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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old woman is on the surgical ward after admission for neurological observations...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman is on the surgical ward after admission for neurological observations following a head injury. She had fallen on the pavement and banged her head with a moderate laceration. She suffered from no loss of consciousness but now complains of nausea and double vision. You notice that:
      her eyes open to speech
      she is able to obey commands
      she can talk properly but appears disorientated in time and place.
      What is her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

      Your Answer: 14

      Correct Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a valuable tool for assessing a patient’s level of consciousness, particularly in cases of head injury. It provides a standardized language for clinicians to communicate about a patient’s condition. The GCS measures the best eye, verbal, and motor responses and calculates a total score. A fully conscious and alert patient will score 15/15, while the lowest possible score is 3/15.

      The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s eye, verbal, and motor responses. The eyes can open spontaneously, in response to speech or pain, or not at all. The verbal response can range from being oriented to being completely unresponsive. The motor response can range from obeying commands to abnormal flexion or no response at all.

      It is important to note that if a patient’s GCS score is 8 or below, they will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway. This typically means intubation. It is crucial to accurately calculate the GCS score to ensure appropriate medical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset of dizziness...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset of dizziness and hearing loss in his right ear that occurred three hours ago. He has fallen twice since then and was assisted by his daughter to get to the hospital. He reports feeling like the room is spinning and has nausea but has not vomited. Which artery territory is most likely involved in this stroke?

      Your Answer: Right posterior cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Right anterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Stroke and Hearing Loss: A Look at Different Arteries

      Strokes can have various effects on the body, including hearing loss and vertigo. The specific artery affected can determine the type of symptoms experienced.

      The right anterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the area of the brainstem that contains the vestibular and cochlear nuclei. Its occlusion can result in vertigo and ipsilateral hearing loss.

      A superior cerebellar artery territory stroke does not result in hearing loss.

      Occlusion of the right posterior inferior cerebellar artery results in Wallenberg syndrome, which includes vertigo but not hearing loss.

      Branches of the right middle cerebral artery supply the auditory cortex. Unilateral hearing loss is caused by damage to the inner ear, cochlear nerve, or cochlear nuclei. Unilateral damage to the auditory tracts above the level of the brainstem nuclei does not result in hearing loss because of bilateral representation of the fibers. Although dizziness is a common finding in patients with higher cortical stroke or transient ischemic attack, a true vertigo signals significant disruption of the vestibular system at the level of the brainstem nuclei, vestibular nerve, or inner ear.

      A right posterior cerebral artery territory stroke is most often associated with visual deficits and sometimes causes thalamic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 82-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter,...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter, who reports a 3- to 4- month history of falls, intermittent confusion and worsening urinary incontinence. On examination, the man has an abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) of 4/10 but is otherwise well. There is no focal neurological deficit, but he is unable to walk without the assistance of his daughter. Routine investigations, including FBC, U&Es, RBG, LFTs, TFTs, Ca2+ and ESR, are all within normal limits. The diagnosis is later confirmed by serial lumbar puncture studies.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: A colloid cyst of the third ventricle

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Gait Dyspraxia, Confusion, and Urinary Incontinence

      The presenting symptoms of gait dyspraxia, fluctuating confusion, and urinary incontinence can be indicative of various conditions in the elderly population. However, the classical triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is a possible diagnosis that requires clinical expertise and imaging studies, such as a CT or MRI scan, to confirm the presence of hydrocephalus with relatively well-preserved sulci. Lumbar puncture studies can also aid in the diagnosis of NPH, and the insertion of a ventriculo-peritoneal shunt may be curative.

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a disease that primarily affects young women and can lead to devastating neurological effects, including blindness. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, caused by thiamine deficiency, is characterized by a progressive confusional state, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Herpes encephalitis is a rapidly fatal cause of encephalitis that presents with severe headache, confusion, or reduced level of consciousness. However, the absence of a severe headache and the need for serial lumbar punctures to confirm the diagnosis make NPH a more likely diagnosis in this case.

      A colloid cyst of the third ventricle is a benign tumor that is usually discovered incidentally on a brain scan. While it may cause fluctuating confusion and symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, including headaches, it would not require serial lumbar punctures to confirm the diagnosis. In rare cases, it may also cause weakness of the lower limbs and episodes of collapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      54.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 38-year-old male patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache and vomiting. He has...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old male patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache and vomiting. He has a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
      Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia with high blood pressure suggests increased intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: Importance of Bradycardia and Lumbar Puncture

      Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One important clue to the presence of SAH is the combination of bradycardia and hypertension, known as the Cushing’s reflex. This suggests increased intracranial pressure, which is common in SAH.

      When SAH is suspected, a CT scan of the head is often the first diagnostic test. However, it is important to note that CT can be normal in up to 10% of cases. Therefore, a lumbar puncture should be performed in those with a suspected SAH and a normal CT scan.

      To ensure accurate diagnosis, the lumbar puncture should be delayed for 4-12 hours to detect the presence of xanthochromia, a yellow discoloration of the cerebrospinal fluid that indicates bleeding. Microscopy of the CSF may be unreliable due to the presence of red blood cells from a traumatic lumbar puncture.

      It is also important to note that the location of the aneurysm causing the SAH can vary. Rupture of an anterior circulation aneurysm is more likely than a posterior circulation aneurysm.

      In summary, the combination of bradycardia and hypertension should raise suspicion for SAH. A normal CT scan does not rule out SAH, and a lumbar puncture with delayed testing for xanthochromia is necessary for accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      37.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man experiences a severe motorbike injury and is rushed to the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man experiences a severe motorbike injury and is rushed to the Resuscitation Department of the Emergency Department. Upon arrival, his vital signs are recorded as follows:
      Blood pressure – 200/120
      Heart rate – 45 bpm
      Saturation – 95% on 4 l of oxygen
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Possible Traumatic Injuries and their Manifestations

      Extradural Haematoma, Tension Pneumothorax, Subdural Haematoma, Splenic Rupture, and Bronchial Rupture are possible traumatic injuries that can occur in high-velocity trauma. Each injury has its own unique manifestations that can help identify the injury.

