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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old truck driver is being assessed. He was detected with type 2...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old truck driver is being assessed. He was detected with type 2 diabetes mellitus last year. After shedding some weight and taking metformin, his HbA1c has dropped from 74 mmol/mol (8.9%) to 68 mmol/mol (8.4%). What would be the most appropriate course of action for further management?

      Your Answer: Add pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      The most suitable choice for him would be Pioglitazone as it doesn’t pose a risk of hypoglycemia, which could be hazardous considering his profession. Additionally, the utilization of a DPP-4 inhibitor (such as sitagliptin or vildagliptin) would be supported by the NICE guidelines in this scenario.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      31
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man presents for his annual diabetic review. He has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents for his annual diabetic review. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes for the past 10 years and is currently taking metformin and insulin for glycemic control. He holds a group 1 driving license.

      During the consultation, you inquire about any episodes of hypoglycemia. He reports experiencing three or four episodes of low blood sugar since his last review, but he has good awareness of this and checks his blood sugar regularly. He also takes a dextrose tablet when necessary. He checks his blood sugar before driving and maintains a close record of his glycemic control.

      Upon reviewing his records, you note that his blood sugar has dropped to less than 4 mmol/L four times in the past year. However, he has awareness of hypoglycemia and reports feeling slightly nauseated when his sugars drop below 4 mmol/L. He takes a dextrose tablet when this happens, and he has not experienced any episodes of collapsing, confusion, or significant illness associated with low glucose levels. His lowest recorded glucose level is 3.4 mmol/L.

      Given his driving status, what advice should you provide?

      Your Answer: He must report the episodes of hypoglycaemia to the DVLA and stop driving

      Correct Answer: He can continue driving but he should be provided with the DVLA guidance on insulin treated diabetes and driving

      Explanation:

      New Medical Driving Standards for Diabetic Drivers

      The medical driving standards for individuals with diabetes have recently been updated. For those with a group 1 entitlement who are managed with insulin, it is required that they have awareness of hypoglycaemia and have not experienced more than one severe hypoglycaemic episode within the past 12 months. Appropriate blood glucose monitoring is also necessary. Severe hypoglycaemia is defined as an episode that requires external help, indicating that the individual is unable to treat the hypoglycaemia themselves.

      It is important for these individuals to be informed of the DVLA guidance regarding insulin-treated diabetes and driving. They should also be advised to carry dextrose with them in case of an emergency. The DVLA has provided clear guidelines for patients on how diabetes can affect their ability to drive and what self-monitoring they should undertake. These guidelines are available as part of the ‘At a Glance Guide to the Current Medical Standards of Fitness to Drive for Medical Practitioners’, which is freely available online.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      189.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old man with advanced colonic cancer becomes cachectic. He is still living...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with advanced colonic cancer becomes cachectic. He is still living at home and is troubled by his lack of appetite and rapid weight loss. There are no obvious reversible problems (eg pain, medication, vomiting, reflux), and his examination shows no acute issues such as bowel obstruction. Blood tests are unremarkable, other than long-standing anaemia and low albumin levels.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be beneficial for patients with anorexia/cachexia?

      Your Answer: Levomepromazine

      Correct Answer: Dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Anorexia/Cachexia Syndrome in Palliative Care

      The anorexia/cachexia syndrome is a complex metabolic process that occurs in the end stages of many illnesses, resulting in loss of appetite, weight loss, and muscle wasting. While drugs can be used to improve quality of life, their benefits may be limited or temporary. Corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone, are a commonly used treatment option for short-term improvement of appetite, nausea, energy levels, and overall wellbeing. However, their effects tend to decrease after 3-4 weeks. Proton pump inhibitors, like omeprazole, should be co-prescribed for gastric protection. Amitriptyline is unlikely to be beneficial in these circumstances, but may be useful for depression or neuropathic pain. Cyclizine may help with nausea, but doesn’t have a role in anorexia/cachexia. Levomepromazine is commonly used for end-of-life care to alleviate nausea, but is unlikely to target anorexia or cachexia specifically. Overall, treatment options for anorexia/cachexia syndrome in palliative care should be carefully considered and tailored to each individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      77.7
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  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old man presents with a productive cough with yellow sputum. On auscultation...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a productive cough with yellow sputum. On auscultation of the chest, crackles can be heard in the right lower zone. He is on atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention of cardiovascular events. He is allergic to penicillin; therefore, a course of clarithromycin is prescribed for his chest infection.
      What is the most important information that needs to be provided?

