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  • Question 1 - A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine 7-week check-up. The baby appears happy and responsive during the assessment. During the examination, you observe weak femoral pulses on both sides. The rest of the examination is normal.

      What is the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer: Advise the mother to take the child to the emergency department immediately

      Correct Answer: Same day discussion with paediatrics

      Explanation:

      If a baby’s femoral pulses are absent or weak during their 6-8 week check, it is crucial to discuss this immediately with a paediatrics specialist. Similarly, if a child shows signs of a critical or major congenital heart abnormality during this check, urgent attention from a specialist is necessary. Advising the mother that these findings are normal would be incorrect, as they are abnormal and require prompt attention. Referring the child to the emergency department is also not the best course of action, as they may not have the necessary expertise to deal with this issue. Referring routinely to paediatrics or making an appointment in two weeks would also be inappropriate, as the child needs urgent attention from the appropriate specialist.

      Types of Congenital Heart Disease

      Congenital heart disease refers to heart defects that are present at birth. There are two main types of congenital heart disease: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart defects are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defects (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSDs are the most common acyanotic heart defect, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common but tend to be diagnosed in adults as they present later.

      Cyanotic heart defects are less common but more serious. They include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects. Understanding the different types of congenital heart disease is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You have arranged a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been...

    Correct

    • You have arranged a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been trying to conceive with his wife for the last 12 months without success.

      The results are as follows:

      Semen volume 1.8 ml (1.5ml or more)
      pH 7.4 (7.2 or more)
      Sperm concentration 12 million per ml (15 million per ml or more)
      Total sperm number 21 million (39 million or more)
      Total motility 40% progressively motile (32% or more)
      Vitality 68% live spermatozoa (58% or more)
      Normal forms 5% (4% or more)

      His partner is also currently undergoing investigations. You plan on referring him to fertility services.

      What is the appropriate course of action based on these semen analysis results?

      Your Answer: Repeat test in 3 months

      Explanation:

      If a semen sample shows abnormalities, it is recommended to schedule a repeat test after 3 months to allow for the completion of the spermatozoa formation cycle. In cases where there is a severe deficiency in spermatozoa (azoospermia or a sperm concentration of less than 5 million per ml), an immediate recheck may be necessary. Based on World Health Organisation criteria, this man has mild oligozoospermia/oligospermia with a sperm concentration of 10 to 15 million per ml, thus requiring a confirmatory test after 3 months.

      Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic reaction to a wasp sting. She presents to her General Practitioner (GP) a few days later as she is worried about the possibility of this happening again and is seeking advice on what she should do if it does.
      What is the most appropriate initial self-management advice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Self-administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of adrenaline

      Explanation:

      How to Self-Administer an Intramuscular Injection of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The most effective treatment for anaphylaxis is intramuscular (IM) adrenaline, which can be self-administered using adrenaline auto-injectors (AAIs) such as EpiPen® and Jext®.

      Before using an AAI, patients should receive proper training on their use. The recommended dose of adrenaline for adults is 0.3 mg, while for children up to 25-30 kg, it is 0.15 mg. Patients should carry two doses with them at all times, as the dose may need to be repeated after 5-15 minutes.

      It is important to note that a cold compress is not an effective treatment for anaphylaxis, as it is a systemic reaction. Similarly, taking an oral antihistamine should not delay treatment with IM adrenaline.

      If experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to administer the IM adrenaline injection immediately and then seek medical attention. Contacting emergency services is recommended, but should not delay self-administration of the injection. Additionally, if stung by a bee, the sting should be scraped out rather than plucked to avoid squeezing more venom into the skin.

      In summary, knowing how to self-administer an IM injection of adrenaline is crucial for those at risk of anaphylaxis. Proper training and carrying two doses of the medication at all times can help ensure prompt and effective treatment in case of an emergency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following products is 'blacklisted' under Part XVIIIA of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following products is 'blacklisted' under Part XVIIIA of the Drug Tariff and hence cannot be dispensed on the NHS?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Correct Answer: Topical minoxidil

      Explanation:

      The Blacklist and Selected List in the Drug Tariff

      The Drug Tariff has two important lists that determine what products can be prescribed on an NHS prescription. Part XVIIIA of the Drug Tariff, also known as ‘the blacklist’, contains a list of food, drug, toiletry, and cosmetic products that cannot be prescribed on the NHS. However, medical devices can be prescribed if they are listed in Part IX of the Drug Tariff.

