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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are on GP rotation and you assess a 22-year-old student who reports feeling consistently low for the past 6 months. You administer a PHQ-9 questionnaire which indicates persistent mild depression. What is the first line treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Psychological intervention
Explanation:The primary treatment for mild depression is psychological intervention, typically obtained through an IAPT referral. Although a patient may also be prescribed a Serotonin Specific Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) while waiting for their referral, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines prioritize the consideration of an IAPT referral as the first line of treatment. Therefore, an IAPT referral is the most appropriate answer in this scenario.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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Sarah is a 25-year-old woman with schizophrenia who has had multiple admissions under the Mental Health Act (1983).
Her consultant has utilized a Section of the Mental Health Act that permits Sarah to be brought back to the hospital for treatment if certain conditions are not met, such as if she declines to take her depot antipsychotic.
What is the name of this Section?Your Answer: Section 17a (Community Treatment Order)
Explanation:Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 55-year-old man who has been admitted with pneumonia. His medical history indicates that he consumes approximately 70-80 units of alcohol per week. Which medication would be the most suitable to administer to prevent the onset of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A teenage boy presents with bizarre delusions, a blunted affect and tangential thought processes.
Which one of the following characteristics would indicate an unfavourable prognosis?
Your Answer: A schizophrenic second-degree relative
Correct Answer: A prolonged premorbid history of social withdrawal
Explanation:Understanding Prognostic Factors in Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a complex mental illness that can have a significant impact on a person’s life. While there is no cure for schizophrenia, early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and improve outcomes. Understanding prognostic factors can also be helpful in predicting the course of the illness and developing appropriate treatment plans.
One important factor to consider is the premorbid history of the patient. A prolonged history of social withdrawal is predictive of more severe and long-lasting psychopathology. Additionally, a family history of schizophrenia in first-degree relatives can have a negative impact on prognosis, while a history in second-degree relatives has little significance.
The onset of illness is also an important factor to consider. In schizophrenia, a sudden onset of illness has a more favourable prognosis than an insidious one. However, if the patient presents with catatonic symptoms, this is actually an indicator of a relatively good prognosis.
Finally, MRI changes are associated with more severe symptoms and clinical course in people with schizophrenia. While it is not fully clear whether these changes are fixed or progress over time, they can be an important factor to consider in developing a treatment plan.
Overall, understanding these prognostic factors can help clinicians develop appropriate treatment plans and provide better support for patients with schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Liam is a 30-year-old software engineer who has been admitted to the hospital due to a relapse of his schizophrenia. He has been detained under section 3 of the Mental Health Act for 2 weeks after refusing to take his medication.
The consultant psychiatrist suggests starting Liam on risperidone, but during the team meeting, Liam was informed of the potential risks and benefits of the medication and decided he does not want to take it. The team believes that Liam has the capacity to make this decision, but they also feel that he needs treatment with an antipsychotic to reduce the risk to himself and others.
What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rosie can be treated against her will under section 3, even if she has capacity
Explanation:If a patient is under section 2 or 3, treatment can be administered even if they refuse it. Patients who are detained under section 3 can be treated against their will, regardless of their capacity. However, after three months, if the patient still refuses treatment, an impartial psychiatrist must review the proposed medication and agree with the treating team’s plan. The Mental Health Act takes precedence over the Mental Capacity Act, so a best interests meeting is not necessary. The treating team must consider the patient’s best interests, and in this case, they believe that medication is necessary for Rosie’s mental health. While benzodiazepines can alleviate agitation and distress, they are unlikely to improve her psychotic symptoms, so they are not a suitable option. If Rosie continues to refuse treatment after three months under section 3, a second opinion will be required.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman is brought to her GP by her daughter. She reports that she has a 2-year history of progressive memory impairment (especially for recent events), worsening apathy and occasional disorientation in previously familiar environments. She scores 22/30 on the Mini-Mental State Examination. Her BP is 140/90, and pulse 70 and regular. She is a non-smoker. She takes medication for hypertension.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Dementia
Dementia is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the elderly population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common type of dementia, accounting for over 60% of cases. It typically starts with memory impairment, particularly affecting recent events, and gradually progresses to language and visuospatial dysfunction, apathy, and behavioural problems.