      Your Answer: Take 10 mg atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin

      Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Managing Atorvastatin and Clarithromycin Interaction

      Explanation: When a patient is allergic to penicillin and requires treatment for a chest infection, clarithromycin may be prescribed. However, it is important to note that clarithromycin is a potent inhibitor of liver isoenzyme cytochrome P450 CYP3A4, which can affect the metabolism of drugs like atorvastatin. Here are some guidelines to manage the interaction between atorvastatin and clarithromycin:

      1. Stop atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin to avoid potential toxic effects like rhabdomyolysis.
      2. Simple linctus may help with cough, but stopping atorvastatin is the priority.
      3. Continuing to take 20 mg atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin increases the risk of myopathy.
      4. Report any muscle pain as it may be a sign of myopathy.
      5. If concurrent use of atorvastatin and clarithromycin is necessary, prescribe the lowest dose of atorvastatin and monitor for symptoms of myopathy.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can manage the interaction between atorvastatin and clarithromycin and ensure the safety of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      29.5
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  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old patient presents with concerns about her acne treatment. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old patient presents with concerns about her acne treatment. She has been using a topical gel containing benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin for the past 3 months but has not seen significant improvement.

      Upon examination, she has inflammatory papules and closed comedones on her forehead and chin, as well as some on her upper back. She is interested in a stronger medication and asks if she should continue using the gel alongside it.

      What advice should you give regarding her current topical treatment?

      Your Answer: Discontinue topical treatment

      Correct Answer: Change to topical benzoyl peroxide alone, or topical retinoid

      Explanation:

      To effectively treat acne, it is not recommended to use both topical and oral antibiotics together. Instead, the patient should switch to using either topical benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid alone. Continuing to use the current combination gel or switching to topical clindamycin or topical lymecycline alone are not recommended as they involve the use of both topical and oral antibiotics, which can lead to antibiotic resistance. According to NICE guidelines, a combination of topical benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid with oral antibiotics is a more effective treatment option.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.5
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old asthmatic woman presents with a history of amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old asthmatic woman presents with a history of amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She is eager to get pregnant and has been attempting to conceive for six months, but has not been successful. What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Pituitary microadenoma

      Explanation:

      Causes of hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea: differential diagnosis

      Hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea are two related conditions that can have various underlying causes. One common cause is a prolactin-secreting pituitary tumour, which can be either a microadenoma (more common) or a macroadenoma (less common). Another possible cause is the use of certain drugs, such as dopamine receptor antagonists and some antidepressants. Hyperthyroidism is not a likely cause, but hypothyroidism can sometimes lead to hyperprolactinaemia. Finally, while hepatic impairment can cause hyperprolactinaemia, it is not a frequent finding in patients with liver cirrhosis. Therefore, a careful differential diagnosis is needed to identify the specific cause of hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea in each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      74.2
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being seen in clinic. Despite having severe psoriasis at times, he is currently managing well with only topical therapy. Which of the following conditions is he NOT at an elevated risk for due to his psoriasis history?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Melanoma

      Explanation:

      The risk of non-melanoma skin cancer is higher in individuals with psoriasis.

      Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes and generalized itching for the past 5 days. She denies any fever, myalgia, or abdominal pain. She reports that her urine has become darker and her stools have become paler. She has been in good health otherwise.

      The patient had visited the clinic 3 weeks ago for a sore throat and was prescribed antibiotics. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 6 months.

      On examination, the patient appears jaundiced in both her skin and sclera. She has no rash but has multiple scratches on her arms due to itching. There is no palpable hepatosplenomegaly, and she has no abdominal tenderness.

      Laboratory tests reveal:

      - Bilirubin 110 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP 200 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT 60 u/L (3 - 40)
      - γGT 120 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Choledocholithiasis

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with cholestatic jaundice, likely caused by the oral contraceptive pill. This results in intrahepatic jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. Paracetamol overdose and viral hepatitis would cause hepatocellular jaundice, while Gilbert’s syndrome is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. Choledocholithiasis could also cause obstructive cholestasis. It is appropriate to stop the pill and consider alternative contraception methods, and additional imaging may be necessary if jaundice doesn’t resolve.