      Extradural Haematoma is a possible injury that can cause a Cushing’s reflex, resulting in severe hypertension and bradycardia. This injury is caused by a tear in the middle meningeal artery, leading to the formation of a haematoma between the skull and dura mater.

      Tension Pneumothorax can cause tachycardia and hypotension due to restricted venous return caused by raised intrapleural pressures. A sympathetic response occurs in an attempt to increase cardiac output.

      Subdural Haematoma can also cause raised intracranial pressure and a Cushing’s reflex, but it is caused by torn bridging veins between the dura and arachnoid layers of the meninges. This injury is more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy and can occur with low-velocity injuries.

      Splenic Rupture can cause blood loss, resulting in a sympathetic response that manifests as hypotension and tachycardia.

      Bronchial Rupture is an uncommon injury that would not cause severe hypertension and bradycardia. Additionally, oxygen saturations of 95% would not be likely with bronchial rupture.

      In conclusion, understanding the manifestations of possible traumatic injuries can aid in identifying the injury and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a sudden-onset severe headache...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a sudden-onset severe headache and vomiting that started an hour ago. He has no significant medical history but is a smoker and drinks socially. The doctor suspects a subarachnoid haemorrhage and wants to perform the most appropriate first-line investigation to confirm the diagnosis.

      What is the most suitable initial test to confirm the suspected diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: CT scan without contrast

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Investigations for Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a medical emergency that requires urgent investigation and management. The following diagnostic investigations are commonly used to diagnose and manage SAH:

      CT Scan without Contrast: This is the first line investigation for every patient suspected of having SAH. A positive scan will show a hyperdense area in the basal cisterns. If SAH is confirmed, further imaging with angiography is required to locate the bleed and treat it appropriately.

      Fundal Examination: Although fundal examination may show some abnormal findings, it is not a diagnostic investigation for SAH.

      MRI Scan: MRI scan is considered less optimal for detecting SAH due to longer study times and higher cost implications. The sensitivity of MRI in detecting SAH is thought to be equal or less sensitive to that of CT scanning.

      CT Angiogram: A CT angiogram is appropriate after acute SAH is confirmed via CT without contrast. The CT angiogram may then be used to confirm the origin of the bleed.

      Lumbar Puncture: In a small percentage of patients with SAH, CT head can be normal. A lumbar puncture should be performed in patients with suspected SAH and a normal CT of the head as long as the CT scan showed no contraindications. The lumbar puncture should ideally be delayed for 4-12 hours to diagnose xanthochromia reliably. Microscopy of the CSF is unreliable because many lumbar punctures are traumatic, and therefore red blood cells will be seen even in the absence of SAH.

      Diagnostic Investigations for Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with back pain. The pain...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with back pain. The pain has come on gradually over several weeks and is getting worse. He denies any shooting pain down his legs. He has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He was also diagnosed with localised prostate cancer five years ago and was treated with radiotherapy as he declined surgery. The prostate showed a significant reduction in size following the radiotherapy. On examination, there is a mild reduction in power in his legs and reduced anal tone on digital rectal examination.
      Which imaging modality would be most useful to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) spine

      Explanation:

      Importance of Appropriate Imaging in Spinal Cord Compression

      Spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that requires urgent investigation and appropriate management. The choice of imaging modality is crucial in determining the cause and extent of the compression.

      For a patient with a history of malignancy who develops gradual-onset back pain, an urgent MRI spine is required to investigate the possibility of metastatic cancer to the spine. Failure to diagnose this condition promptly could result in severe paralysis.

      In cases of spinal cord compression, a non-urgent (routine) CT scan would be inadequate as it does not allow for detailed soft tissue viewing. Similarly, an X-ray of the spine would only show the vertebrae and not the extent of the compression.

      Delaying investigation of spinal cord compression could result in permanent spinal cord damage. Therefore, appropriate imaging, such as an urgent MRI spine, is crucial in guiding further management and preventing irreversible damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of abnormal sensations in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of abnormal sensations in his right hand and forearm. He reports experiencing numbness and tingling in the back of his hand, particularly around his thumb, index, and middle finger. Additionally, he has noticed weakness in his elbow and wrist. Upon examination, the GP observes reduced power in elbow and wrist extension on the right side. The patient denies any history of trauma to the arm and does not engage in extreme sports. He works as a security agent and often sleeps in a chair during his night shifts. X-rays of the right wrist, elbow, and shoulder reveal no apparent fractures. What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Radial Nerve Palsy from Other Upper Limb Pathologies

      Radial nerve palsy is a condition that affects the extensors of the wrist and forearms, as well as the sensation of the back of the hands at the thumb, index, middle, and radial side of the ring finger. It is often caused by compression or injury to the radial nerve, which can occur from sleeping in an awkward position or other trauma. This condition is commonly referred to as Saturday night palsy.

      It is important to differentiate radial nerve palsy from other upper limb pathologies, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, Erb’s palsy, cubital tunnel syndrome, and Klumpke’s palsy. Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of the median nerve at the wrist, causing tingling, numbness, and pain in the palmar side of the thumb, index, middle, and ring finger area. Erb’s palsy is an injury to the brachial plexus involving the upper roots, usually occurring during delivery and causing an adducted and internally rotated shoulder with elbow extension, pronation, and wrist flexion. Cubital tunnel syndrome involves impingement of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, causing numbness and tingling at the ulnar side of the ring finger and small finger, and potentially leading to an ulnar claw deformity. Klumpke’s palsy is an injury to the brachial plexus involving the lower roots, usually occurring during delivery and causing a claw hand and potentially Horner syndrome.

      By understanding the specific symptoms and causes of each condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients with upper limb pathologies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      141.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient has returned to the ward, following a neurosurgical procedure to remove...