Vascular dementia is the second most common type of dementia, and it is often associated with a history of cerebrovascular or cardiovascular disease. Depression can also cause memory impairment and apathy, but the characteristic pattern of memory disturbance seen in Alzheimer’s disease makes it a more likely diagnosis in this case.
Mild cognitive impairment is a condition where memory impairment is present, but other cognitive domains and activities of daily living are preserved. It is estimated that between 5 and 20% of people over 65 have MCI, and about 30% of them will develop dementia within two years.
Lewy-body dementia is another type of dementia that accounts for about 20% of cases. It typically presents with parkinsonism, fluctuating cognitive impairment, and visual hallucinations, which are not present in this vignette.
Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristic features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation where a teenage patient has become uncontrollable and tried to assault a staff member. The patient is currently being restrained in the prone position on the floor, but is still struggling and attempting to break free. The restraint has been in place for approximately 10 minutes. What steps should you take in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give him rapid tranquillisation
Explanation:To avoid prolonged manual restraint, it is recommended to consider rapid tranquillisation or seclusion as alternatives. Prolonged physical restraint poses both physical and emotional risks for both patients and staff. Handcuffs and other mechanical restraints should only be used in exceptional circumstances in high-secure settings. It is important to avoid releasing an agitated patient from restraint as it could be dangerous for staff and other patients. Patients should not be carried during any kind of restraint.
Understanding Psychosis
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman reports persistent feelings of low mood, lack of interest in activities, fatigue, and decreased appetite. She denies any current suicidal thoughts. Despite completing a course of computerized cognitive behavioral therapy and being referred to the local psychological therapy team, she feels her symptoms are worsening and impacting her work. She is interested in trying medication.
What is the most suitable medication to initiate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:For patients with moderate-severe depression, subthreshold depressive symptoms that have persisted for a long period, subthreshold symptoms or mild depression that persists after other interventions, or mild depression that is complicating the care of a chronic physical health problem, antidepressants are recommended. The first-line antidepressant recommended by NICE is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), such as citalopram, fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), such as amitriptyline, should be avoided as first-line or if there is a history or likelihood of overdose due to their high toxicity in overdose.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man arrives at the hospital accompanied by his spouse. He appears restless, agitated, sweaty, and tremulous. According to his wife, the patient has been consuming at least half a bottle of vodka daily for several months. However, he has significantly reduced his alcohol intake in the past few days due to a lack of funds. His last drink was approximately eight hours ago. What medication would be the best option for treating this man's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:In the management of alcohol withdrawal, decreasing doses of long-acting benzodiazepines are commonly used. This is because long-term alcohol use can cause an imbalance in the brain’s excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters, leading to symptoms of an overactive sympathetic nervous system when alcohol is suddenly stopped. These symptoms can include restlessness, sweating, tremors, and agitation, and can even progress to seizures and delirium tremens. Long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, potentiate the action of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA and can help mitigate the risk of seizures and other withdrawal symptoms. Carbamazepine, an anticonvulsant, may also be used as a second-line medication if benzodiazepines are not appropriate. Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, is not typically used in alcohol withdrawal as it does not reduce the risk of seizures. Lorazepam, a short-acting benzodiazepine, is also not typically used in this context as long-acting benzodiazepines are preferred for their longer half-life.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is referred to the department of gastroenterology for a further opinion having developed constant periumbilical pain radiating to both arms. Over the past three years he has been seen by colleagues in neurology, cardiology, rheumatology and endocrinology with a variety of symptoms, including fatigue, neck pain, chest pain and joint pain. Despite intensive investigations, no cause for his symptoms has been identified.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder
Explanation:Understanding Somatoform Disorders: Exploring Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Medically Unexplained Symptoms
This patient presents with medically unexplained symptoms (MUS), which are collectively known as somatoform disorders. The chronicity and large number of diverse symptoms in this case suggest somatisation disorder, a condition that affects 5-10% of repeat attenders in specialist clinics. Somatisation disorder is more common in women than in men and tends to start in early adulthood. Treatment involves psychological interventions (e.g. CBT) and/or antidepressant medication, but patients are frequently reluctant to engage in these.