      Drug-induced liver disease can be categorized into three types: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there can be some overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of liver changes. Certain drugs tend to cause a hepatocellular picture, such as paracetamol, sodium valproate, and statins. On the other hand, drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill, flucloxacillin, and anabolic steroids tend to cause cholestasis with or without hepatitis. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone are known to cause liver cirrhosis. It is important to note that there are rare reported causes of drug-induced liver disease, such as nifedipine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      36.9
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  • Question 9 - You encounter a 40-year-old woman with psoriasis. She has a flare-up on her...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 40-year-old woman with psoriasis. She has a flare-up on her leg and you prescribe topical Dermovate cream (Clobetasol propionate 0.05%) as part of her treatment plan. She asks you about the duration for which she can use this cream on her leg. What is the maximum duration recommended by NICE for the use of this type of corticosteroid?

      Your Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for the Use of Topical Corticosteroids

      According to NICE guidelines, it is not recommended to use highly potent corticosteroids continuously at any site for more than 4 weeks. The duration of use may vary depending on the potency of the steroid being used. It is important to note that it can be challenging to remember the potency of different steroid formulations based on their trade names. Therefore, it is advisable to have a reference handy. The Eczema Society provides a useful table of commonly used topical steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.8
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  • Question 10 - You are visiting a local nursing home to see a new resident who...

    Correct

    • You are visiting a local nursing home to see a new resident who is complaining of an itchy rash when you get an urgent call to see a 78-year-old lady who has collapsed in the dining room.

      The relief staff at the home tell you that she is a diabetic and has had a stroke some years ago, but they do not know much else about her.

      On examination, she is lying in the recovery position on the floor and her BP is 115/70 mmHg, pulse 95 she is bathed in sweat and is unresponsive. She has adequate air entry on auscultation of the chest and there is no danger in the immediate vicinity. Trained nursing staff are at hand to help you with her management and take any further action.

      What would be your first action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Check her finger prick glucose

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypoglycaemia in Nursing Homes

      Hypoglycaemia is a common occurrence in nursing homes and can lead to significant neurological impairment if not managed promptly. When a patient is suspected of having hypoglycaemia, the first step is to check their finger prick glucose level. This should be done after ensuring their airway, breathing, and circulation are stable.

      Early intervention with a glucagon injection can prevent further complications. It is important to note that nursing home ‘strokes’ are a common cause of admissions to emergency departments. Therefore, prompt management of hypoglycaemia can potentially avoid such admissions.

      If the patient is unconscious, they should be placed in the recovery position until medical help arrives. By following these steps, nursing home staff can effectively manage hypoglycaemia and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      390.3
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  • Question 11 - You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of ramipril for a month. He reports experiencing a persistent tickly cough that is causing him to lose sleep at night. Despite this, his blood pressure is now under control.

      What recommendations would you provide to him?

      Your Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe 5mg amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe candesartan

      Explanation:

      When patients are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the common side effect of a dry, persistent cough, angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) should be considered as an alternative. For individuals under the age of 55 who experience intolerance to ACE inhibitors, prescribing medications such as candesartan, an ARB, may be the next appropriate step.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      28.8
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  • Question 12 - A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her husband to the Middle East and South America for his job. She wants to know which vaccinations are safe to receive during pregnancy.

      Which of the following vaccinations can be given without significant risk to the woman and her developing fetus?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations for Travelers

      Hepatitis A and B vaccinations are made from viral antigens and do not contain any living hepatitis virus component. For individuals traveling to countries with a high risk of hepatitis A, vaccination may be recommended. However, it is important to note that the other vaccines listed, such as polio, are live vaccinations. The polio vaccine can be administered orally or through an intramuscular injection, depending on the preparation used. It is crucial for travelers to consult with a healthcare professional to determine which vaccinations are necessary for their specific travel plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      51.6
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  • Question 13 - Samantha is a 70 year old woman who is attending hospital for chemotherapy...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 70 year old woman who is attending hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer. She is struggling with the cost of transportation to and from the hospital and is currently receiving pensioners credit. What advice would you give to Samantha?

      Your Answer: Eligible for refund from social services

      Correct Answer: Eligible to claim travel refund from hospital

      Explanation:

      He can claim a refund for his travel expenses from the hospital.

