemia, with the most likely cause being an insulinoma. However, it is important to rule out the possibility of drug administration, and a sulphonylurea screen should be conducted. The patient has presented with symptomatic hypoglycaemia, despite not being diabetic and not having received insulin or a sulphonylurea. There is no indication of alcohol or drug misuse, nor is there any evidence of sepsis.

      To confirm a diagnosis of spontaneous hypoglycaemia, a prolonged fast is necessary. If the patient experiences hypoglycaemia during the fast, insulin and C peptide levels should be measured to confirm the diagnosis. The patient’s cortisol response during the hypoglycaemic episode (cortisol 800) rules out hypoadrenalism.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 27 - A 75-year-old widower is brought to the Emergency department after being found collapsed...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old widower is brought to the Emergency department after being found collapsed at home. His wife passed away recently and he has been struggling with depression. He has a history of stable angina and takes atenolol for it.

      During the examination, his blood pressure is 80/35 mmHg and he is bradycardic. His first and second heart sounds are audible, his oxygen saturation is 95%, and his chest is clear. The cardiac monitor shows a heart rate of 20 beats per minute, and the ECG shows a junctional escape rhythm without changes of ischaemia.

      What would be the most appropriate initial intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5 mg intravenous atropine

      Explanation:

      Management of Beta-Blocker Overdose

      In cases of beta-blocker overdose, a profound bradycardia may occur. The initial intervention should be intravenous atropine. If this proves ineffective, intravenous glucagon can be administered, followed by an infusion of 50 mcg/kg/hour. If glucagon is unavailable, IV isoprenaline can be used as an alternative. In refractory cases, a transvenous temporary cardiac pacemaker may be necessary. However, intravenous insulin is not recommended in this situation. It is important to promptly manage beta-blocker overdose to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 28 - As the foundation year doctor on ward cover, you are asked to assess...

    Incorrect

    • As the foundation year doctor on ward cover, you are asked to assess a 75-year-old male who was admitted to the cardiac care unit five hours ago due to chest pain. The patient has been given morphine, aspirin, clopidogrel, enoxaparin, and metoprolol. However, he has recently experienced a sudden worsening of chest pain, and his heart rate has dropped to 30 beats per minute. His other vital signs are BP 140/85 mmHg, O2 98%, and RR 18. An ECG has been conducted, revealing complete heart block. What is the most probable cause of this sudden development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Managing Bradycardia in Patients with Myocardial Infarctions

      Bradycardia is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention and should be managed according to the Resuscitation Council guidelines algorithm. Patients with myocardial infarctions are at a higher risk of developing associated arrhythmias, particularly those with inferior MIs, which can cause transient complete heart block due to the right coronary artery supplying the AV node. Although arrhythmogenic episodes are less common in other territory infarcts, they can still occur.

      In this scenario, the patient has received ACS treatment, including morphine and a beta blocker, which should not cause a sustained or profound bradycardia at therapeutic dosages. However, it is important to check for iatrogenic errors, and drug charts should be closely inspected to identify any potential errors. If an overdose of morphine has occurred, naloxone should be administered urgently, while beta blocker overdoses may require large doses of glucagon to counteract their effects. Any drug errors should be documented on an incident report form as per local policy.

      When managing bradycardia, the patient should be approached in an ABC fashion, and adverse features should be sought out. Four features that suggest decompensation include hypotension <90 systolic, loss of consciousness, chest pain, and shortness of breath. Atropine is the first-line drug, with aliquots of 500 mcg given up to 3 mg. Isoprenaline and adrenaline infusions are suggested as next-line treatments, but they may not be immediately available unless the patient is in a high dependency setting. Transcutaneous pacing should be readily available as an additional function on most defibrillator machines and is the next option if the patient continues to decompensate.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old asthmatic has been feeling unwell for the past day, experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old asthmatic has been feeling unwell for the past day, experiencing a productive cough, fever, and occasional wheezing. Despite using his regular salbutamol inhaler, his shortness of breath has been worsening, prompting him to seek medical attention at the hospital.

      After being assessed by a colleague, the patient has received four rounds of back-to-back salbutamol nebulisers, one round of ipratropium nebulisers, and intravenous hydrocortisone. However, the patient's condition is deteriorating, with increasing respiratory rate and speaking in words only. His chest is now silent, and his oxygen saturation is at 90% despite receiving 10 litres of oxygen.

      What is the next recommended therapeutic intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate 2 g

      Explanation:

      The British Thoracic Society guidelines should be followed for managing acute asthma, with patients stratified into moderate, severe, or life threatening categories. This patient has life threatening features and may require anaesthetic intervention for intubation and ventilation. Magnesium sulphate is the next important drug intervention. Adrenaline nebulisers have no role unless there are signs of upper airway obstruction. Aminophylline infusions are no longer recommended for initial stabilisation. Salbutamol inhalers can be used as a rescue measure in moderate exacerbations but have no role in severe or life threatening cases. Both prednisone and hydrocortisone are equally effective for steroid treatment.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 20-year-old college student is rushed to a university hospital after being found...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old college student is rushed to a university hospital after being found semi-conscious at home. Upon examination, the patient has a Glasgow coma scale of 12, a fever of 39.5°C, a pulse of 120/min, a blood pressure of 105/60 mmHg, photophobia, and meningism. The medical team has already inserted a cannula and sent blood cultures. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV antibiotics followed by CT head and subsequent lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Importance of CT Head Scanning and Lumbar Puncture in Suspected Bacterial Meningitis

      The availability of 24-hour computerised tomography (CT) head scanning in hospitals is crucial in the early recognition of any contraindications to lumbar puncture (LP) in patients with suspected bacterial meningitis. Prior to LP, a CT head scan should be performed to prevent the risk of brain herniation or coning. However, it is important to note that antibiotics should not be delayed while waiting for CT head scanning as this may prove fatal. In any case of suspected bacterial meningitis, a lumbar puncture must be performed to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment. Clinicians can refer to the Meningitis Research Foundation Clinician’s Guide to Recognition and Early Management of Meningococcal Disease in Children for further information.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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