      If a proprietary product is listed in ‘the blacklist’, it cannot be dispensed on the NHS, unless the prescription is issued using a generic name that is not included in the blacklist. For instance, Propecia and Regaine, which are used for male-pattern alopecia, are blacklisted products. However, Calpol, which contains paracetamol suspension, can be prescribed despite being a blacklisted product.

      On the other hand, Part XVIIIB of the Drug Tariff, also known as the Selected List, contains items that can only be prescribed for specific patient groups and purposes listed in the Drug Tariff. Prescribers must endorse prescriptions for these products with ‘SLS’. It is important to note that sildenafil was removed from the Selected List in 2014 and can now be prescribed freely.

      In summary, prescribers must be aware of the products listed in the Drug Tariff’s blacklist and Selected List to ensure that they prescribe the appropriate products for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6-year-old boy comes to you complaining of sudden and severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy comes to you complaining of sudden and severe pain in his right ear after recently having an ear infection. During examination, you notice a perforated eardrum. He has a soccer game next week and is eager to play. What advice would you give him regarding this situation?

      Your Answer: She can participate in the tournament as long as she wears a swimming cap which covers her ears

      Correct Answer: Avoid swimming until the perforation is completely healed

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to refrain from swimming until a perforated tympanic membrane has fully healed, which typically takes longer than a week. Using a swimming cap may not offer adequate protection. Antibiotics should only be prescribed if there is an infection present, and oral antibiotics are preferred over drops.

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is often caused by an infection but can also result from barotrauma or direct trauma. This condition can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the tympanic membrane will typically heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. However, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear during this time. Antibiotics may be prescribed if the perforation occurs after an episode of acute otitis media. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory Tract Infection Guidelines from NICE.

      If the tympanic membrane doesn’t heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This surgical procedure involves repairing the perforation with a graft of tissue taken from another part of the body. With proper management, a perforated tympanic membrane can be successfully treated and hearing can be restored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman has been referred for a fasting glucose test following...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman has been referred for a fasting glucose test following the discovery of 2+ glucose on dip testing. She is 32 weeks pregnant and had a BMI of 32 before her pregnancy.

      What is the threshold level of fasting plasma glucose for diagnosing gestational diabetes?

      Your Answer: 7

      Correct Answer: 7.8

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Gestational Diabetes

      For pregnant women, a fasting glucose level of 5.6 mmol/l or above is the threshold for diagnosing gestational diabetes. This differs from the threshold level for diagnosing diabetes in non-pregnant individuals, which is 7 mmol/l. If an oral glucose tolerance test is performed, a level of 7.8 mmol/l or above represents gestational diabetes. It is important to be familiar with the risk factors for gestational diabetes, what to do if a pregnant woman tests positive for glucose on urine dip, and the values that represent gestational diabetes for both fasting samples and glucose tolerance tests. This information is frequently tested in exams and is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of gestational diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 81-year-old widow presents to you with complaints of recurrent pains throughout her...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old widow presents to you with complaints of recurrent pains throughout her body every morning, which often leave her bedridden for a few hours. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found, and there is no evidence of arthritis. Blood tests, including a full blood count, renal profile, liver function tests, ESR, and bone profile, have all been unremarkable. She reports having trouble sleeping since her husband passed away 2 years ago. What would be the most suitable treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Physical symptoms are a common manifestation of depression, especially in older patients who may not directly express their mood difficulties. Therefore, it is important to investigate a patient’s mood when they present with unexplained symptoms. Although regular paracetamol may have a placebo effect, it cannot address the underlying issue. Antipsychotics like haloperidol are not suitable in this scenario. Gabapentin is unlikely to be effective unless the patient has neuropathic pain. While zopiclone may improve sleep, it is not a long-term solution and cannot address the root cause of the problem.