      Travel Refund for Hospital Visits

      If you are required to attend a hospital for treatment, you may be eligible for a refund for your travel expenses. The criteria for eligibility include receiving Income Support, the guarantee element of Pension Credit, income-based Jobseekers Allowance, income-related Employment and Support Allowance, Universal Credit, or having a valid NHS tax exemption certificate. Additionally, if you receive a valid war pension and are being treated for your war disability, you may also be eligible. If you require someone to travel with you for medical reasons, their travel costs may also be covered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      27.9
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  • Question 14 - A 20-year-old beauty therapist has come to see you because she is constantly...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old beauty therapist has come to see you because she is constantly arguing with her partner. They have been living together for the past six months. She says that the arguments are making her feel miserable and that her only enjoyment in life is her work and occasional nights out clubbing with her friends.

      She says that her boyfriend resents her lifestyle and is very possessive of her time. She feels depressed when she arrives home and he is there, unless he is working a late shift or it is a night out with her friends. On examination, she appears physically fit, tanned, and smartly dressed. She talked about her partner's deficiencies for most of the consultation. Her past medical history includes a tonsillectomy and Chickenpox as a child. She is a non-smoker and visits the gym three times a week. A colleague advised her to visit you to help her with her problems.

      What would be the most appropriate way to manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Advise relationship counselling

      Correct Answer: Advise her to take St John's wort

      Explanation:

      Relationship Issues vs. Depression: Understanding the Difference

      There is no clear indication of depression in this patient’s history. Despite experiencing disharmony in her relationship, she is still able to lead a normal life and enjoy most of it. Therefore, there is no need to prescribe antidepressants or refer her to a psychiatrist. Instead, offering support and guidance towards relationship counseling is the best course of action. It is important to understand the difference between relationship issues and depression, as they require different approaches to treatment. By addressing the root cause of the problem, the patient can work towards resolving her relationship issues and improving her overall well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 15 - A public health doctor is studying the occurrence and frequency of hypertension in...

    Incorrect

    • A public health doctor is studying the occurrence and frequency of hypertension in the local region. In 2017, there were 100,000 people with hypertension in the area, and 1,500 new cases were reported that year. In 2018, there were 110,000 people with hypertension in the area, and 2,500 new cases were reported that year.

      What conclusions can be drawn about the occurrence and frequency of hypertension in this region?

      Your Answer: Incidence increasing, prevalence increasing

      Correct Answer: Incidence increasing, prevalence equal

      Explanation:

      The incidence of diabetes has increased, indicating a rise in the number of new cases, while the prevalence remains unchanged as it represents the total number of existing cases.

      Understanding Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.

      To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.

      Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old British man with a history of asthma comes to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old British man with a history of asthma comes to the clinic with a painless lymph node in his groin that has been enlarged for the past three months. He denies any other symptoms except for a generalised itch which he attributes to a recent change in laundry detergent. He has not observed any rash.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphoma

      Explanation:

      If you notice an enlarged lymph node that cannot be explained, it is important to consider the possibility of lymphoma. It is important to ask about other symptoms such as fever, night sweats, shortness of breath, itching, and weight loss. It is rare for alcohol to cause lymph node pain.

      There are no significant risk factors or symptoms suggestive of TB in the patient’s history. It is also unlikely that the presentation is due to syphilis, as secondary syphilis typically presents with a non-itchy rash. The rapid deterioration seen in acute lymphocytic leukemia is not consistent with the patient’s presentation.

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.

      The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.

      When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.

      In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      43.1
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  • Question 17 - You overhear a heated discussion at the surgery reception desk between a receptionist...

    Incorrect

    • You overhear a heated discussion at the surgery reception desk between a receptionist and an elderly patient who requests access to her medical records.

      Provided you have verified the identity of the person making the request using reasonable means, how may an individual who is 65 years old or older make a Subject Access Request?

      Your Answer: Verbally

      Correct Answer: Verbally, electronically or in writing

      Explanation:

      How to Make a Subject Access Request

      Subject Access Requests (SARs) can be made in three ways: electronically, in writing, or verbally. However, before access is granted, the requester’s identity must be verified using reasonable means. This is to ensure that the information is only disclosed to the person who has the right to access it.

      If making an electronic request, it is important to ensure that the email or online form used is secure and that the requestor’s identity can be verified. When making a written request, it is recommended to send it via recorded delivery to ensure that it is received and to keep a copy of the request for future reference.