Other possible diagnoses for MUS include conversion disorder, hypochondriasis, and undifferentiated somatoform disorder. Conversion disorder presents with neurological symptoms, usually some type of loss of function, while hypochondriasis is associated with a persistent preoccupation to have one or more serious and progressive physical illnesses. In hypochondriasis, the patient puts emphasis on the presence of one (or more) determinate illness and on having it diagnosed. In somatisation disorder, such as in this vignette, the emphasis is on the symptoms (for which the patients seeks a medical explanation), rather than on a specific diagnosis. Undifferentiated somatoform disorder is used when the MUS are multiple and persistent, but the diagnostic criteria for somatisation disorder cannot be fulfilled.
Depression is an important co-morbidity in patients with somatoform disorders, but in this vignette, the combination of physical symptoms and the extensive and complex history of contact with primary and secondary services makes somatisation disorder the most likely diagnosis. It is particularly important to use a patient-centred, empathic interview style with patients with somatoform disorders to ensure they receive the appropriate care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who delivered a baby 3 days ago comes for evaluation due to her mood concerns. She is experiencing trouble sleeping and feels generally anxious and weepy. Additionally, she has noticed that she is becoming irritable with her spouse. This is her initial pregnancy, she is not nursing, and there is no previous history of mental health disorders. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Explanation and reassurance
Explanation:This woman is experiencing the common postpartum mood disorder known as baby-blues, which affects approximately two-thirds of women. Although lack of sleep can be a symptom of depression, it is a normal occurrence for new mothers.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his friends getting hurt. He reports that these thoughts seem to originate from his own mind, but he considers them to be irrational.
Which symptom is he reporting?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessions
Explanation:Understanding Psychiatric Symptoms: Obsessions, Compulsions, Delusions, Hallucinations, and Thought Interference
Psychiatric symptoms can be complex and difficult to understand. Here are some explanations of common symptoms:
Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses that repetitively and stereotypically enter a person’s mind. They are often distressing and patients try unsuccessfully to resist them. Common themes include aggression, dirt and contamination, fear of causing harm, religion, and sex.
Compulsions are repetitive and stereotyped acts or rituals that are often carried out as an attempt to neutralize distressing obsessional thoughts. Patients typically recognize these behaviors as pointless and ineffective, and try to resist them, often unsuccessfully.
Delusions are false, fixed, and firmly held beliefs that are not in keeping with a person’s social, cultural, and religious background. Patients typically do not recognize them as false or irrational and do not try to resist them, even if they find them distressing.
Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without an external stimulus that could produce such perception. They can be perceptions in any sensory modality, such as hearing a voice in the absence of anyone actually talking.
Thought interference consists of a patient’s firm belief that an external entity is interfering with their thoughts, usually by introducing thoughts in their mind, stealing thoughts from them, or being able to access their thoughts. Patients usually lack insight into these pathological experiences.
Understanding these symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon seeks an appointment with the team doctor due to an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling numbness below her knee. During the examination, the doctor observes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. The team doctor suspects a non-organic cause of her symptoms. What type of disorder is this an example of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:Conversion disorder is a condition that often results in the loss of motor or sensory function and is believed to be triggered by stress.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to her doctor's office in a distressed state. Her 4-year-old daughter passed away a few weeks ago due to a car accident. During the consultation, she reveals that she is having trouble sleeping, cannot function normally, and experiences severe stomach cramps. She admits to having thoughts of wishing she had died instead of her daughter, but denies any current suicidal thoughts. She also mentions seeing her daughter sitting on the couch at home, but acknowledges that it is not real. What is the most likely condition she is suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction
Explanation:Experiencing a grief reaction is common after a significant loss, and it can manifest with physical and psychological symptoms that can last up to six months. It can be challenging to differentiate between depression and a typical grief reaction since they share similar symptoms. However, a regular grief reaction typically lasts less than six months, while depression can persist for a more extended period. Although she has brief visual hallucinations, psychosis is an incorrect diagnosis since she does not exhibit any other indications.