      Understanding Depression in Older Adults

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects people of all ages, including older adults. However, older patients are less likely to report feelings of depressed mood, which can make it difficult for healthcare professionals to identify and manage the condition. Instead, older adults may present with physical complaints, such as hypochondriasis, agitation, and insomnia.

      To manage depression in older adults, healthcare professionals typically prescribe selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) as a first-line treatment. This is because the adverse side-effect profile of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) can be more problematic in older adults. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the unique challenges associated with managing depression in older adults and to work closely with patients to develop an individualized treatment plan that addresses their specific needs and concerns. By doing so, healthcare professionals can help older adults manage their depression and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old man who has entered for the London Marathon comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man who has entered for the London Marathon comes to the surgery for a routine medical. He has now been training for 13 months.

      On examination he is bradycardic with a resting pulse of 40. His BP is 115/72 mmHg at rest. The LV impulse is laterally displaced and there is a systolic ejection flow murmur. You can hear a third heart sound.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Athletic Heart

      The athletic heart is a common occurrence in individuals who engage in prolonged periods of endurance training. It is characterized by a systolic flow murmur, LV enlargement, bradycardia, and third heart sounds. To differentiate it from cardiomyopathy, echocardiography is useful, with symmetric septal hypertrophy, normal diastolic function, and LVH <13 mm being features of athletic hearts. The BP response to exercise is normal, and LVH regresses in response to deconditioning. While persistent bradycardia and atrial arrhythmias are rare sequelae of the athletic heart picture, it is important to differentiate between a physiological S3 gallop (triple rhythm) and a pathological summation gallop. Although most GPs may struggle to differentiate third and fourth heart sounds, it is crucial to recognize that some signs can occur in 'normal' individuals as well as disease. Understanding the athletic heart is essential for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department with facial swelling that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department with facial swelling that he has had for 2 hours. He started taking a new medication yesterday. During the examination, his lips are found to be swollen. His blood pressure is 128/76 mmHg and his pulse is 70 beats per minute. He reports no breathing difficulties or stridor.

      What medication could be responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Valsartan

      Explanation:

      Angioedema, a condition characterized by swelling under the skin, can be caused by various allergens as well as certain medications such as ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs. antihistamines are a common treatment option depending on the underlying cause. However, the medications listed other than ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs are not known to cause angioedema.

      Understanding Angioedema: Causes and Treatment

      Angioedema is a condition characterized by swelling beneath the skin, which can be caused by different allergens. The treatment for this condition varies depending on the underlying cause, but it often involves the use of antihistamines. Angioedema can be triggered by a variety of factors, including food allergies, insect bites, medication reactions, and genetic factors. The swelling can occur in different parts of the body, such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and hands. In some cases, angioedema can be life-threatening, especially if it affects the airways and causes difficulty breathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman, who works as a croupier and is typically in good...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman, who works as a croupier and is typically in good health, woke up 3 weeks ago with weakness in her left hand. She experienced numbness at the base of the thumb on the dorsum of the hand. She takes the oral contraceptive pill. She drinks alcohol in binges, one of which occurred the night before her symptoms started, and smokes 15 cigarettes per day. She has a normal general examination, normal cranial nerves and normal muscle tone, but mild weakness of the left brachioradialis and moderate weakness of wrist and finger extension. She has full power in her other arm muscles, including elbow extension. Reflexes are normal.
      What is the most likely lesion causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve at the spiral groove

      Explanation:

      Understanding Saturday Night Palsy: Causes, Symptoms, and Differential Diagnosis

      Saturday night palsy is a condition that occurs when the radial nerve is compressed at the spiral groove of the humerus, usually due to falling asleep with one’s arm hanging over the armrest of a chair. This compression causes weakness in radial-innervated muscles distal to the site of the lesion and sensory loss due to conduction block in the radial nerve. While not all radial-innervated muscles may be affected, a history of abnormal sleeping or stupor the night before is often reported.

      When diagnosing Saturday night palsy, it’s important to consider other potential causes of weakness and sensory disturbance. A cerebral infarction is a possible differential, but the focal pattern of weakness and sensory disturbance and normal reflex pattern make this less likely. The ulnar nerve supplies different muscles and sensory territory, while a posterior interosseous nerve lesion is unlikely due to involvement of muscles outside its territory. A C7 radiculopathy is also unlikely because the triceps was not involved and the brachioradialis (C5, 6) was affected.