    Correct

    • A patient has returned to the ward, following a neurosurgical procedure to remove a large benign cyst. Over the next few hours, she becomes less alert and the neurosurgeon is recalled. The patient is unable to deviate her right eye medially. At rest, her eye appears to point downwards and laterally and the right pupil appears to be dilated.
      Which nerve has been affected?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerves Involved in Eye Movement and Vision

      The movement of the eye is controlled by seven extraocular muscles, each with a specific function. The levator palpebrae superioris elevates the upper eyelid, while the superior rectus elevates the eyeball and the inferior rectus depresses it. The medial rectus adducts the eyeball, while the lateral rectus abducts it. The superior oblique depresses, abducts, and medially rotates the eyeball, and the inferior oblique elevates, abducts, and laterally rotates it. These muscles are innervated by the oculomotor nerve, except for the superior oblique and lateral rectus, which are supplied by the trochlear and abducens nerve, respectively.

      The trochlear nerve is responsible for the motor function of the superior oblique muscle, while the optic nerve is associated with vision. The abducens nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, and damage to this nerve results in the inability to laterally gaze. The ciliary nerve contains sensory and sympathetic fibers that innervate the dilator pupillae muscle, triggering its contraction and causing pupillary dilation. However, it is not involved in the movement of the eye.

      Injury to the oculomotor nerve can lead to a down and out eyeball, externally rotated and depressed, due to the unopposed actions of the lateral rectus and superior oblique. Diseases like diabetes or stroke affect the somatic fibers preferentially and do not affect the pupil, while direct compression or injury of the nerve affects parasympathetic fibers and leads to pupil dilation. A trochlear nerve palsy causes the eye to be adducted, elevated, and externally rotated, while optic nerve injury results in partial or complete visual loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 37-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided hearing loss...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided hearing loss and tinnitus that have been ongoing for three months. He also reports experiencing dizziness, which has now progressed to difficulty walking steadily. Audiometry confirms sensorineural hearing loss in his left ear, and a contrast magnetic resonance imaging scan indicates that he has a tumor with characteristics consistent with an acoustic neuroma. Which type of cell is linked to the excessive growth of an acoustic neuroma?

      Your Answer: Schwann cell

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Cells Involved in Neurological Tumors

      Neurological tumors can arise from various cells in the central and peripheral nervous systems. It is important to understand the different types of cells involved in these tumors to accurately diagnose and treat them.

      Schwann cells are responsible for the pathogenesis of acoustic neuromas, which are benign tumors of the vestibulocochlear nerve. These cells surround nerves in the peripheral nervous system. Symptoms of acoustic neuromas include unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo.

      Microglial cells are immune cells in the central nervous system, but they do not typically form neurological tumors.

      Astrocytes are glial cells in the central nervous system and are responsible for the most common type of glioma, but this patient’s symptoms are consistent with a peripheral nervous system tumor of glial origin.

      Ependymal cells form the epithelial lining of the ventricles in the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. Although they can cause ependymomas, which are a type of brain tumor, the symptoms present are not consistent with this and ependymal cells are not responsible for acoustic neuromas.

      Satellite cells are neuroglial cells of the peripheral nervous system, but they are unlikely to be responsible for acoustic neuromas. Over-proliferation of Schwann cells is the pathogenesis of this type of tumor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 76-year-old man is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department by the paramedics....

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department by the paramedics. His daughter reported that her father had been having slurred speech since he woke up and that he had fallen out of bed 2 days previously. Upon radiological examination, it was determined that the patient suffered from a subdural haematoma.
      If untreated, which of the following will most likely be a complication?

      Your Answer: Recurrent haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Complications of Subdural Hematoma: Recurrent Hemorrhage and Axonal Tearing

      Subdural hematoma is a type of intracranial bleed that can lead to various complications. One common complication is recurrent hemorrhage, which occurs due to the breakdown and organization of the hematoma. As the hematoma becomes organized, it can retract and leave behind a thin layer of reactive connective tissue. Bleeding can then occur from the vessels of the granulation tissue.

      Another complication of subdural hematoma is axonal tearing, which typically happens when there is rapid displacement of the head and brain, such as during a high-velocity road traffic collision or a significant fall from height.

      It is important to note that epidural hemorrhage, berry aneurysm, and subarachnoid hemorrhage are not complications of subdural hematoma. Epidural hemorrhage is caused by disruption of the middle meningeal artery and requires urgent neurosurgical intervention. Berry aneurysm is a primary vascular malformation that can lead to subarachnoid hemorrhage, but it is not related to subdural hematoma. Finally, subdural hematoma is unlikely to cause a subsequent subarachnoid bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      144.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a progressive decline in...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a progressive decline in mental status and a past medical history of worsening gait and frequent falls. An MRI scan shows enlargement of the ventricular system, suggesting hydrocephalus. What other symptom would indicate a diagnosis of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

      Your Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is a condition characterized by the enlargement of cerebral ventricles, which can lead to a classical triad of symptoms including dementia, urinary incontinence, and gait apraxia. While it is typically seen in the elderly, it is a gradual and progressive disorder that can be potentially reversible. However, it is important to note that symptoms such as loss of inhibitions and inappropriate behavior are more likely to lead to a diagnosis of frontotemporal dementia rather than NPH. Resting tremors, seizures, and hallucinations are also not typically associated with NPH. Diagnosis involves testing mental status before and after a lumbar puncture, and treatment may involve therapeutic drainage of cerebrospinal fluid or placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a headache after being...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a headache after being referred by his General Practitioner (GP). The GP referral letter mentions that the patient presented with a history of fluctuating consciousness levels for the past week. The wife reports that her husband had a fall about a week ago and since then, he seemed to be a different man. The patient mentions that he has been experiencing a dull headache which did not respond to regular paracetamol. He denies nausea, vomiting and photophobia.
      On examination, the vital signs are stable, the patient is apyrexial and there are no rashes. The patient has a past medical history of alcohol dependence, liver cirrhosis, gout and hypertension. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the patient’s head shows a crescent-shaped area of haemorrhage with midline shift of the brain structures.
      What is the best next management step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Burr hole drainage