      When making a verbal request, it is important to note down the date and time of the call, the name of the person who took the call, and any other relevant details. The requestor’s identity can be verified by asking security questions or requesting identification documents.

      Overall, making a Subject Access Request is a straightforward process, but it is important to ensure that the requestor’s identity is verified before access is granted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
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  • Question 18 - A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father has become disinterested and withdrawn.

      Which of the following would favour a diagnosis of dementia rather than depression?

      Your Answer: Self-reported concern of poor memory

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Alzheimer’s and Depression

      Urinary incontinence is an uncommon symptom associated with depression, but it is more typical of dementia or normal pressure hydrocephalus. On the other hand, impaired memory and concern over memory deficits can be found in both depression and dementia. Therefore, it can be challenging to differentiate between Alzheimer’s and depression based on these symptoms alone. Mayo Clinic suggests that a combination of symptoms and medical tests can help differentiate between the two conditions. Proper diagnosis and treatment can improve the quality of life for individuals and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      29.2
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  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He has recently been released from the hospital after experiencing an upper gastrointestinal bleed caused by oesophageal varices. He informs you that he has quit drinking and inquires about the likelihood of experiencing another bleeding episode.
      What is the accurate statement regarding the risk of future bleeding from oesophageal varices?

      Your Answer: Bleeding is not commonly a feature of viral hepatitis induced cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: The risk of re-bleeding is greater than 60% within a year

      Explanation:

      Understanding Variceal Haemorrhage: Causes, Complications, and Prognosis

      Variceal haemorrhage is a common complication of portal hypertension, with almost 90% of cirrhosis patients developing varices and 30% experiencing bleeding. The mortality rate for the first episode is high, ranging from 30-50%. The severity of liver disease and associated systemic disorders worsen the prognosis, increasing the likelihood of a bleed. Patients who have had one episode of bleeding have a high chance of recurrence within a year, with one-third of further episodes being fatal. While abstaining from alcohol can slow the progression of liver disease, it cannot reverse portal hypertension. Understanding the causes, complications, and prognosis of variceal haemorrhage is crucial for effective management and prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. During the consultation, she mentions having experienced migraine with aura in the past. She asks why the combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for her. How should you respond?

      Your Answer: Increased severity of migraines

      Correct Answer: Significantly increased risk of ischaemic stroke

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.

      When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.

      In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      59
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man presents with a one week history of a productive cough....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a one week history of a productive cough. He has no past medical history of any cardiorespiratory disease and is a lifelong non-smoker. He reports that his cough is not improving and that he is now coughing up some 'thick green phlegm'. He denies any coughing up blood.
      Upon examination, he is alert and oriented, with a temperature of 37.6°C, a regular pulse rate of 94 bpm, a respiratory rate of 16, and a blood pressure of 124/68 mmHg. Chest auscultation reveals coarse crepitations in the left lower zone with some bronchial breath sounds.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Provide a delayed antibiotic script for the patient to use should he not start to improve in the next five to seven days

      Correct Answer: No immediate treatment, send him for a chest x ray to guide the need for antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection, it is important to differentiate between non-pneumonic and pneumonic infections. In cases of non-pneumonic infections, antibiotics should not be given unless the patient is showing signs of severity. However, if chest signs are present, a diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia should be made, and early administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent the development of severe illness.

      While chest radiography and CRP levels are not useful in the acute setting of pneumonia, they may be indicated in certain cases. A chest x-ray may be necessary if treatment response is unsatisfactory or in smokers during the convalescent period. CRP levels can be helpful in making a decision about antibiotic treatment for individuals with symptoms of LRTI but no signs.

      According to NICE guidelines, antibiotic therapy should not be routinely offered if the CRP concentration is less than 20 mg/litre. A delayed antibiotic prescription should be considered if the CRP concentration is between 20 mg/litre and 100 mg/litre, and antibiotic therapy should be offered if the CRP concentration is greater than 100 mg/litre. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively diagnose and manage community-acquired pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A colleague in your Practice collects data about the care of all patients...

    Incorrect

    • A colleague in your Practice collects data about the care of all patients at the practice who received palliative care over the past six months, anonymises it, collates it, and compares it to local guidelines.

      He presents the findings to the rest of the team and actions to improve care are identified.

      This is an example of which of the following processes?

