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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman has been referred to you by her dentist. She underwent a tooth extraction 12 days ago and experienced excessive bleeding, requiring transfer to the maxillofacial unit for suturing. She denies any prior history of bleeding and is in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemophilia
Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease
Explanation:Von Willebrand’s disease is a commonly inherited clotting disorder that is often characterized by prolonged bleeding after minor injuries, particularly mucosal membrane injuries. This autosomal dominant condition is caused by a reduction or structural abnormality of von Willebrand’s factor, which plays a crucial role in promoting normal platelet function and stabilizing coagulation factor VIII. Although screening tests may yield normal results, a specialist investigation and assay of von Willebrand Factor may be necessary for diagnosis. While most patients with mild disease respond well to desmopressin (DDAVP), clotting factor concentrates may be required for a minority. It is important to note that prolonged bleeding following dental extraction may be a sign of von Willebrand’s disease.
Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease
Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.
The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old otherwise healthy man comes to his General Practitioner with a 4-day history of a sore throat. It is painful to swallow but he is able to maintain his fluid intake. He is afebrile and has a mild cough. On examination, his tonsils are severely inflamed bilaterally but there is no exudate. There is tender cervical lymphadenopathy present.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: A prescription should be given for phenoxymethylpenicillin
Correct Answer: An antibiotic is not indicated
Explanation:Antibiotic Decision Making in a Case of Tonsillitis
Explanation:
When it comes to treating tonsillitis, the decision to prescribe antibiotics should be based on the severity of the infection and the presence of certain criteria. The Centor criteria, which include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough, can help determine if streptococcal infection is present. A FeverPAIN score can also be used to assess the severity of tonsillitis.
In the case of an otherwise healthy, afebrile patient with a Centor score of one for lymphadenopathy and a FeverPAIN score of one for severe tonsil inflammation, antibiotics are not indicated. However, if the condition doesn’t improve or worsens, a reassessment should be offered.
Admission to the hospital for fluids is not necessary if the patient is able to maintain fluid intake despite painful swallowing and shows no other signs of systemic illness.
If antibiotics are deemed necessary, a delayed prescription for phenoxymethylpenicillin may be given if the FeverPAIN score is two or three. Clarithromycin may be prescribed as a second-line option if there is a true penicillin allergy and group A streptococcus is suspected as the cause, based on a FeverPAIN score of four or five or Centor score of three or four. Phenoxymethylpenicillin would be the first-line option in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with chronic left iliac fossa pain and alternating bowel habit is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. She has been treated with a combination of antispasmodics, laxatives and anti-motility agents for 6 months but there has been no significant improvement in her symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step according to recent NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: Low-dose tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:NICE suggests that psychological interventions should be taken into account after a period of 12 months. Tricyclic antidepressants are recommended over selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his face, neck, and trunk that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved. The patient is becoming increasingly self-conscious about them and seeks treatment. Upon examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, as well as nodules, pustules, and scarring. The patient is in good health, with normal vital signs.
What is the most appropriate initial approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: Trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide
Correct Answer: Refer to dermatology
Explanation:A patient with severe acne, including scarring, hyperpigmentation, and widespread pustules, should be referred to a dermatologist for specialized treatment. In this case, the patient has nodules, pustules, and scarring, indicating the need for consideration of oral isotretinoin. A trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide would not be appropriate for severe and widespread acne, but may be suitable for mild to moderate cases. Same-day hospital admission is unnecessary for a patient with normal observations and no other health concerns. A review in 2 months is not appropriate for severe acne, which should be managed with topical therapies, oral antibiotics, or referral to a dermatologist. Topical antibiotics are also not recommended for severe and widespread acne, and a dermatology referral is necessary for this patient with lesions on the face, neck, and trunk.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following fitting of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD).
He had several episodes of sustained ventricular tachycardia requiring hospital admission before having the defibrillator implanted. He needs a medical certificate for work as he is a travelling salesman and has to drive for his work.
How long should he refrain from driving a car following the fitting of an implantable defibrillator?Your Answer: 1 month
Correct Answer: 2 months
Explanation:Driving Restrictions for Patients with ICDs
Patients who have received an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for sustained ventricular arrhythmias should be aware of driving restrictions. For the first six months after the initial implant, patients should not drive. Additionally, after any shock therapy or symptomatic anti-tachycardia pacing, patients should refrain from driving for an additional six months. It is important for patients to follow these guidelines to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The practice nurse is seeking advice on malaria prophylaxis for a 26-year-old female patient who is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception and has a history of anxiety treated with sertraline two years ago. What would be the most suitable recommendation?