      In summary, understanding the causes, symptoms, and differential diagnosis of Saturday night palsy is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old Romanian patient presents to the clinic with a two-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old Romanian patient presents to the clinic with a two-day history of upper left gumline pain, accompanied by a loss of appetite and a temperature of 38.2ºC. On examination, there is tenderness over the gum, and a dental abscess is suspected. Urgent referral to a dentist is recommended, along with antibiotic therapy. What is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics may be necessary in cases of fever or delayed presentation to a dentist. The BNF recommends amoxicillin as the first-line treatment for dental abscesses, followed by metronidazole for more invasive dental conditions.

      Since GPs have limited knowledge of dental issues, it is best for the patient to be treated by their dentist. The most effective treatment for an abscess is prompt drainage. Antibiotics are generally not recommended for healthy individuals unless there are signs of spreading infection or if the person is systemically unwell. According to NICE CKS guidelines, antibiotics should only be prescribed for severe infections (e.g. fever, lymphadenopathy, cellulitis, diffuse swelling) or for high-risk individuals (e.g. those who are immunocompromised, diabetic, or have valvular heart disease) to reduce the risk of complications.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up of his spirometry-confirmed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up of his spirometry-confirmed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His spirometry shows an FEV1 of 40%. He has not sought medical attention for his chest in several years and only uses salbutamol as inhaled therapy. He reports using at least two puffs of salbutamol four times a day, but his breathlessness is limiting his ability to engage in enjoyable activities. Despite his current treatment, he continues to experience persistent breathlessness. He has no history of asthma and is a former smoker. What is the appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer: Use a long acting beta agonist and long acting muscarinic antagonist

      Correct Answer: Continue the same inhaled treatment but use short courses of oral steroid when he exacerbates

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for suboptimal control in COPD patients

      To determine the appropriate treatment for suboptimal control in COPD patients, it is recommended to consult the NICE guidance on Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (CG115). If a patient has suboptimal control despite using a regular short-acting beta 2-agonist (SABA), oral theophylline may be considered at a later stage in the treatment ladder. However, LAMA+LABA should be offered to patients who have spirometrically confirmed COPD, do not have asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness, and remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using a short-acting bronchodilator. It is important to note that adding a regular inhaled steroid is not recommended in the treatment ladder as it is inferior to LABA/ICS combination or LAMA. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide optimal treatment for COPD patients with suboptimal control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old, previously healthy, female presents with a nine day history of fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old, previously healthy, female presents with a nine day history of fever, sore throat and fatigue.

      On examination of her throat, there are palatal petechiae and white tonsillar exudates. Two days ago, another doctor prescribed amoxicillin, and she has since developed a widespread maculopapular rash.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a common disease that affects young adults. It is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which is excreted through nasopharyngeal secretions, primarily saliva, and can be transmitted through person-to-person contact, earning it the nickname kissing disease. While some carriers may not exhibit symptoms, others may experience acute illness characterized by sore throat, fever, lethargy, lymphadenopathy, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, and haemolytic anaemia. Rashes may also occur, particularly if the patient is given amoxicillin or ampicillin, which should not be confused with the disease.

      When diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, it is important to consider other differential diagnoses such as streptococcal sore throat, HIV seroconversion illness, diphtheria, and leukaemia. These conditions share many common symptoms, but the appearance of a rash after the patient has been given amoxicillin can help confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the signs and symptoms of infectious mononucleosis and its differential diagnoses can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 59-year-old lady, whose mother has osteoporosis but no fractures, visited your clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old lady, whose mother has osteoporosis but no fractures, visited your clinic seeking advice.

      She has never smoked, doesn't use steroids, has no significant health issues, and has never experienced a fracture. Her menopause began at age 52. She has no other risk factors for osteoporosis. She refuses to take medication but wants to know about lifestyle modifications that can lower her chances of developing osteoporosis.