Grief is a natural response to the death of a loved one and does not always require medical intervention. However, understanding the potential stages of grief can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal reaction or a more significant problem. The most common model of grief divides it into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. It is important to note that not all patients will experience all five stages. Atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women, sudden and unexpected deaths, problematic relationships before death, and lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving does not begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which is difficult to define but may last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was prescribed paroxetine for depression six months ago, but stopped taking it five days ago due to perceived lack of efficacy. He has a history of asthma but no other significant medical history. Over the past two days, he has been experiencing heightened anxiety, sweating, headaches, and a sensation of needles in his head. During the appointment, he is restless and pacing. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor`discontinuation syndrome
Explanation:Compared to other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, paroxetine has a greater likelihood of causing discontinuation symptoms.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 92-year-old man is brought to the hospital from a nursing home with advanced pneumonia. Despite medical intervention, his condition worsens and he passes away within 48 hours of admission. His past medical history includes a hip replacement surgery 4 years ago and advanced dementia for which he is currently under guardianship.
What are the appropriate steps to take following his death?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner as she was detained under the mental health act at time of death
Explanation:If a person dies while under the mental health act, regardless of the cause of death, it is mandatory to report their death to the coroner. In this case, as the individual was detained under the mental health act at the time of their death, it is the responsibility of the doctors in the hospital where they passed away to issue the MCCD after discussing with the coroner. It would be inappropriate to ask the GP who performed their surgery over a year ago to issue the MCCD as they may not have seen the individual within 14 days prior to their death. Additionally, the doctors at the psychiatric hospital may have seen the individual within the 14 days prior, but it is still the responsibility of the hospital doctors who were caring for them at the time of their death to issue the MCCD.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his general practice surgery, explaining that his depression has been cured after four months taking sertraline. He says he is ready to stop taking the medication immediately and is looking forward to being 'normal again'.
What is the most appropriate management advice you can give this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should be treated for at least six months
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Depression
It is recommended that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least six months after recovery to prevent relapse. Recurrent episodes warrant at least 12 months of treatment after recovery. Stopping antidepressant treatment immediately on recovery puts patients at a high risk of relapse, with 50% of patients experiencing a relapse of their depressive symptoms. During the recovery phase, adults should receive the same dose used for the treatment of the acute phase. The medication should then be tapered off over a few weeks, according to the type of antidepressant used.
Stopping medication prematurely, such as after one month or six weeks, would put the patient at a high risk of relapse. If the patient has been using antidepressants over a very short term and has found it maximally effective, they may be able to come off medication sooner than six months. However, this should be managed with caution and only recommended if there are other extenuating factors which would cause them to want to stop, such as side-effects or poor compliance. In this case, the patient has been using sertraline for four months already, has not indicated poor compliance, and there is no indication of issues with side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a complaint of left leg weakness that started 2 hours ago. She reports no weakness in her face or upper limbs, and her speech is normal. She has no medical history and takes no regular medications.
Upon examination, the emergency physician suspects a non-organic cause. The patient is placed in a supine position and asked to raise her right leg against resistance while keeping it straight. The physician places his hand under the left heel and feels pressure under his hand.
What is the name of this clinical sign or test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hoover's sign
Explanation:Hoover’s sign is a useful clinical tool that can quickly differentiate between organic and non-organic leg paresis. In cases of non-organic paresis, pressure is felt under the affected leg when the unaffected leg is lifted against pressure. This is due to involuntary contralateral hip extension.
Based on this scenario, the likely diagnosis is a conversion disorder, which is characterized by the loss of motor function in the leg without any organic cause. The positive result of Hoover’s sign supports this diagnosis.