Your Answer: Mefloquine may be safely prescribed
Correct Answer: Mefloquine may not be prescribed due to the history of anxiety
Explanation:Strengthened Warnings on the Neuropsychiatric Side-Effects of Mefloquine
Mefloquine, also known as Lariam, is a medication used for the prevention and treatment of certain types of malaria. However, there has been a long-standing concern about its potential neuropsychiatric side-effects. Recently, a review has led to the strengthening of warnings regarding these risks.
Patients taking mefloquine may experience side-effects such as nightmares or anxiety, which could be a sign of a more serious neuropsychiatric event. There have also been reports of suicide and deliberate self-harm in patients taking this medication. Adverse reactions may persist for several months due to the long half-life of mefloquine.
It is important to note that mefloquine should not be used in patients with a history of anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, or other psychiatric disorders. If patients experience any neuropsychiatric side-effects while taking mefloquine, they should stop the medication and seek medical advice. These warnings aim to ensure the safe use of mefloquine in the prevention and treatment of malaria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone scan reveals multiple lesions highly indicative of metastases. Physical examination is unremarkable except for unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. An excision biopsy of an affected lymph node confirms the presence of adenocarcinoma. What investigation should be given priority to identify the primary site of the lesion?
Your Answer: Mammography
Explanation:Investigations for Cancer of Unknown Primary Site
Cancers of unknown primary site make up a small percentage of all cancers and can present in various locations such as bones, lymph nodes, lungs, and liver. If the presentation is in the axillary lymph node, an occult breast primary may be the cause, and mammography should be the first investigation. If the mammogram is negative, other tests can identify alternative occult sites. Identifying the primary site is crucial for guiding treatment and determining prognosis, even in metastatic disease. However, some investigations may not be appropriate for certain presentations. Cancer antigen-125 (CA-125) is not a diagnostic tool for ovarian cancer, and colonoscopy and gastroscopy are unlikely to be useful for identifying the primary site in cases of metastases to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Instead, Virchow’s nodes in the left supraclavicular area may be sentinel lymph nodes for abdominal cancer, particularly gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 8
Correct
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You are summoned to the passing of an 85-year-old female on the geriatric care ward. She has a lengthy record of dyspnea linked to congestive heart failure and the nursing staff report that she experienced a sudden collapse and expired. No resuscitation was attempted. What is the most suitable single cause of death that you can record on the death certificate?
Your Answer: Heart failure
Explanation:Guidelines for Filling Out Death Certificates
When filling out a death certificate, it is important to accurately identify the underlying cause of death. Cardiac arrest, syncope, apnoea, respiratory arrest, heart, liver or kidney failure are not acceptable as modes of death. Instead, the cause of death should be a specific pathological condition, such as ischaemic heart disease or myocardial infarction.
In rare cases, old age or frailty may be listed as the sole cause of death, but only if the healthcare provider has personally cared for the patient over a long period of time, observed a gradual decline in their health, and is certain that there is no identifiable disease or injury that contributed to the death. Even then, it is important to note that coroners, crematorium referees, registrars, and healthcare organizations may request additional information to support this statement.
If a death is certified as due to old age or senility alone, it will usually be referred to the coroner unless the deceased was 80 or older, all the conditions listed above are fulfilled, and there is no other reason for the death to be referred. It is important to be thorough and accurate when filling out death certificates to ensure that the cause of death is properly recorded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 9
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a 6-week history of an itchy rash. The rash appeared on the medial and anterior aspects of the thigh and the trunk. It consisted of numerous small fluid-filled vesicles and a number of larger lesions measuring 2-3 cm, filled with serous fluid. Many of the lesions have burst, leaving erosions.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bullous pemphigoid
Explanation:Common Blistering Skin Conditions: Causes and Symptoms
Blisters on the skin can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique symptoms. Here are some common blistering skin conditions and their characteristics:
1. Bullous pemphigoid: This autoimmune disorder results in blisters that are tense and do not rupture easily. They are usually symmetrical and appear on the trunk and limbs, with the mouth being affected in some cases.
2. Dermatitis herpetiformis: This condition causes intensely itchy vesicles on the elbows, knees, and buttocks. It is associated with gluten intolerance and coeliac disease, and can be controlled by excluding gluten from the diet.