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Subdural Haemorrhage: Burr Hole Drainage, Mannitol, Nimodipine, Endovascular Coiling, and Aspirin

      Subdural haemorrhage is a serious medical condition that requires prompt treatment. The most common treatment option for subdural haemorrhage is burr hole drainage, which involves removing the haematoma and relieving the compression of the brain. Mannitol is another treatment option that is used to reduce intracranial pressure if signs of intracranial pressure are present. Nimodipine is used in cases of subarachnoid haemorrhage to reduce vasospasm, which is often an acute complication of subarachnoid haemorrhage and leads to cerebral ischaemia. Endovascular coiling is a treatment for subarachnoid haemorrhage and is not indicated for subdural haemorrhage. Aspirin is contraindicated in the case of a haemorrhagic stroke or intracranial haemorrhage, as it can worsen bleeding. Therefore, it is important to rule out bleeding as the cause of the patient’s symptoms before administering aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 64-year-old computer programmer reported experiencing frequent headaches to his GP. Upon examination,...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old computer programmer reported experiencing frequent headaches to his GP. Upon examination, the GP observed papilloedema and pupillary dilation and referred the patient for further radiological studies and to a neurologist. The results of the radiological studies revealed a mass causing non-communicating hydrocephalus. Where is the most likely location of the tumour?

      Your Answer: Pineal gland

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Non-Communicating Hydrocephalus

      Non-communicating hydrocephalus can be caused by various factors, including a pinealoma, which is a slow-growing tumor of the pineal gland. This type of tumor can compress the midbrain cerebral aqueduct, leading to a blockage in the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the lateral and third ventricles to the fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space. To address this issue, surgical placement of a shunt may be necessary.

      Another possible cause of non-communicating hydrocephalus is a midbrain tumor, such as a pinealoma, which can compress the Edinger-Westphal nuclei. This can result in mydriasis or dilation of the pupil due to the lack of parasympathetic input from the Edinger-Westphal nuclei to the oculomotor muscles.

      It is important to note that a cerebellar lesion is unlikely to cause non-communicating hydrocephalus, as it is associated with defects in coordination and changes in gait. Similarly, an optic nerve lesion is also unlikely to cause this condition, as afferent fibers from the retina pass through the optic nerve to the hypothalamic lateral geniculate nucleus. A lesion in the lateral geniculate nucleus is more likely to cause visual symptoms rather than non-communicating hydrocephalus.

      In summary, understanding the possible causes of non-communicating hydrocephalus can help in identifying and addressing the underlying issue. A thorough evaluation and diagnosis by a medical professional is necessary for proper treatment and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old soccer player hits the side of his head on a goal...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old soccer player hits the side of his head on a goal post while attempting to make a save. Initially, he seems disoriented but quickly recovers and walks off the field without assistance. However, after the game ends, approximately 60 minutes later, he experiences confusion and complains of a severe headache. He stumbles and falls before becoming drowsy and starting to lose consciousness. Emergency services are contacted.
      Which artery is most likely to have been affected by the impact to this individual's head?

      Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Head: Middle Meningeal, Temporal, Occipital, Supraorbital, and Posterior Auricular Arteries

      The head is supplied by various arteries, each with its own unique course and function. One of these arteries is the middle meningeal artery, which arises from the maxillary artery and enters the middle cranial fossa via the foramen spinosum. It supplies the dura and calvaria and can be injured by a direct blow to the side of the head, resulting in an extradural hematoma.

      Another important artery is the temporal artery, which originates from the external carotid artery and supplies various parts of the scalp and face. It is commonly biopsied to aid in the diagnosis of temporal arthritis.

      The occipital artery, on the other hand, arises from the external carotid artery at the level of the digastric muscle and supplies the neck and auricular structures. It is not involved in blunt trauma to the side of the head.

      The supraorbital artery, a branch of the ophthalmic artery, supplies the extraocular muscles and exits the orbit via the supraorbital notch. It is not damaged in blunt injuries to the side of the head as it runs in the frontal area.

      Lastly, the posterior auricular artery, a branch of the external carotid artery, supplies the auricle and the scalp posterior to it. It ascends posteriorly to the parotid gland, between the auricular cartilage and mastoid process of the temporal bone.

      Understanding the different arteries of the head is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient presents to the Emergency Department after being assaulted. She tells you...

    Correct

    • A patient presents to the Emergency Department after being assaulted. She tells you that this occurred a few hours ago and she has taken several blows to the head. On examination, there is bruising around the eyes. Clear fluid can be seen discharging from her nose.
      Where is the patient’s pathology likely to be?

      Your Answer: Cribriform plate

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skull Fractures and their Symptoms

      Skull fractures can have varying symptoms depending on the location of the fracture. A fracture of the cribriform plate can result in periorbital ecchymosis and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from the nose. In such cases, nasogastric tubes or nasal airway adjuncts should be avoided to prevent the tube from entering the cranial cavity.

      Fractures of the occiput bone and middle cranial fossa can present with similar symptoms such as bruising around the mastoid process (‘battle sign’), haemotympanum, and otorrhoea. However, an occiput fracture may also cause CSF leak from the ear.

      Fractures of the frontal bone are likely to have a wound at the site of the fracture but are unlikely to cause CSF leak. Similarly, zygoma fractures are unlikely to cause CSF leak. Understanding the symptoms associated with different skull fractures can aid in their proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He has no significant medical history. Upon physical examination, there is a loss of proprioception on his left side below the umbilical line, and complete loss of sensation at the umbilical line. Furthermore, there is a loss of thermal and pain sensation in the groin area and below, on the right side. Radiological imaging reveals a mass on the spine. What is the most likely location of the mass?