      What is the most suitable course of action to manage this patient's concerns?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be encouraged to undertake weight-bearing aerobic exercise and resistance exercise which have been shown to increase spine bone density in postmenopausal women

      Explanation:

      Exercise and Management of Osteoporosis in Postmenopausal Women

      A Cochrane Review has found that postmenopausal women can increase their bone mineral density (BMD) through various exercises such as aerobics, weight-bearing, and resistance exercises. However, a DXA scan may not be necessary for women who do not meet the 1999 RCP guidance or NICE criteria for bisphosphonate use. Additionally, calcium supplementation may not reduce fractures in otherwise healthy women over 50 years old, and HRT is not recommended as a first-line intervention due to associated risks. Hormone replacement therapy can be used to maintain bone density in women with premature menopause until they reach age 50. It is important to consider individual risk factors and appropriate interventions for the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman who is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks advice. She is currently on day 15 of her cycle and has missed her last two pills. Before this, she had taken her pill correctly every day. She had unprotected sex 10 hours ago and is unsure if she needs emergency contraception to avoid pregnancy.

      What advice should she be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No emergency contraception is required and to continue taking her pill as normal

      Explanation:

      If the patient has missed two pills between days 8-14 of her cycle but has taken the previous 7 days of COCP correctly, emergency contraception is not necessary according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health. Since the patient is not in need of emergency contraception, offering a hormonal-based option would be inappropriate. However, if emergency contraception is required, options include EllaOne (ulipristal acetate) up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse or Levonelle (levonorgestrel) up to 96 hours after unprotected intercourse.

      Inserting a copper IUD to prevent pregnancy would also be inappropriate in this case. If the patient is having difficulty remembering to take her pill correctly and is interested in long-acting contraception, counseling her on options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection would be appropriate.

      It is important to note that emergency contraception can be prescribed up to 120 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse, but its effectiveness decreases over time. Therefore, advising a patient to take emergency contraception within 12 hours would be incorrect.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman has a diastolic murmur best heard in the upper-left 2nd...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a diastolic murmur best heard in the upper-left 2nd intercostal space.
      What single condition would be part of the differential diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs: Characteristics and Causes

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve abnormalities, septal defects, and physiological factors. Here are some characteristics and causes of common heart murmurs:

      Aortic Regurgitation: This produces a low-intensity early diastolic decrescendo murmur, best heard in the aortic area. The backflow of blood across the aortic valve causes the murmur.

      Aortic Stenosis: This produces a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the aortic area. It radiates into the neck over the two carotid arteries. The most common cause is calcified aortic valves due to ageing, followed by congenital bicuspid aortic valves.

      Mitral Regurgitation: This murmur is best heard at the apex. In the presence of incompetent mitral valve, the pressure in the left ventricle becomes greater than that in the left atrium at the start of isovolumic contraction, which corresponds to the closing of the mitral valve (S1).

      Physiological Murmur: This is a low-intensity murmur that mainly occurs in children. It can occur in adults particularly if there is anaemia or a fever. It is caused by increased blood flow through the aortic valves.

      Ventricular Septal Defect: This produces a pansystolic murmur that starts at S1 and extends up to S2. In a VSD the murmur is usually best heard over the left lower sternal border (tricuspid area) with radiation to the right lower sternal border. This is the area overlying the VSD.

      Understanding the characteristics and causes of different heart murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 17 - As per the guidelines of NICE and National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA), how...

    Incorrect

    • As per the guidelines of NICE and National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA), how frequently should lithium levels be monitored once a stable dose has been attained?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Once a stable dose has been achieved, lithium levels need to be monitored every 3 months.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 18 - A 47-year-old female presents with complaints of irregular periods, bothersome hot flashes, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old female presents with complaints of irregular periods, bothersome hot flashes, and mood swings for the past six months. She is interested in trying hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and has no contraindications. Her mother has a history of unprovoked DVT, but she has never experienced it. Which HRT preparation would be most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transdermal combined sequential preparation

      Explanation:

      The recommended hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for this patient is a transdermal, combined sequential preparation. This is because she has erratic periods, indicating an intact uterus that requires protection of the endometrium with both oestrogen and progesterone. Therefore, an oestrogen-only HRT is not suitable.