3. Bullous impetigo: This superficial infection is caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus spp. and results in a golden-crusted eruption on a red base. Occasionally, a toxin produced by the organism can cause a blister.
4. Scabies: This condition causes itchy papules and burrows of the scabies mite on the finger webs, elbows, ankles, axillae, and genitalia. In rare cases, it can cause blistering. Norwegian (crusted) scabies is a severe form that occurs in immunosuppressed individuals.
5. Vesicular insect bite eruption: Insect bites can occasionally result in tense blisters on a wheal at the site of the bite. They are usually short-lived and accompanied by itching.
If you experience blistering skin, it is important to seek medical attention to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female comes to you requesting a termination of pregnancy. She tells you that her boyfriend is 18-years-old.
Having asked a number of questions about the relationship you do not have reason to suspect that it is abusive. The patient seems to be mature for her age, understands what you are telling her about her options and appears capable of deciding for herself what she wants to do. You cannot persuade her to inform her parents that she is pregnant.
The girl's mother makes an appointment the following day and tells you that she knows her daughter has been to see you. She says that she is worried about her daughter, and asks you to tell her whether you have given her daughter any family planning advice.
What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?Your Answer: Do not give information to any of the above
Correct Answer: Inform the police because underage sex is against the law, and do not tell the patient or her mother that you are doing so
Explanation:Confidentiality and Capacity of Minors
At the age of 15, a patient is not yet considered an adult, but if they are deemed capable of making decisions about the disclosure of information, they are entitled to confidentiality. This is known as Gillick (Fraser) competence, which allows minors under the age of 16 to give valid consent without parental knowledge or agreement in certain circumstances.
While there is no obligation to report a crime, if a doctor suspects that a patient is at risk of serious harm, such as abuse, they should take action. It is recommended to discuss such cases with a child protection lead or medical defence organization to ensure that the decision to disclose or withhold information is justified and documented. Ultimately, the goal is to protect the patient’s well-being while respecting their right to confidentiality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 11
Correct
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You are investigating a 26-year-old woman with pyrexia of unknown origin, and a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) needs to be excluded.
Which of the following most excludes the condition?Your Answer: Negative ANA and negative anti-dsDNA antibodies
Explanation:Understanding Autoantibody Screening: ANA and Anti-dsDNA Antibodies
Autoantibodies are antibodies that mistakenly attack the body’s own tissues. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are a type of autoantibody that bind to the contents of the cell nucleus. ANA screening is a useful tool in diagnosing autoimmune disorders. However, a positive ANA test alone is not enough to diagnose a specific autoimmune disorder.
A positive ANA test with titres of 1:160 or higher is strongly associated with autoimmune disorders, but it can also be found in 5% of healthy individuals, particularly older people. In addition to ANA, other autoantibodies are tested, including antibodies to double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) and other extractable nuclear antigens such as anti-Ro, anti-La, and anti-Sm antibodies.
Anti-dsDNA antibodies are highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and are present in more than 50% of cases. However, nearly 50% of people with SLE will test negative for dsDNA. Anti-Ro antibodies occur in 30-50% of SLE patients and in 70-90% of patients with Sjögren syndrome. Anti-Sm antibodies occur in 20-30% of SLE patients and are quite specific for SLE. Anti-La antibodies are found in 10-15% of SLE patients but in 60-90% of patients with Sjögren syndrome.
In summary, autoantibody screening is a useful tool in diagnosing autoimmune disorders, but a positive ANA test alone is not enough to diagnose a specific autoimmune disorder. Testing for other autoantibodies, such as anti-dsDNA, anti-Ro, anti-La, and anti-Sm antibodies, can help in making a more accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic 3 days after being hit on the left side of his head. He reports experiencing muffled hearing on the left side since the incident. Upon examination, there are no visible bruises, but both ears are covered by a thin, translucent layer of wax. Rinne's test reveals that the tuning fork is more audible when placed on the mastoid bone on the left side. On Weber's test, the sound is heard most clearly on the left side. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Earwax
Correct Answer: Perforated eardrum
Explanation:Differentiating between tympanic membrane perforation and sensorineural hearing loss due to skull trauma is crucial. Rinne’s test can help identify conductive hearing loss in the affected ear, while Weber’s test can rule out sensorineural hearing loss on the right.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A two-year-old girl is presented to the clinic by her mother due to complaints of abdominal pain for the past two weeks. She has also been experiencing a decreased appetite and difficulty with bowel movements. During the physical examination, a lump is palpable on the right side of her abdomen, although her abdomen is soft and non-tender.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Referral for an urgent ultrasound
Correct Answer: Very urgent referral to paediatrics
Explanation:If a child has a noticeable mass in their abdomen or an unexplained enlargement of an abdominal organ, it is crucial to refer them for specialist assessment for neuroblastoma and Wilms’ tumour within 48 hours. This referral should be made urgently and not delayed by arranging imaging through general practice. Prescribing Movicol or Nitrofurantoin would not be appropriate as they do not address the underlying issue. Any child with a palpable abdominal mass should be referred to paediatrics for review as soon as possible.