      Your Answer: Lumbar level 1 on the left side

      Correct Answer: Thoracic level 10 on the right side

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensory Loss in Spinal Lesions at Different Levels

      Spinal lesions can cause a range of sensory deficits depending on the level of the injury. For example, a lesion at the right tenth thoracic level can result in Brown-Séquard syndrome, with loss of tactile discrimination and vibratory and proprioceptive sensations on the ipsilateral side below the lesion, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral side 2-3 levels below the lesion. However, a lesion at lumbar level 1 on the left side would cause sensory loss on the opposite side, around the level of the anterior superior iliac spines. It’s important to note that the umbilical line is innervated by T10, so a lesion at T11 on either side would spare sensation at this level. Understanding these patterns of sensory loss can aid in diagnosing and treating spinal lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      156.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being involved...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being involved in a motor vehicle accident, in which he was thrown from a motorcycle. In the ED, the patient is unresponsive. Neurological examination shows intact pupillary and corneal reflexes, but the rest of the examination cannot be completed. Thirty minutes later, computerised tomography (CT) reveals uncal herniation of the right temporal lobe, and the patient is rushed to surgery.
      What physical examination finding change is most consistent with this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Right pupillary dilation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pupillary Dilation in Head Trauma Patients

      Head trauma patients are at risk of decompensating quickly due to cerebral edema causing intracranial pressure to rise. This can lead to herniation of the temporal lobe towards the tentorium cerebelli, resulting in pressure being transmitted to the brainstem. One of the consequences of uncal herniation of the temporal lobe is the compression of the ipsilateral oculomotor nerve, which contains both somatic efferent and visceral efferent components. Dysfunction of the visceral efferent component can cause pupillary dilation, or a ‘blown pupil’, on the affected side.

      It is important to note that left pupillary dilation is unlikely in this scenario as it would only occur if pressure was transmitted to the contralateral midbrain. Similarly, right pupillary constriction would only occur with activation, not compromise, of the visceral efferent component. Deviation of the pupil medially would be caused by injury to cranial nerve VI, while injury to the left oculomotor nerve would cause a ‘down and out’ injury, resulting in depression and abduction of the left pupil. However, these scenarios are less likely in the case of a right-sided temporal lobe herniation.

      In summary, understanding pupillary dilation in head trauma patients can provide valuable insights into the severity and location of the injury, allowing for prompt and appropriate medical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter after...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter after being found collapsed at home by his caregiver. He is complaining of a headache and appears confused. The patient has a history of an irregular heartbeat and takes digoxin and warfarin. On examination, there is no evidence of trauma or injury. The patient is confused with a Mini Mental score of 24/30 and is slightly drowsy but can be easily awakened. He has mild weakness in his left arm and leg, and the left plantar response is extensor. Urgent blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 111 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), an INR of 5.7 (usual range for this patient: 2-3), and a urea level of 9.6 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l). An urgent CT scan is ordered. What is the most likely finding on the CT scan?

      Your Answer: Intraparenchymal haematoma in the right temporal lobe with mass effect

      Correct Answer: Right sided acute subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Intracranial Bleeding and Their Causes

      Intracranial bleeding can occur in various forms, each with its own causes and symptoms. Here are some of the different types of intracranial bleeding and their associated factors:

      1. Right Sided Acute Subdural Haematoma
      This type of bleeding can occur in elderly patients who are on anticoagulation therapy, especially if their INR levels are higher than the therapeutic limits. The symptoms include fluctuating confusion and conscious level, and a history of trauma is not always necessary.

      2. Intraparenchymal Haematoma in the Right Temporal Lobe with Mass Effect
      This type of bleeding is usually caused by trauma, hypertension, or an underlying neoplastic lesion. It is less common than subdural haematoma.

      3. Right Sided Extradural Haematoma
      Extradural haematoma is associated with significant head trauma.

      4. Right Sided Chronic Subdural Haematoma
      Chronic subdural haematoma has a longer, insidious course and is often accompanied by headache, impaired conscious level, and focal signs. Over-anticoagulation can increase the likelihood of this type of bleeding.

      5. Right Sided Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
      Subarachnoid haemorrhage is usually caused by significant trauma or a ruptured aneurysm.

      Overall, the elderly are more at risk of subdural haematomas due to factors such as thinner cortical bridging veins, increased subdural space, and increased probability of falls and use of medications that alter blood clotting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in an altercation, during which he was stabbed in his lower back. On examination, he has right leg weakness in all muscle groups. Further examination reveals that he has loss of vibration and proprioception on the same side. In his left leg, there is loss of pain and temperature sensation, but preserved motor strength. He has no problems with bladder or bowel retention. His motor strength is preserved in his upper limbs.
      With which one of the following spinal cord syndromes is his presentation consistent?

      Your Answer: Posterior cord syndrome

      Correct Answer: Hemisection of the cord

      Explanation:

      Overview of Spinal Cord Syndromes

      Spinal cord syndromes are a group of neurological disorders that affect the spinal cord and its associated nerves. These syndromes can be caused by various factors, including trauma, infection, and degenerative diseases. Here are some of the most common spinal cord syndromes:

      Hemisection of the Cord (Brown-Sequard Syndrome)
      This syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, as well as ipsilateral hemiplegia. On the other hand, there is contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Hemisection of the cord is usually caused by a stab injury.

      Central Cord Syndrome
      Central cord syndrome causes bilateral weakness of the limbs, with the upper limbs being more affected than the lower extremities. This is because the upper limbs are represented medially in the corticospinal tracts.

      Anterior Cord Syndrome
      In anterior cord syndrome, proprioception, vibratory sense, and light touch are preserved. However, there is bilateral weakness and loss of pain and temperature sensation due to involvement of the spinothalamic tracts.