Babinski’s sign is a reflex that involves dorsiflexion of the big toe upon plantar stimulation. It is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion of the corticospinal tract.
BrudziÅ„ski’s sign is a reflex that involves the flexion of the hips with forced flexion of the neck. It is typically associated with meningitis but can also be present in patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage and encephalitis.
The glabellar tap sign, also known as Myerson’s sign, involves tapping the area above the nose and between the eyebrows (glabella) repeatedly. Healthy patients usually blink in response to the first 2-3 taps, but if a patient is unable to resist blinking beyond this, it can be indicative of early Parkinson’s disease.
The straight leg raise test, also known as Lasègue’s sign, involves raising the straight leg to reproduce radiating leg pain. A positive result indicates a likely lumbar disc herniation.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his doctor. He was prescribed fluoxetine for depression eight weeks ago and now wants to discontinue the medication as he feels much better. What advice should be given regarding his treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It should be continued for at least 6 months
Explanation:The risk of relapse is significantly decreased, and patients should be comforted by the fact that antidepressants are non-addictive.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man tells his family doctor (FD) that he discovered six months ago that his wife is having an affair. He seems upset and reports feeling fatigued and experiencing difficulty sleeping for the past six months.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Depressive Symptoms
Depression is a common mental health condition that can present with a variety of symptoms. In this vignette, the patient shows signs of anhedonia, change in appetite, early morning awakening, psychomotor retardation, decreased sexual drive, poor concentration, ideas of worthlessness or guilt, and thoughts of death and suicide. To diagnose and classify depression, various assessment tools are available, such as the PHQ-9, Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) Scale, and Beck Depression Inventory.
Other possible diagnoses that need to be ruled out include acute alcohol withdrawal, acute psychosis, hypomania, and schizophrenia. Acute alcohol withdrawal typically manifests with psychomotor agitation, anxiety, tremor, insomnia, nausea, vomiting, hallucinations, seizures, and autonomic instability. Delirium tremens is a severe complication of alcohol withdrawal that can be life-threatening. Acute psychosis is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, or thought disorder. Hypomania is a milder form of mania that features elated mood, pressure of speech, increased energy, activity, appetite, sexual desire, and pain threshold, but does not cause significant impairment. Schizophrenia is a chronic and severe mental disorder that involves a range of cognitive, emotional, and behavioral symptoms, including hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and social withdrawal.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, and mental status is necessary to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Collaborating with a mental health specialist may also be beneficial in managing complex cases of depression or other mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female is admitted to the psychiatric ward and experiences an acute episode of psychosis. The on-call doctor is consulted and prescribes medication, but the patient subsequently develops severe acute agitation and torticollis.
What is the most suitable course of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Procyclidine
Explanation:Common Drugs and Their Roles in Treating Extra-Pyramidal Side Effects
Extra-pyramidal side effects (EPSE) are a common occurrence in patients taking antipsychotic medications. Procyclidine is an antimuscarinic drug that is the first line treatment for EPSE, including torticollis. It can be administered orally or parenterally and is usually very effective.
Naloxone, on the other hand, is an opioid antagonist used in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose. It has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine antagonist, is used to reverse central sedative effects of benzodiazepines during anaesthesia or diagnostic, surgical or dental procedures. It has no role in the treatment of torticollis or other EPSE.