Understanding Neuroblastoma in Children
Neuroblastoma is a type of cancer that affects children and is responsible for 7-8% of childhood malignancies. It develops from neural crest tissue found in the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system. Typically, the disease is diagnosed in children around 20 months old and presents with a range of symptoms, including abdominal mass, weight loss, bone pain, and hepatomegaly. In some cases, paraplegia and proptosis may also occur.
To diagnose neuroblastoma, doctors will typically look for raised levels of urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA). Additionally, calcification may be visible on an abdominal x-ray, and a biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
Overall, neuroblastoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. By understanding the symptoms and diagnostic process, parents and caregivers can work with healthcare providers to ensure that children receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A very sensible parent brings her 9-year-old into the surgery for review. She is concerned as her child is complaining of recurrent episodes of dull abdominal pain and missing significant days off school. Your physical examination is entirely normal.
What would count most against a diagnosis of functional recurrent abdominal pain in this case?Your Answer: Weight loss
Correct Answer: Above average intellectual ability
Explanation:Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children
Recurrent abdominal pain is a common complaint among children over the age of five, with approximately 10% experiencing it. It is crucial to determine the nature of the pain, its impact on the child’s daily life, and how the child and their family cope with it. Organic causes, such as gastrointestinal, urological, haematological, and miscellaneous causes, must be ruled out. Non-organic pain is suggested by peri-umbilical pain, and vomiting may be present, but weight loss is rare. Other important questions to ask include the timing of the pain, associated symptoms, family history, and social history. Physical examination is often unhelpful, and investigations are unlikely to provide a diagnosis when non-organic pain is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 47-year-old man visits his primary care physician with concerns about a persistent ulcer on his tongue that has been growing for a few weeks. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes a day, and drinks alcohol regularly. Upon examination, the physician notes bilateral submandibular lymphadenopathy, multiple dental caries, and a 1-cm ulcer on the lateral border of his tongue. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Refer under 2-week rule
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Tongue Cancer
Tongue cancer is a common type of oral cancer, with about 75% of cases occurring on the mobile tongue. It typically presents as a persistent growing lesion, which may be painless or painful. Carcinoma of the tongue base is often clinically silent until it infiltrates the musculature. Risk factors for tongue cancer include poor dental hygiene, smoking, drinking, and betel and pan consumption in ethnic minorities.
All suspicious tongue lesions should be referred urgently under the 2-week rule for exclusion of malignancy. Treatment options for tongue cancer include surgery and radiotherapy. The overall 5-year survival rates are 60% for women and 40% for men.
It is important to note that prescribing Tri Adcortyl® ointment or antibiotics would not be appropriate for the management of tongue cancer. Instead, urgent referral for further evaluation and treatment is necessary.
In some cases, a chancre caused by syphilis may present as a solitary, painless, indurated, reddish ulcer on the oral mucosa. Therefore, testing for syphilis and treating if positive may be necessary in some cases. However, it is important to differentiate between syphilis and tongue cancer, as the management and prognosis differ significantly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to you with acne. Upon examination, you observe several whiteheads and blackheads, but no facial scarring. The patient expresses interest in treatment. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Advise a simple face wash
Correct Answer: Topical retinoid
Explanation:For the treatment of mild acne, the NICE guidance recommends starting with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide. This is particularly appropriate for boys. However, if the patient is female, a combined oral contraceptive may be prescribed instead of a retinoid due to the teratogenic effects of retinoids. Mild acne is characterized by the presence of blackheads, whiteheads, papules, and pustules. While scarring is unlikely, the condition can have a significant psychosocial impact. If topical retinoids and benzoyl peroxide are poorly tolerated, azelaic acid may be prescribed. Combined treatment is rarely necessary. Follow-up should be arranged after 6-8 weeks to assess the effectiveness and tolerability of treatment and the patient’s compliance.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male with a two year history of type 2 diabetes presents at annual review.