      Using a Mirena coil, which releases levonorgestrel into the uterus, is unlikely to alleviate the emotional lability and hot flashes associated with menopause. Additionally, using it alone without an oestrogen component is not an option for this patient. As she is still having periods at the age of 49, a sequential preparation is more appropriate than a continuous one, which is typically used after menopause.

      Given the patient’s family history of unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a transdermal preparation may be preferable as it significantly reduces the risk of venous thromboembolism associated with HRT.

      Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.

      The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.

      HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.

      HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 19 - During a routine insurance medical examination, a GP notices that a 35-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine insurance medical examination, a GP notices that a 35-year-old woman has absent ankle jerks and unequal pupils.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Holmes-Adie syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions: Holmes-Adie Syndrome

      Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition that affects the pupil of the eye and the autonomic nervous system. It is characterized by one eye with a larger than normal pupil that constricts slowly in bright light, along with the absence of deep tendon reflexes, usually in the Achilles tendon. The pupil remains small for an abnormally long time after constriction, known as a tonic pupil. This condition is thought to be caused by a viral infection that damages neurons in the ciliary ganglion and the dorsal root ganglion.

      Holmes-Adie syndrome typically begins gradually in one eye and may involve the other eye. Patients may also experience excessive sweating, sometimes only on one side of the body. This condition is most commonly seen in young women. Diagnosis is confirmed by the pupil’s hypersensitivity to weak miotic drops, causing the abnormal pupil to contract vigorously and the normal pupil minimally.

      While this condition tends to be benign, patients are typically observed. The prevalence of Holmes-Adie syndrome is about 2 per 1000. Over time, the pupil sphincter may become fibrosed and the pupil constricted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 20 - A 12-year-old boy, who has a known severe allergy to peanuts, comes to...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy, who has a known severe allergy to peanuts, comes to the emergency room after accidentally eating a peanut butter sandwich. He reports feeling itchy all over and his lips are starting to swell. He is having difficulty breathing and feels like he might pass out. His mother is in a panic, saying that she remembers a similar incident when he was younger.
      What is the initial treatment option that should be considered in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer 0.5 ml of 1 in 1000 adrenaline by IM injection

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis in General Practice: Importance of Emergency Knowledge

      There are few life-threatening situations that GPs encounter in their daily practice, but anaphylaxis is one of them. The RCGP emphasizes the need for examination candidates to be proficient in their knowledge of life-threatening emergencies such as this. An example of anaphylaxis could be a bee sting, medicine, or immunization reaction.

      Prompt injection of adrenaline is of paramount importance, and the preferred route of administration should be intramuscular. Other treatments may be supplemented, but adrenaline is the preferred first-line treatment. Chlorphenamine could be given by slow intravenous injection as an adjunctive treatment, as would be inhaled bronchodilators. Intravenous hydrocortisone is of secondary value because the onset of action is too slow compared to adrenaline.

      To issue a prescription for anything would be wholly inappropriate. This patient needs immediate treatment. Oral treatments are too slow in their action. Although we have not tested your wider knowledge of her management in this question, it is important to remember your basic resuscitation skills.

      It is crucial to carry emergency drugs in your doctor’s bag and know the correct dose of adrenaline to administer. Most vials of adrenaline come as 1 in 1000, but a 1 in 10,000 ampoule is available and this could lead to errors. It is essential to check the drug bag and ensure that all medications are within date. In case of an anaphylactic reaction to an immunization in a baby, the correct dose of adrenaline should be known.

      In conclusion, anaphylaxis is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt and appropriate treatment. GPs should be proficient in their knowledge of emergency management and carry emergency drugs in their doctor’s bag.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 21 - A 12-year-old boy is diagnosed with haemophilia A after being evaluated for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is diagnosed with haemophilia A after being evaluated for a haemarthrosis. Among his family members, who is the most probable to have the same condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mother's brother

      Explanation:

      The answer is mother’s brother, as X-linked recessive conditions are exclusive to males and do not transmit from male to male.

      X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old man has scheduled an appointment at your clinic. He suffered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man has scheduled an appointment at your clinic. He suffered a traumatic head injury in a car accident six months ago and has been recovering well. However, two months ago, he experienced a generalised tonic clonic seizure and was advised by a neurologist to seek further review if he had any more episodes.