      Posterior Cord Syndrome
      Posterior cord syndrome is characterized by loss of vibratory sense and proprioception below the level of the lesion, as well as total sensory loss at the level of the lesion.

      Cauda Equina Syndrome
      Cauda equina syndrome is caused by compressive lesions at L4/L5 or L5/S1. Symptoms include asymmetric weakness, saddle anesthesia, decreased reflexes at the knee, and radicular pain. Bowel and bladder retention may develop as late complications.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of spinal cord syndromes is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 21 - A 36-year-old man is brought in by ambulance to the Emergency Department resuscitation...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man is brought in by ambulance to the Emergency Department resuscitation area. As the driver of a car, he has been involved in a head-on collision with a lorry. He suffered a 5-min episode of loss of consciousness and now complains of a severe right temporal headache. His right pupil is slightly larger than his left pupil. You notice that his eyes open to speech, he is able to localise pain, and he can talk properly after mildly irritating him, but he appears disorientated. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

      Your Answer: 12

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness following a head injury. It measures the best eye, verbal, and motor responses and assigns a total score. A fully conscious patient will score 15/15, while the lowest possible score is 3/15 (a score of 0 is not possible).

      The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s eye, verbal, and motor responses. The eyes can open spontaneously (4 points), in response to speech (3 points), in response to pain (2 points), or not at all (1 point). The verbal response is assessed based on orientation (5 points), confusion (4 points), inappropriate words (3 points), inappropriate sounds (2 points), or no response (1 point). The motor response is evaluated based on the patient’s ability to obey commands (6 points), localize pain (5 points), withdraw from pain (4 points), exhibit abnormal flexion (3 points), exhibit abnormal extension (2 points), or show no response (1 point).

      The appropriate GCS score is determined based on the examination findings, and any other score would be incorrect. If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway, which usually means intubation. The GCS provides a common language between clinicians when discussing a patient’s condition and helps to objectively measure their conscious state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old woman with a long history of arthritis presents with worsening difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with a long history of arthritis presents with worsening difficulty walking. Upon examination, she displays several neurological abnormalities in her lower limbs. However, her upper limbs and cranial nerves appear normal. An MRI scan reveals a ruptured intervertebral disc at the L3-4 level. The diagnosis is cauda equina syndrome.
      What is a characteristic of this syndrome?

      Your Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cauda Equina Syndrome: Symptoms and Signs

      Cauda equina syndrome is a condition that affects the bundle of nerves at the lower end of the spinal cord. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of this syndrome to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

      One of the key features of cauda equina syndrome is bladder and bowel dysfunction due to autonomic nerve involvement. This can result in urinary incontinence, which is often one of the first symptoms to appear. However, it is important to note that a lesion at the L3-4 level would not be associated with upper motor neuron signs.

      Another potential symptom of cauda equina syndrome is bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. This is typically only seen in cases where the spinal cord injury is located in the cervical or high thoracic region.

      While cauda equina syndrome can cause weakness and sensory loss in the lower limbs, it is important to note that this is due to a lower motor neuron lesion, not an upper motor neuron lesion. Similarly, a lesion in the upper limbs would have to be higher to cause neurological symptoms and signs.

      Finally, it is worth noting that a positive Babinski reflex is not typically associated with cauda equina syndrome. This reflex is a sign of an upper motor neuron lesion, which is not typically seen in this condition.

      Overall, recognizing the symptoms and signs of cauda equina syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you or someone you know is experiencing bladder or bowel dysfunction, weakness or sensory loss in the lower limbs, or other potential symptoms of this condition, it is important to seek medical attention right away.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man came to the Emergency Department following a seizure at home,...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man came to the Emergency Department following a seizure at home, which he had never experienced before. He experienced moderate weakness on his left side during the initial postictal period, which quickly subsided. He is disoriented, and his wife reports that he has been experiencing dull, throbbing headaches that he can feel throughout his head. He has a medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes, which he manages with an ACE inhibitor and metformin. Upon neurological examination, the patient exhibits reduced strength in his right upper limb.

      What is the definitive diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Investigation for Neurological Symptoms: A Comparison of Imaging Techniques

      When a patient presents with neurological symptoms, it is important to choose the right investigation to identify any underlying pathology. In this article, we compare four common imaging techniques and a neurological examination to determine their usefulness in different scenarios.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is the gold standard investigation for identifying space-occupying lesions of the brain. It offers the greatest quality image and is particularly useful for patients with chronic neurological symptoms, reduced power on one side of the body, confusion, and new onset seizures.

      Computed tomography (CT) brain is an appropriate investigation for patients with new onset seizures and focal neurological findings. However, an MRI brain provides greater clarity and resolution in identifying underlying pathology, making it the preferred investigation for space-occupying brain lesions.

      Computed tomography (CT) brain with contrast is helpful in identifying central nervous system tumours or infections. However, an MRI brain is still the more detailed investigation for significant brain pathology.

      A neurological examination is an important and sensitive test that can point to a region or type of pathology. However, its specificity in identifying different pathologies is fairly low, making it necessary to follow up with more advanced imaging techniques.

      X-ray head and neck is appropriate for suspected fractures or dislocations in the cervical spine, but not for identifying neurological symptoms.