Despite optimisation of his oral hypoglycaemic therapy he has gained approximately 4 kg in weight over the last year and his HbA1c has deteriorated.
He is also treated with lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and metoprolol, but his blood pressure remains difficult to control with a recording of 170/100 mmHg.
On examination, he has developed abdominal striae, thin skin is noticeable with bruising and he also has a proximal weakness. A diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome is suspected.
What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer: 9 am cortisol concentration
Correct Answer: 9 am ACTH concentration
Explanation:Screening Tests for Cushing’s Syndrome
Appropriate screening tests for Cushing’s syndrome include the 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine collection measuring free cortisol in the urine. The overnight dexamethasone suppression test is preferred as it has higher sensitivity than urinary collection. This test involves administering 1 mg dexamethasone at 11 pm and measuring cortisol levels at 9 am the following morning. A cortisol concentration less than 50 nmol/L after this test is considered normal. An elevated cortisol level (usually above 250 nmol/day) in a 24-hour urine collection suggests Cushing’s syndrome.
Random cortisol or 9 am cortisol tests provide no diagnostic information for Cushing’s syndrome. Chest x-rays and adrenal CT scans are useful in investigating the possible cause of Cushing’s syndrome. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment of Cushing’s syndrome can prevent serious complications. Therefore, individuals with symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome should consult a healthcare professional for proper screening and diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Abuse of which of the following substances is implicated most frequently as the cause of occupational accidents and injuries among workers aged 18 to 25?
Your Answer: Amphetamines
Correct Answer: Marijuana
Explanation:Alcohol Consumption and Occupational Injuries
Workers who consume alcohol are at a higher risk of experiencing occupational injuries compared to non-users. According to research, even light and moderate drinking can result in significant personal and societal costs. The majority of alcohol-related problems in the workplace are caused by light and moderate drinkers, not just those who drink on the job. Heavy drinking outside of work can also contribute to these issues. Hangover-related health problems, such as an increased risk of heart attacks, reduced cognitive abilities, and a psychiatric disorder known as Elpenor syndrome, which is characterized by irrational behavior, can further exacerbate the negative effects of alcohol consumption in the workplace. It is important for employers to address alcohol use among their employees to ensure a safe and productive work environment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her right hand that sometimes disturbs her sleep at night. She usually shakes her hand to alleviate the symptoms, which disappear entirely. She has a history of uncontrolled type 2 diabetes and breast cancer.
During the examination, there is no evidence of deformity or wasting, and she has good strength throughout her hand. The symptoms are reproduced by performing forced wrist flexion.
What is the best initial course of action?Your Answer: Wrist splinting
Explanation:For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, conservative treatment with a wrist splint, with or without a steroid injection, should be attempted first. In this case, the woman’s symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome and therefore, first-line management should involve conservative treatment before symptoms worsen. While amitriptyline may be useful for neuropathic pain, it is not the appropriate treatment in this case. Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs may be suitable for osteoarthritis involving the hands, but this presentation doesn’t suggest osteoarthritis. Surgical decompression may be necessary if symptoms worsen, but it is not the first-line treatment for mild-moderate symptoms. While a steroid injection may be appropriate when used in conjunction with wrist splinting, it is not typically the first-line treatment.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.
There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 26-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of retrosternal burning after eating. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. He has never smoked, but drinks 80 units of alcohol per week. Based on these factors, which is the most likely indication that he is dependent on alcohol?
Your Answer: Feels he needs more alcohol to have the same effect as it would have had last year
Explanation:Identifying Problem Drinking: Symptoms and Screening Tools
Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and daily life. Here are some common symptoms of alcohol dependence and screening tools that can help identify problem drinking:
– Tolerance: Needing more alcohol to achieve the same effect as before.
– Craving: Strong desire to drink.
– Loss of control: Inability to stop drinking once started.
– Withdrawal symptoms: Physical symptoms when not drinking.
– AUDIT questionnaire: Comprehensive screening tool for problem drinking.
– AUDIT-C: Shortened form of AUDIT questionnaire consisting of three questions.
– CAGE questionnaire: Screening tool for problem drinking with a score of 2 or more indicating high likelihood of problem drinking.
– Excessive alcohol consumption linked to over 200 medical conditions.