      Recently, he had another seizure at home and was taken to the emergency department. The on-call neurologist recommended starting levetiracetam and arranged an urgent clinic appointment in the coming weeks. He has been given a short supply of medication and would like to add it to his repeat prescriptions.

      During the emergency department visit, he was told by the doctor that he should not drive, but he was not informed for how long. He holds an ordinary car licence and doesn't drive for work.

      What advice should you provide to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Must tell the DVLA and must not drive until 12 months seizure free

      Explanation:

      The DVLA has a set of complex rules that drivers should be aware of, including those related to epilepsy. If an individual with epilepsy has experienced more than one seizure resulting in loss of consciousness while awake, they are not permitted to drive until they have been seizure-free for a year. It is crucial that this information is documented clearly.

      If an individual has only experienced one generalized seizure, they are prohibited from driving for six months, and their license will only be reinstated at the discretion of the DVLA.

      If a known epileptic has a seizure due to a reduction in their medication dosage, they may resume driving once they have been back on their previous dose for six months, provided they have not experienced any further seizures during that time.

      There are specific regulations for partial seizures, nocturnal seizures, and those with bus, coach, or lorry licenses. For complete guidance, individuals should refer to the government’s website.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A circumstance in which a subject in a research project alters their behavior...

    Incorrect

    • A circumstance in which a subject in a research project alters their behavior due to the awareness of being monitored is referred to as what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP for his annual health check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP for his annual health check-up. During the check-up, the GP diagnosed him with hypertension and prescribed ramipril 2.5mg OD. The patient is also taking lansoprazole 30 mg OD, furosemide 20 mg OD, and atorvastatin 40 mg ON.

      The patient's U+E levels have been stable, but a recent blood test showed:
      - Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 47 ml/min/1.73m2

      One month later, the GP requested a repeat U+E test, which showed:
      - Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 6.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 8.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 43 ml/min/1.73m2

      The patient's ECG was normal. What is the most appropriate management plan, in addition to re-checking the U+E levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Swap ramipril for another Antihypertensive

      Explanation:

      If a patient with CKD has a potassium level above 6 mmol/L, discontinuing ACE inhibitors should be considered, as per NICE Clinical Guideline 182. However, it is important to ensure that any other medications that may contribute to hyperkalemia have already been stopped before making this decision. In this particular case, there are no other medications that can be discontinued to lower potassium levels without deviating from the NICE guidelines.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 25 - A seven-week-old baby is brought to the surgery by his mother for his...

    Incorrect

    • A seven-week-old baby is brought to the surgery by his mother for his postnatal check. He was born at 36 weeks weighing 2.7kg. On examination the GP finds that the left testicle is not present in the scrotum or groin.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review at three months of age

      Explanation:

      Undescended Testes in Infants

      Undescended testes, also known as cryptorchidism, is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. It is more common in unilateral cases, occurring four times more often than bilateral cases. At birth, the prevalence of undescended testes is 3.7%, which decreases to 1.0% by three months of age.

      It is important to review infants with unilateral undescended testes at three months of age and refer them before six months of age if the condition persists. While most cases will resolve on their own, surgical intervention may be necessary to prevent complications such as impaired fertility, testicular cancer, and testicular torsion. It is not appropriate to reassure and discharge infants with undescended testes, as some cases will require intervention.

      In cases where a disorder of sexual development is suspected, referral for endocrine and genetic testing may be useful. It is crucial to address undescended testes early to prevent potential complications and ensure proper treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue for the past few...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue for the past few months. She reports having missed her period for six months and experiences dizziness in the morning. Addison's disease is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
      Which of the following clinical manifestations is the most specific for Addison's disease?
      Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pigmentation of the palms

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Hypoadrenalism and Hypopituitarism

      Hypoadrenalism, also known as Addison’s disease, can be caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, granulomatous disorders, tuberculosis, tumours, or infections. Glucocorticoid deficiency, commonly seen in Addison’s disease, can cause pigmentation of the palms due to elevated levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

      Hypopituitarism can cause a variety of symptoms, including pallor due to normochromic, normocytic anaemia, postural hypotension related to glucocorticoid deficiency, and visual-field defects from pressure on the optic nerve caused by a pituitary tumour. Lack of body hair and amenorrhoea are also features of hypogonadism in hypopituitarism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
    Select from the list the single feature...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
      Select from the list the single feature that would make it LESS likely that this is a streptococcal infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cough