N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is mainly used in the treatment of paracetamol overdose and has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Sodium thiosulphate, used as an antidote to cyanide poisoning, also has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Understanding the roles of these common drugs can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment for patients experiencing EPSE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old patient is brought to General Practitioner by his parents because he has been disruptive at school. His teachers report that he does not pay attention in class, bullies other classmates and takes their food during lunchtime without their permission. One teacher also reported that the patient was seen hurting the class hamster.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conduct disorder
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Behavioral Disorders in Children and Adults
Conduct Disorder:
Conduct disorder is a behavioral disorder that affects individuals under the age of 18. It is characterized by repetitive behavior that violates the rights of others, including bullying and torture of animals.Major Depression:
Major depression is a mood disorder that is diagnosed when an individual experiences depressed mood along with at least five of the following symptoms: changes in sleep patterns, loss of interest in activities, feelings of guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite, sluggishness, and suicidal thoughts.Antisocial Disorder:
Individuals who exhibit signs of conduct disorder and are 18 years or older are diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder.Manic Episode:
Mania is a mood disorder characterized by elevated mood lasting for at least 7 days. Symptoms include increased energy, decreased need for sleep, risky sexual behavior, feelings of invincibility, distractibility, flight of ideas, agitation, and pressured speech.Oppositional Defiant Disorder:
Oppositional defiant disorder is a behavioral disorder characterized by oppositional behavior towards authority figures. However, there is no violation of the rights of others or extreme behavior such as bullying or animal cruelty. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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In a 16-year-old girl with severe weight loss, which of the following would be a common finding in association with anorexia nervosa (AN)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased excessive physical activity
Explanation:Features and Diagnostic Criteria of Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia Nervosa (AN) is a serious eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Here are some features and diagnostic criteria of AN:
Increased excessive physical activity: Patients with AN tend to exercise excessively to lose weight.
Low plasma cortisol levels: AN patients have low levels of cortisol, a hormone that helps regulate metabolism and stress response.
Buccal pigmentation: This is not a typical feature of AN.
Raised gonadotrophin levels: Gonadotrophin levels are usually reduced in AN, leading to amenorrhoea in women and loss of sexual interest in men.
Hyperkalaemia: AN patients may have high levels of potassium in their blood.
Diagnostic criteria: According to the ICD-10, a definite diagnosis of AN requires body weight maintained at least 15% below the expected, self-induced weight loss, body image distortion, endocrine disorder involving the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis, and delayed or arrested pubertal events if onset is prepubertal.
Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Features and Diagnostic Criteria
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor in psychiatry, you are evaluating a young man in the Emergency Department who was brought in by the police for carrying a knife. Your conversation with him goes as follows:
Doctor: I see that the police have brought you in from the town centre today. Can you tell me why, as a young man, you felt the need to carry a knife?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tangentiality
Explanation:Tangentiality is when someone goes off on a tangent and does not return to the original topic. It is a type of formal thought disorder that is often seen in people with schizophrenia. The person may provide excessive and unnecessary details that are somewhat relevant to the question but never answer the central point. Circumstantiality is similar, but the person ultimately provides an answer. Clang associations involve using words that sound similar but have no logical connection, while perseveration is when someone continues to respond to a previous question even after a new one has been asked.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman, who has been struggling with drug addiction and living on the streets, presents to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain. The patient reports that she developed acute abdominal pain two hours prior to the presentation after eating a hot dog. The patient otherwise has no significant past medical history, takes no medications and admits to smoking and occasional alcohol consumption.
On examination, the patient has normal vital signs. Her abdominal examination demonstrates normoactive bowel sounds, no tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium and no guarding or rebound tenderness. Rectal exam for stool occult blood is negative and a chest X-ray does not reveal free air under the diaphragm. A right upper quadrant ultrasound does not demonstrate stones. The doctor recommends antacids. When the doctor tells the patient that she is safe for discharge, the patient insists that she must be admitted to the hospital for further tests.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Differentiating between Malingering, Hypochondriasis, Conversion Disorder, Factitious Disorder, and Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy
When evaluating patients, it is important to differentiate between various conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Malingering is a condition where a patient feigns or exaggerates symptoms for secondary gain, such as meals or a place to sleep. Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, is a condition where a patient fears having a medical illness despite negative tests and reassurance. Conversion disorder refers to the manifestation of psychological illness as neurologic pathology, while factitious disorder involves a patient who assumes the sick role for personal satisfaction. Finally, Munchausen syndrome by proxy is similar to factitious disorder but involves a patient seeking the sick role vicariously through a second patient, often a child. By understanding the differences between these conditions, healthcare providers can provide appropriate care and treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A young man with a 5-year history of alcoholism successfully completes an inpatient drug rehabilitation programme. What advice will you give him to maintain sobriety?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group
Explanation:Strategies for Preventing Alcohol Relapse
For individuals with alcohol-use disorders, preventing relapse is crucial for maintaining sobriety. Here are some strategies that can help:
1. Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group or other self-help groups that require total abstinence. Active participation in these groups can offer the best chance of preventing relapses.