– Types of alcohol consumed do not impact dependence.
– Inability to fulfill responsibilities due to alcohol consumption is a feature of problem drinking.It is important to recognize the symptoms of problem drinking and utilize screening tools to identify and address the issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old gentleman has uncontrolled hypertension. He is currently taking a calcium antagonist and an ACE inhibitor.
His U&Es are shown below. You would like to start a diuretic.
Serum sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144)
Serum potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 60 µmol/L (60-110)
According to the latest NICE guidance, which one would be your first choice?Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation:Navigating NICE Guidelines on Hypertension
The management of hypertension is a crucial topic for general practitioners, and it is likely to be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. The most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136) recommend thiazide-like diuretics as the clear third-line choice, whereas they used to be an option first line in Afro-Caribbeans and the over 55s. However, it is important to note that this guidance has attracted criticism from some clinicians who argue that it is overcomplicated and insufficiently evidence-based, particularly regarding the use of ambulatory and home blood pressure monitoring.
It is essential to have an awareness of this and maintain a balanced view, not just in hypertension but also in other areas of medicine. While NICE guidance is significant, there are other guidelines, and it is not without its criticism. It is unlikely that AKT questions will contradict NICE guidance, but it is crucial to bear in mind the bigger picture and remember that the college tests your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance.
It is worth noting that if a patient is already taking bendroflumethiazide or hydrochlorothiazide, these agents should not be routinely changed. Indapamide and chlorthalidone are now recognized as the first-line agents over the latter two agents. All these medications are diuretics, and this man is already taking a calcium channel blocker and an ACE inhibitor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Correct
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A 52-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pins and needles in his feet, along with back pain, three weeks after experiencing gastroenteritis. He has also noticed a gradual increase in weakness in his legs over the past three days. During the examination, the doctor observes absent ankle tendon and patellar tendon reflexes, while bicep tendon reflexes are normal. The plantar response flexor is reduced, but sensation in his feet is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
Explanation:Neurological Disorders: Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Spinal Cord Compression, CIDP, MS, and MG
Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a group of syndromes that cause acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathies, resulting in muscle weakness, diminished reflexes, and paraesthesia. It is often preceded by a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection. GBS can cause ascending paralysis, which may involve the cranial nerves and lead to respiratory failure. While most patients recover, some may experience persistent motor sequelae.
Spinal cord compression is characterized by upper motor neuron signs below the level of the compression. However, the absence of reflexes and flexor plantar response in a patient doesn’t support this diagnosis.
Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is an immune-mediated inflammatory disorder of the peripheral nervous system. Patients with CIDP present with muscle weakness, numbness, tingling, pain, and difficulty walking. They may also experience fainting while standing or burning pain in the extremities.
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that commonly follows a relapsing, remitting course. It can cause a variety of symptoms and signs of motor, sensory, and autonomic origin. Diagnosis requires objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of lesions typical of MS, as well as the exclusion of other possible explanations for clinical features.
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disorder that causes muscle weakness, which typically fluctuates in severity and is characterized by fatigue. Unlike GBS, it doesn’t present in an acute manner, and no sensory signs are seen in MG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to see you having been diagnosed with cataract by a local optician.
Which of the following statements about cataracts is correct?Your Answer: Recurrence of symptoms after surgery is unusual
Correct Answer: They may cause similar symptoms to macular degeneration
Explanation:Myths and Facts About Cataracts
Cataracts are a common eye condition that can cause vision loss and other symptoms. However, there are many myths and misconceptions about cataracts that can lead to confusion and misinformation. Here are some common myths and the facts that debunk them:
Myth: Cataracts only cause painless loss of vision similar to macular degeneration.
Fact: While painless loss of vision is a symptom of cataracts, they can also cause defects in the red reflex and monocular diplopia.Myth: Cataracts only affect elderly people.
Fact: While age is a common factor in cataract development, other factors such as malnutrition, illness, and excess UV exposure can also contribute. Children can also develop cataracts.Myth: Cataracts in the elderly are unaffected by other disease processes.
Fact: Cataracts can develop after eye surgery, in people with diabetes or other health problems, and can be linked to steroid use and smoking.Myth: Recurrence of symptoms after cataract surgery is unusual.