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Viral Sore Throat and Group A β-haemolytic Streptococcus

      It can be challenging to distinguish between a viral sore throat and one caused by Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus (GABS) through examination alone. However, the Centor criteria can be useful in making this differentiation. These criteria include the presence of tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, absence of cough, and a history of fever. If a patient has three of these signs, there is a 40-60% chance that they have GABS. Conversely, if a patient doesn’t have three of these signs, there is an 80% chance that they have a viral infection. Additionally, the presence of a scarlet fever-like rash, a flushed face, circumoral pallor, and a white or red strawberry tongue may also suggest the possibility of a streptococcal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 28 - A father brings his 3-month-old baby to the pediatrician's office, reporting that the...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 3-month-old baby to the pediatrician's office, reporting that the infant has been vomiting and regurgitating after every feeding with a cow's milk-based formula. The vomiting is not forceful, and there is no unusual coloration with blood or bile. The baby doesn't appear to be in significant distress, but the father has also noticed that the child has persistent diarrhea. The father had to switch to formula as the mother was unable to produce enough breast milk. He tried a soy milk-based formula on the advice of a friend, but it did not make any difference.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extensive hydrolysed formula milk

      Explanation:

      Soya milk may not be a suitable alternative for infants with cow’s milk protein allergy as many of them are also intolerant to it. Amino acid-based formula is the recommended management for severe cases or when extensive hydrolysed formula milk is ineffective.

      Breastfeeding is encouraged if the mother eliminates cows milk proteins from her diet, but it may not be practical if she cannot produce enough milk for the child. For infants with mild to moderate cows milk protein allergy who are formula-fed, extensive hydrolysed milk formula is the first-line management.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD) may be managed with omeprazole or ranitidine, but only after a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy. However, if the infant presents with persistent diarrhoea, cow’s milk protein allergy is a more likely diagnosis than GORD.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 29 - What measure can be taken to avoid the spread of the common cold?...

    Incorrect

    • What measure can be taken to avoid the spread of the common cold?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaccination

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Viral Infections

      There are several approaches to treating and preventing viral infections, but not all of them are effective. Antivirals, for example, have no evidence of efficacy. Antibiotics are also not appropriate for uncomplicated cases. However, frequent hand washing can reduce contamination from surfaces. Health food products like ginseng have no evidence of efficacy either. Topical interferon alpha can prevent symptoms if given before disease onset, but it cannot be used for long-term prophylaxis due to side effects and cost implications. Vaccination is not an option due to the numerous types of viruses. The role of vitamin C remains controversial, but some evidence suggests it may help during times of severe stress. The current consensus is that it doesn’t. By understanding the limitations and benefits of these approaches, individuals can take steps to protect themselves from viral infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 30 - The following patients all attend surgery for routine appointments. As a practice, you...

    Incorrect

    • The following patients all attend surgery for routine appointments. As a practice, you are trying to improve the number of female patients using the cervical screening programme by opportunistically inviting overdue patients for smear tests.
      Which of the following patients who are over 30 years old would you advise make an appointment as they are overdue a smear test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 36-year-old homosexual female patient who has never had intercourse with a male partner and has never had a cervical smear

      Explanation:

      Cervical Screening Guidelines in the UK

      Cervical screening is an important aspect of women’s health in the UK. The age range for screening varies between 25-64 in England and Wales, and 20-60 in Scotland. The screening interval also varies depending on the country. It is important to note that a patient who is too young or has had a normal smear test within the recommended time frame is not overdue for screening.

      According to the latest guidance, women who are taking maintenance immunosuppression medication post-transplantation should follow the national guidelines for non-immunosuppressed individuals. This also applies to other special circumstances, such as HIV-positive patients, who should follow the same age range for screening as the general population.

      It is important to note that being homosexual and never having had a male partner doesn’t exempt a woman from screening. Women can still be exposed to HPV through a female partner who may have had previous male partners. Therefore, all women with a cervix should be considered as screening candidates and encouraged to attend.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
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