2. Limit consumption to socially appropriate amounts. Even small amounts of alcohol can trigger a relapse, so individuals who have completed a detoxification program are encouraged not to drink at all.
3. Take disulfiram as prescribed. This medication can cause unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed, making it a deterrent for those who struggle with alcohol use. However, it should only be taken in the context of an appropriate alcohol detoxification program.
4. Take naltrexone as prescribed. This medication can help reduce cravings for alcohol, but it should not be taken as a deterrent before attending a party.
5. Plan a definite number of drinks before attending a party. However, individuals who have completed a detoxification program are still encouraged not to drink at all to prevent relapse.
By implementing these strategies, individuals with alcohol-use disorders can increase their chances of maintaining sobriety and preventing relapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are a junior doctor working in the Emergency Department. A 54-year-old man is brought in by his wife. He looks unwell and is sweating profusely. He tells you he has abruptly stopped drinking alcohol and used to drink heavily. What is the neurotransmitter mechanism responsible for alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased inhibitory GABA and increased excitatory glutamate
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal occurs due to a decrease in the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA and an increase in the excitatory neurotransmitter NMDA glutamate. GABA typically reduces brain activity and induces a calming effect when levels are high, which is heightened during alcohol consumption. On the other hand, glutamate increases brain activity and acts as a natural stimulant, which is reduced during alcohol consumption, leading to a physiological slowdown.
When a person drinks alcohol, the brain assumes that there is an excess of GABA and a shortage of glutamate. However, if the person continues to drink excessively, the brain produces less GABA and more glutamate to restore normal brain chemistry. If the person then stops drinking, the brain experiences a rebound effect, where it still produces less GABA and more glutamate than required without alcohol. As a result, the brain acts as if there is a deficiency of GABA and an excess of glutamate, leading to withdrawal symptoms.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to see her GP due to feeling down and lonely. She reports being a naturally shy person and experiencing intense anxiety about being judged or rejected by others for her perceived inadequacies. This has led her to avoid forming close relationships and she has even stopped seeing the few friends she had. Her social anxiety affects all aspects of her life, including her choice of a solitary job, solo hobbies, and never having been in a romantic relationship. She finds it challenging to deviate from her limited daily routine, although she feels unfulfilled by it. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoidant personality disorder
Explanation:The patient’s description of feeling lonely and avoiding social situations due to fear of negative evaluation and criticism suggests a diagnosis of avoidant personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by chronic patterns of interpersonal inhibition, fear of rejection, and social inhibition. The patient’s symptoms are pervasive and have been present since childhood or adolescence, indicating a personality disorder rather than a transient condition. While other disorders such as autism spectrum disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and schizoid personality disorder may also involve social difficulties, they do not have the same fear of rejection and feelings of inadequacy that are characteristic of avoidant personality disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past six months.
On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index body mass index (BMI) of 23 kg/m2. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics
Bulimia Nervosa
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa tend to have normal BMI despite purging behavior. Symptoms include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).Gender Dysphoria
Gender dysphoria is a condition where an individual experiences a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social or medical transition, such as hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming.Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is characterized by decreased dietary intake with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. Symptoms include early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.Avoidant Personality Disorder
Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who wishes to have friends and social outlets but is so shy that they are unable to form relationships out of fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.Binge Eating Disorder
Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating without purging behavior. Symptoms include distress and weight gain. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of depression at the age of 50 presents for review. What indicates an elevated risk of suicide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of arm cutting
Explanation:Arm cutting may be seen as attention-seeking or a way to release pain, but studies indicate that it increases the risk of suicide for those with a history of deliberate self harm. Employment is a protective factor.
Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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