Fact: Posterior capsule opacification can occur in up to 40% of cases, but can be treated with laser capsulotomy.By understanding the facts about cataracts, individuals can better manage their eye health and seek appropriate treatment when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 24
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with an episode of memory loss. He had become confused three days earlier while out shopping. His wife led him back to the house where he made himself a cup of tea and then wandered around the house. He appeared confused but remained conscious and able to have some conversation with his wife, though continued to ask similar questions repeatedly. After three hours, he abruptly returned to normal and had no recollection of the events.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Transient global amnesia
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest transient global amnesia, which is most common in individuals over 65 years old. This condition causes temporary memory loss, but the patient retains their social skills and ability to perform learned tasks. Repetitive questioning is a common feature, and recovery typically occurs within 24 hours. However, patients are unable to recall the episode once they have recovered. Alcohol-related amnesia is another possibility, but the patient did not exhibit impaired cerebellar function. Chronic subdural haematoma can cause confusion and memory loss, but the patient lacked other symptoms. Complex partial status epilepticus and dissociative fugue state were also ruled out based on the patient’s presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman complains she has been feeling generally unwell for several weeks. She reports a relapsing pain in her left ankle for the last four weeks following a 2-week history of diarrhoea. Over the last two weeks, she has also developed lower back pain. On further questioning, she mentions that for the last few days she has noticed painful nodules over her shins. Her full blood count and kidney and liver function tests are all normal. An autoimmune screen is negative.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Reactive Arthritis from Other Arthropathies
Reactive arthritis is an autoimmune condition that occurs as a response to an infection. It typically develops 2-4 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection and presents with joint pain, malaise, and fever. However, it is important to differentiate reactive arthritis from other arthropathies based on their unique features.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy that affects the axial skeleton and doesn’t present with ankle pain or erythema nodosum. Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic lesions and presents with joint swelling in the knees, ankles, hands, and feet, but the rash described in this case is typical for erythema nodosum, not psoriasis. Rheumatic fever is a complication of an untreated streptococcal throat infection and can affect the heart and nervous system, but the patient in this case has symptoms of a gastrointestinal infection preceding her joint pain. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory autoimmune condition that affects the small joints of the hands and feet and tends to have bilateral symmetrical distribution of joint involvement, unlike in this case where there is unilateral ankle pain.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history and symptoms is necessary to accurately diagnose reactive arthritis and differentiate it from other arthropathies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 26
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy presents with lethargy, abdominal bloating and loose stools. He has lost 5 kg in weight over the last six months. Examination confirms a thin teenager with obvious pallor.
What is the most appropriate test to investigate possible malabsorption?Your Answer: IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs)
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease Testing: Differentiating Between IgA tTGAs, IgA Gliadin Antibodies, IgA EMAs, HLA Genetic Testing, and IgG tTGAs
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. While small-bowel biopsy is the most reliable way to diagnose coeliac disease, IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs) are the preferred initial investigation. This test is highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease, but should not be performed on children younger than two years as it may give a false negative result.
It is important to note that around 0.4% of the population has selective IgA deficiency, which can lead to a false-negative result. In such cases, the laboratory should measure IgA levels. Some laboratories may do this routinely when measuring tTGAs.
IgA gliadin antibodies are not commonly used to diagnose coeliac disease. Instead, IgA EMAs are autoantibodies against tissue transglutaminase type 2 (tTGA2) and are highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease. However, IgA EMAs should be measured if IgA tTG is only weakly positive.
HLA genetic testing is not recommended for diagnosing coeliac disease in primary care. Coeliac disease is strongly associated with the genes HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8, but testing for these genes is not necessary for diagnosis.
Finally, IgG tTGAs should only be considered in people who are IgA deficient to avoid the risk of a false-negative IgA tTGA result.
In summary, understanding the differences between these tests is crucial in accurately diagnosing coeliac disease and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while pregnant. It will be a ten-hour flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.
What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated twin pregnancy?Your Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 32 of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 28 of pregnancy
Explanation:Flying while pregnant with twins
When it comes to flying while pregnant with twins, there are certain restrictions that airlines impose. Unlike a single, uncomplicated pregnancy where the limit is week 37, most airlines will not allow pregnant women carrying twins or more to fly after week 32. This is due to the increased risks of certain medical conditions while travelling in the air that are compounded by pregnancy, as well as the higher risk of going into labor.
Aside from these restrictions, pregnant women should also be advised on DVT prophylaxis, especially for flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, in-seat exercises, keeping hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 28
Correct
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Which option from the following list is currently considered the least valuable use of the prostate specific antigen (PSA) test in clinical practice?