      Your Answer: Inquest

      Correct Answer: Clinical audit

      Explanation:

      Clinical audit aims to enhance patient care and results by conducting a methodical evaluation of care against specific standards and implementing modifications accordingly. This involves comparing practice with guidelines to evaluate the quality of care and pinpointing areas that require improvement. To ensure that care has improved, the audit process should be repeated after implementing any changes.

      Understanding Clinical Audit

      Clinical audit is a process that aims to improve the quality of patient care and outcomes by systematically reviewing care against specific criteria and implementing changes. It is a quality improvement process that involves the collection and analysis of data to identify areas where improvements can be made. The process involves reviewing current practices, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to improve patient care and outcomes.

      Clinical audit is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. It helps to identify areas where improvements can be made and provides a framework for implementing changes. The process involves a team of healthcare professionals working together to review current practices and identify areas for improvement. Once areas for improvement have been identified, changes can be implemented to improve patient care and outcomes.

      In summary, clinical audit is a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. By identifying areas for improvement and implementing changes, clinical audit helps to improve patient care and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      268.7
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  • Question 23 - Samantha is a 62-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 62-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with heart failure. She has been researching her condition online and wants to know which vaccinations she needs due to her diagnosis. Samantha also has hypertension and type 2 diabetes.

      What vaccinations would you suggest for her?

      Your Answer: Single pneumococcal vaccination, single meningococcal vaccination

      Correct Answer: Annual influenza vaccination, single pneumococcal vaccination

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure should receive annual influenza vaccination as part of their overall lifestyle approach. Additionally, those with chronic respiratory and heart conditions, such as severe asthma, chronic pulmonary disease, and heart failure, should receive both annual influenza and single pneumococcal vaccinations. Meningococcal vaccination is not typically administered to heart failure patients, but is recommended for those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, including those with sickle cell and coeliac disease, as well as those with complement disorder. For patients with splenic dysfunction and chronic kidney disease, a pneumococcal booster should be given every 5 years after the initial dose.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      211.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old man presents with a four month history of left sided hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a four month history of left sided hearing loss. He denies any pain, discharge tinnitus, vertigo or other symptoms of note. He is an ex-smoker with a 45 year pack history.

      On examination otoscopy of the right ear appears normal whilst the left ear shows a dullness to the tympanic membrane with air bubbles within the middle ear, the external auditory canal is clear. Rinne's test shows bone conduction better than air conduction in the left ear and air conduction better than bone conduction in the right ear. Weber's test lateralises to the left.

      What is the most appropriate cause of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to audiology for hearing test +/- hearing aids

      Correct Answer: Two week wait referral to local ENT service

      Explanation:

      Understanding Head and Neck Cancer: Symptoms and Referral Criteria

      Head and neck cancer is a broad term that encompasses various types of cancer, including oral cavity cancers, pharynx cancers, and larynx cancers. Some of the common symptoms of head and neck cancer include a persistent sore throat, hoarseness, neck lump, and mouth ulcer.

      To ensure timely diagnosis and treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has established referral criteria for suspected cancer pathways. For instance, individuals aged 45 and above with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to rule out laryngeal cancer.

      Similarly, people with unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for possible oral cancer. Dentists should also consider an urgent referral for people with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia.

      Lastly, individuals with an unexplained thyroid lump should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to rule out thyroid cancer. By following these referral criteria, healthcare professionals can ensure that individuals with head and neck cancer receive prompt and appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      65.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits your clinic after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits your clinic after being exposed to a child with Chickenpox, for the second time. She had received VZIG 29 days ago due to being non-immune. What is the appropriate course of action for her now?

      Your Answer: Arrange urgent fetal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Arrange for second administration of VZIG

      Explanation:

      In the event that a pregnant patient who is not immune is exposed to Chickenpox, it is recommended that she receive VZIG as soon as possible. VZIG can still be effective if administered within 10 days of contact, with the definition of continuous exposure being 10 days from the appearance of the rash in the initial case. If there is another exposure reported and at least 3 weeks have passed since the last dose, a second dose of VZIG may be necessary.

      Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

      To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.

      If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-year history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-year history of increasing dyspnoea with strenuous exercise. She has also had occasional chest pain on exertion.
      On examination, she has an ejection systolic murmur. Following an examination and electrocardiogram (ECG) in primary care, she is referred for a cardiology review and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is diagnosed.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate screening method for her sister?