      In conclusion, choosing the right investigation for neurological symptoms depends on the specific symptoms and suspected underlying pathology. MRI brain is the gold standard for identifying space-occupying lesions, while CT brain with contrast is helpful for identifying tumours or infections. A neurological examination is a useful initial test, but more advanced imaging techniques are often necessary for a definitive diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old man presents with sudden-onset severe occipital headache and neck stiffness. His...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with sudden-onset severe occipital headache and neck stiffness. His wife helped him into bed but had to call an ambulance after he became increasingly confused and drowsy. He is currently under investigation for chronic renal failure. On examination, his Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is 6 and his blood pressure is elevated at 192/100 mmHg. There are bilateral ballotable renal masses on abdominal palpation.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 189 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease is suggested by the presence of chronic renal failure and bilateral renal masses on abdominal examination. This disease is associated with cerebral ‘berry’ aneurysms, which may rupture and cause subarachnoid hemorrhage. A CT head can confirm the presence of subarachnoid blood, but if negative, a lumbar puncture should be performed to look for evidence of hemoglobin breakdown products. Focal neurology, absence of neck stiffness, and increased age are more indicative of an embolic stroke. Extradural hemorrhage is associated with significant head trauma, while subdural hemorrhage is more common in the elderly, particularly those on anticoagulation. Pituitary apoplexy, which is bleeding or impaired blood supply to the pituitary gland, can cause sudden-onset headache and subsequent adrenal crises due to pituitary failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 25 - A 14-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of headaches, delayed puberty,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of headaches, delayed puberty, growth retardation, and difficulty with spatial awareness. Upon visual field testing, a bitemporal hemianopia is observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Correct Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for an adolescent with growth hormone deficiency and an intracranial mass

      Craniopharyngioma, suprasellar meningioma, pituitary adenoma, and multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) are among the possible diagnoses for an adolescent with growth hormone deficiency and an intracranial mass. Craniopharyngioma is the most common cause of growth hormone deficiency in children, while suprasellar meningioma is rare in adolescents and may present with gradual-onset headache and visual field defects. Pituitary adenoma is more common in adults, but can also occur in adolescents. MEN typically involves multiple endocrine organs and may present with a variety of endocrine manifestations, but the pattern of symptoms in this case does not fit with MEN. Constitutional delay is a common cause of delayed puberty, but the presence of visual field deficits suggests a need for further evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      23.9
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old ice hockey player was tackled by a member of the opposite...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old ice hockey player was tackled by a member of the opposite team and fell on the ice, hitting the right side of his head. He was disoriented but was able to continue the game. The following evening, his roommate tried to wake him but found him unconscious in a pool of vomit.
      What is the most probable finding in a CT scan of his head?

      Your Answer: Unilateral biconvex-shaped shadow along the lateral cortex

      Explanation:

      Understanding CT Scans: Interpreting Brain Hematomas

      Brain hematomas are a serious medical condition that require prompt diagnosis and treatment. CT scans are often used to identify the location and type of hematoma present in the brain. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting CT scans of brain hematomas:

      Unilateral Biconvex-Shaped Shadow Along the Lateral Cortex
      This is a classic case of an extradural hematoma, which occurs when temporal skull fractures damage the middle meningeal artery. Blood accumulates under arterial pressure, causing separation of the dura from the inner surface of the skull. A lucid period of several hours without symptoms may occur, but rapid blood accumulation will increase intracranial pressure, leading to uncal or transtentorial herniation and death.

      Bilateral Crescent-Shaped Shadow Along the Lateral Cortex
      This is an incorrect interpretation because bilateral accumulation of blood is unlikely when the patient has only injured one side of their head.

      Unilateral Crescent-Shaped Shadow Along the Lateral Cortex
      This describes a subdural hematoma, which occurs when blood accumulates between the inner surface of the dura and the outer arachnoid layer of the leptomeninges. This type of hematoma appears as a crescent-shaped shadow on a CT scan.

      Unilateral Biconvex-Shaped Area Along the Anterior Cortex
      This is also an incorrect interpretation because accumulation of blood occurs beside the torn artery, which is typically located along the lateral cortex.

      Shifting of the Brain Midline Towards the Side of the Lesion
      This is an incorrect interpretation because pressure due to an accumulation of blood will tend to shift the midline of the brain to the opposite side of the lesion.

      In summary, understanding the different types of brain hematomas and their corresponding CT scan appearances is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old man is currently in the Neurosurgical Intensive Care Unit (ICU) following...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man is currently in the Neurosurgical Intensive Care Unit (ICU) following a subarachnoid haemorrhage. He had surgery to manage occlusive hydrocephalus that arose as a result of his bleed. He has an intraventricular pressure monitor in place to monitor his intracranial pressure.
      What is a true statement about intracranial pressure?

      Your Answer: Intravenous mannitol is used to decrease intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intracranial Pressure and the Use of Mannitol

      Intracranial pressure refers to the pressure within the skull and is determined by the brain parenchyma, cerebrospinal fluid, and blood. Mannitol, a sugar alcohol, is used intravenously to decrease intracranial pressure by drawing water out of the CSF and reducing its volume. Other methods include hypertonic saline, hyperventilation, and positioning the patient’s head at a 30-degree angle. In extreme cases, a decompressive craniectomy may be necessary. Normal intracranial pressure is <15 mmHg in healthy adults and relatively lower in children. Lateral rectus palsy, a weakness in eye movement, can be a sign of raised intracranial pressure but is not always present. Understanding intracranial pressure and the use of mannitol can aid in the treatment of neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      32.9
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  • Question 28 - A 75-year-old man with a long history of back pain complains of severe...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with a long history of back pain complains of severe pain in the thoracic spine. When the patient was 40-years-old, he underwent spinal fusion surgery where the T5 and T6 vertebrae were fused together with metal rods. His consultant decides to order a diagnostic imaging study of the thoracic spine.
      Which of the following imaging modalities would be the MOST appropriate to order, based on the patient’s past surgical history?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Imaging Test for Thoracic Spine Assessment After Surgery

      When assessing a patient with a history of spinal fusion surgery, it is important to choose the appropriate imaging test to avoid potential harm. In this case, computed tomography (CT) of the thoracic spine would be the most useful investigation, as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is contraindicated due to the metal rods used in the surgery. Conventional radiography may be useful for initial assessment, but CT provides more detailed information. Ultrasonography is not useful in this context, and fluoroscopy is more appropriate for interventional radiology. It is crucial to consider the patient’s surgical history when selecting the appropriate imaging test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old man was watching TV at home and had a fit which...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man was watching TV at home and had a fit which lasted for approximately ten minutes. His wife was with him at home and reports that there was no incontinence or limb jerking. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows left bundle branch block (LBBB). The patient denies any shortness of breath or chest pain before or after the event, and his vital signs are stable. A high-sensitivity troponin assay performed upon admission is negative. The patient is a non-smoker, suffers from well-controlled hypertension and has no significant family history. He is a retired plumber.
      What is the next best investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Coronary angiogram

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) head

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with New-Onset Seizure

      When a patient experiences a new-onset seizure, it is important to determine if there is an underlying intracranial pathology such as a space-occupying lesion. A CT scan of the head is the most appropriate diagnostic test to guide any further neurosurgical treatment if needed.