Your Answer: Screening
Explanation:Understanding the Total PSA Test and Digital Rectal Examination for Prostate Cancer Diagnosis and Monitoring
Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. The total PSA test and digital rectal examination (DRE) are commonly used to diagnose and monitor prostate cancer. These tests are ordered when a man has symptoms that could be due to prostate cancer, such as obstructive lower urinary symptoms, unexplained low back pain, pelvic pain, or bone pain.
The PSA level at the time of diagnosis can indicate the tumor burden. A higher PSA level indicates a higher tumor burden in the body. A PSA of < 10 is favorable, while a PSA of > 20 is considered unfavorable. The stage/prognostic grouping of prostate cancer is based on the stage, PSA level, and Gleason score.
The total PSA test may also be ordered during treatment for men who have been diagnosed with prostate cancer to verify the effectiveness of treatment and at regular intervals after treatment to monitor for cancer recurrence. It is also ordered at regular intervals when a man with cancer is participating in ‘watchful waiting’ and not currently being treated for his prostate cancer.
Screening for prostate cancer, particularly by the PSA test, is controversial. While it can lead to early detection and treatment of prostate cancer, about 15% of men with a negative PSA test have prostate cancer, and about 65% of men with a positive PSA test have a negative prostate biopsy. A systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials found that screening for prostate cancer increases the probability of diagnosis, but there is no statistically significant effect on death rates. The included studies provided little information about the potential harms associated with screening.
In conclusion, understanding the total PSA test and digital rectal examination is crucial for the diagnosis and monitoring of prostate cancer. While screening for prostate cancer remains controversial, these tests are essential for men with symptoms that could be due to prostate cancer and for those who have been diagnosed with prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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As the duty doctor, you encounter a 59-year-old woman who complains of increased cough and wheeze for the past 3 days. The patient has a history of COPD and is currently taking salbutamol and umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta). She has no other medical conditions, has not taken antibiotics for 2 years, and has not been admitted for acute exacerbation of COPD. The patient smokes 10 cigarettes daily and denies any changes in sputum production, colour, and thickness. Upon examination, she has mild wheezing and no focal chest signs. Her cardiovascular examination and vital signs are normal.
Which of the following options should be excluded from your management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Smoking cessation advice
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotics
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, oral antibiotics should only be prescribed in cases of acute exacerbation of COPD if there is purulent sputum or clinical signs of pneumonia. As this patient doesn’t exhibit these symptoms, prescribing oral antibiotics is not recommended.
Instead, increasing the frequency of inhaled bronchodilators is a suitable step in managing this patient’s acute exacerbation of COPD. The patient’s mild wheeze should improve with this treatment.
NICE recommends a review in 6 weeks if there is no rapid or significant worsening of symptoms. However, if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, the patient should be reviewed sooner by the appropriate healthcare provider.
Prescribing oral steroids is appropriate for managing this patient’s acute exacerbation of COPD as it can reduce inflammation and improve symptoms.
It is also appropriate to discuss smoking cessation with the patient, as they are still smoking. However, it should be documented if the patient is not interested in considering smoking cessation. Any opportunity for smoking cessation advice should be utilized.
Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old individual seeks your guidance on mental wellness. They were interested in trying mindfulness until they stumbled upon a study that demonstrated no impact. Upon reading the study, a randomized controlled trial with only 10 participants and no mention of a power calculation, it was found that there was no difference between mindfulness and no intervention for mental well-being.
What potential error could have taken place in this study?Your Answer: Standard error
Correct Answer: Type II error
Explanation:Increasing the sample size can reduce the likelihood of type II error and increase the power of the study.
Understanding the Concept of Power in Research Studies
Power is a statistical concept that refers to the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. In other words, it is the ability of a study to detect a clinically meaningful difference or effect. The value of power ranges from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating 0% and 1 indicating 100%. It is often expressed as 1 – beta, where beta is the probability of a Type II error. A power of 0.80 is generally considered the minimum acceptable level.
Several factors influence the power of a study, including sample size, meaningful effect size, and significance level. Larger sample sizes lead to more accurate parameter estimations and increase the study’s ability to detect a significant effect. The meaningful effect size is determined at the beginning of the study and represents the size of the difference between two means that would lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis. Finally, the significance level, also known as the alpha level, is the probability of a Type I error. Understanding the concept of power is crucial in determining the appropriate sample size and designing a study that can accurately detect meaningful differences or effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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