      Your Answer: Genetic screening

      Correct Answer: Echocardiography

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy: Methods and Limitations

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a genetic heart condition that can lead to sudden death, especially in young athletes. Diagnosis of HCM is based on the demonstration of unexplained myocardial hypertrophy, which can be detected using two-dimensional echocardiography. However, the criteria for diagnosis vary depending on the patient’s size and family history. Genetic screening is not always reliable, as mutations are only found in 60% of patients. An abnormal electrocardiogram (ECG) is common but nonspecific, while exercise testing and ventilation-perfusion scans have limited diagnostic value. It is important to consider the limitations of these methods when evaluating patients with suspected HCM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      75.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You encounter a 41-year-old male patient complaining of lower back pain. He cannot...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 41-year-old male patient complaining of lower back pain. He cannot recall a specific injury but reports that the pain has been worsening for the past 2 months. He has experienced muscle spasms in his lower back over the last 48 hours, causing him significant discomfort and preventing him from working. He works in a warehouse and frequently engages in heavy lifting. He is overweight but has no other relevant medical history. There are no red flag symptoms of back pain.

      What is a true statement about nonspecific lower back pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 'StarT BACK' is an online risk stratification tool which can be used to assess a person with lower back pain

      Explanation:

      The online tool ‘StarT BACK’ can be utilized to evaluate individuals with lower back pain who do not exhibit any red flags and determine modifiable risk factors.

      When it comes to analgesia, NSAIDs are the preferred first-line treatment unless there are any contraindications. Diazepam may be prescribed for a brief period if muscle spasms are present.

      It is not necessary for the patient to be completely pain-free before returning to work or normal activities. The NICE CKS guidelines suggest encouraging the individual to stay active, gradually resuming normal activities, and returning to work as soon as possible. Prolonged bed rest is not recommended, and some pain may be experienced during movement, which should not be harmful if activities are resumed gradually and as tolerated. Occupational Health departments may assist in arranging work adjustments to facilitate an early return to work.

      To reduce the risk of recurrence, it is essential to remain as active as possible and engage in regular exercise. Unfortunately, individuals who have experienced low back pain may experience repeated episodes of recurrence and develop acute on chronic symptoms.

      Understanding Lower Back Pain and its Possible Causes

      Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. Although most cases are due to nonspecific muscular issues, it is important to consider possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Some red flags to watch out for include age below 20 or above 50 years, a history of previous malignancy, night pain, history of trauma, and systemic symptoms such as weight loss and fever.

      There are several specific causes of lower back pain that healthcare providers should be aware of. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, with pain typically worse in the morning and on standing. On examination, there may be pain over the facets, which is typically worse on extension of the back. Spinal stenosis, on the other hand, usually has a gradual onset and presents with unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking and resolves when sitting down. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically seen in young men who present with lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arthritis is also common in this condition. Finally, peripheral arterial disease presents with pain on walking that is relieved by rest, and may be accompanied by absent or weak foot pulses and other signs of limb ischaemia. A past history of smoking and other vascular diseases may also be present.

      In summary, lower back pain is a common presentation in clinical practice, and healthcare providers should be aware of the possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. By identifying red flags and conducting a thorough examination, providers can help ensure that patients receive appropriate care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old male presents with hearing difficulties. You conduct an assessment of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents with hearing difficulties. You conduct an assessment of his auditory system, which includes Rinne's and Weber's tests:

      Rinne's test: Left ear - bone conduction > air conduction; Right ear - air conduction > bone conduction
      Weber's test: Lateralizes to the left side

      What is the significance of these test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left conductive deafness

      Explanation:

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 16-year-old boy is being examined after experiencing excessive bleeding post a tooth...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is being examined after experiencing excessive bleeding post a tooth extraction. The test results are as follows:

      Platelet count: 173 * 109/l
      Prothrombin time (PT): 12.9 seconds
      Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 84 seconds

      Based on these results, which clotting factor deficiency is the most probable cause of his bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.

      The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.

      Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old man with sinusitis inquires about the safety of using Sudafed (pseudoephedrine)....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with sinusitis inquires about the safety of using Sudafed (pseudoephedrine). Is there any medication that would make Sudafed use inappropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      The combination of a monoamine oxidase inhibitor and pseudoephedrine may lead to a dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis.

      Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Older Adults (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/2) 50%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/2) 50%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (3/3) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Passmed