      An EEG would only be helpful during a seizure activity and confirm that a seizure was occurring. If the patient has repeated seizures, a 24-hour ambulatory EEG would be useful in the diagnosis.

      A coronary angiogram would be appropriate if the main diagnosis being considered was a myocardial infarction, but in this case, the patient’s LBBB is not of new onset and is not the main concern.

      A urine dipstick would not be helpful in the diagnosis of the patient’s condition as there are no signs of an ongoing urinary tract infection.

      An echocardiogram would be necessary if the patient had chest symptoms or signs suggestive of cardiac tamponade, but in this case, the high-sensitivity troponin assay was negative.

      In summary, a CT scan of the head is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a patient with a new-onset seizure, and other tests should be considered based on the patient’s specific symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 30 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for recent onset of acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for recent onset of acute back pain. For the last three months, she has been having a burning sensation and tingling of the hands and feet. Her past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes, coronary artery disease and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). She is on medication for her hypertension and diabetes which are well controlled. X-ray of thoracic vertebrae demonstrates punched-out lytic lesions.
      Her laboratory investigation report shows the following abnormalities:
      Investigations Results Normal values
      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Haemoglobin 98 g/dl 115–155 g/l
      What is the most appropriate next investigation in this patient?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune antibodies

      Correct Answer: Urine analysis

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Peripheral Neuropathy in a Patient with Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic clonal expansion of plasma cells that produce monoclonal immunoglobulins. It can cause extensive skeletal damage by osteopenia and inducing osteolytic bone lesions. Peripheral neuropathy symptoms (both sensory and motor involvement can be seen) are present in this patient at the same time of the onset of bone pain. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of peripheral neuropathy in a patient with multiple myeloma:

      24-hour urine electrophoresis test: This test could confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma through the identification of Bence-Jones protein, a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma.

      Autoimmune antibodies: Autoimmune conditions like Sjögren syndrome, lupus and rheumatoid arthritis can give rise to symptoms of peripheral neuropathy. However, the patient’s history and clinical findings do not correlate with these conditions.

      Glycosylated haemoglobin: Peripheral neuropathy is a complication of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. However, given that it is well controlled in this patient, it is highly unlikely to be a cause of her symptoms.

      Serum vitamin B12 estimation: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes peripheral neuropathy. However, it does not cause osteolytic lesions in the vertebrae, as in this patient’s case.

      Thyroid function tests: Hypothyroidism, which is long-standing and often untreated, can lead to complications of peripheral neuropathy. However, hypercalcaemia found in this patient would go against this diagnosis and performing thyroid function tests would not be a correct option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 31 - A 38-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with new lower back pain....

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with new lower back pain. The pain started yesterday when she was lifting a heavy item at her workplace. She is otherwise fit and well, and not on any regular medications.
      Which of the following features would suggest an urgent hospital admission should be arranged?

      Your Answer: Loss of perineal sensation

      Explanation:

      Assessing Symptoms of Lower Back Pain: Red Flags and Reassuring Signs

      Lower back pain is a common complaint, but it can sometimes be a sign of a more serious condition. Here are some symptoms to look out for:

      – Loss of perineal sensation: This is a red flag symptom for cauda equina syndrome, a surgical emergency. Urgent admission should be arranged if suspected.
      – Shooting pain down the leg: This is a common symptom of sciatica, which is typically not alarming unless accompanied by red flag symptoms.
      – Back pain worsened by coughing or sneezing: This is a common feature of back pain and is not alarming unless accompanied by red flag symptoms.
      – Downgoing plantar reflexes: This is a reassuring finding and indicates normal plantar reflexes.
      – Pain remaining after 1 week: Acute lower back pain typically improves over 4-6 weeks, so it is not unusual for pain to remain after 1 week. Referral to physiotherapy may be warranted if the patient is not resuming their normal activities.

      It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 32 - Which region of the brain is most likely affected in a child displaying...

    Incorrect

    • Which region of the brain is most likely affected in a child displaying hyperactivity, elation, inappropriate conduct, superficial emotional response, juvenile humor with puns and word games (witzelsucht)?

      Your Answer: Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (parvicellular projections of the medial dorsal thalamus)

      Correct Answer: Orbital, medial prefrontal cortex (magnocellular projections of the medial dorsal thalamus)

      Explanation:

      The Effects of Brain Damage on Specific Regions: A Brief Overview

      Different regions of the brain are responsible for various functions, and damage to these regions can result in specific symptoms. Here are some examples:

      Orbital, medial prefrontal cortex: Damage to this area can cause euphoria, shallow emotions, disinhibition of sexual and aggressive impulses, peculiar verbal humor, and distractibility.

      Dominant parietal lobe: Damage to this area can lead to Gerstmann syndrome, which includes agraphia, acalculia, right-left disorientation, and finger agnosia.

      Posterior frontal cortex (Broca area): Damage to this area can affect language comprehension and production, resulting in fluent aphasia.

      Superior and inferior occipital gyri: Damage to these areas can cause problems with visual recognition, including cortical blindness, prosopagnosia, color agnosia, and alexia.

      Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex: Damage to this area can result in apathy, poverty of speech, hypokinesis, decreased drive or initiative, and diminished capacity to abstract. This syndrome resembles the deficit state of schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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