-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. She has been using nicotine patches for 6 months but has not been successful in her attempts. You decide to prescribe bupropion.
What is a typical side effect of bupropion?Your Answer: Sexual impotence
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal disturbance
Explanation:Side Effects of Buproprion
Buproprion is a medication that can cause aggression and hallucination in some patients. However, the more common side effects are gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhoea, nausea, and dry mouth. These side effects are often experienced by patients taking buproprion. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of any medication and to speak with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise. Additional information on buproprion and its potential side effects can be found in the electronic Medicines Compendium and Medicines Complete.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a productive cough and shortness of breath for the past 4 days. The child has poor appetite and has not received any vaccinations. Upon examination, the child is febrile, tachypnoeic, and tachycardic with nasal flaring and subcostal retractions. Bilateral crepitations are heard on auscultation, and there is decreased air entry bilaterally. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 94%. Sputum culture reveals Gram-negative bacilli that did not grow on blood agar but grew on chocolate agar. What is the most likely causative organism?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Culture Requirements for Common Organisms
Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).
To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 38-year-old man visits his GP complaining of fevers, night sweats, and haemoptysis that have persisted for three weeks. He recently moved to the country from Bangladesh and did not receive any childhood vaccinations. The patient's medical history is otherwise unremarkable. During the examination, the doctor notices tender bruise-like lesions on the man's anterior shins. Sputum microscopy reveals acid-fast bacilli, and the doctor prescribes isoniazid. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
Explanation:The mechanism of isoniazid is the inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis. This is relevant to the patient’s presentation of tuberculosis, as Mycobacterium tuberculosis has mycolic acids in its cell wall. Isoniazid affects cell wall integrity by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acids, which are responsible for the acid-fast staining of the bacteria.
It is important to note that the mechanisms of other antibiotics, such as fluoroquinolones and glycopeptides, are different and not relevant to this case. Rifampicin, another antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, works by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.
Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to the ward. As a healthcare professional, you know that this is a common complication of thyroid surgery. Which nerve is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) that provides motor supply to all but one of the laryngeal muscles and sensory supply to the larynx below the vocal cords. The left nerve loops under the arch of the aorta and passes deep to the inferior constrictor muscle of the pharynx, while the right nerve usually loops under the right subclavian artery. Both nerves pass close to or through the thyroid ligament, making them susceptible to injury during thyroid surgery. Dysfunction of either nerve can result in a hoarse voice.
The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is the only other nerve among the given options that innervates the larynx. It carries sensory supply to the larynx above the vocal cords, while the external branch supplies the cricothyroid muscle. Dysfunction of the external branch can cause a hoarse voice, but dysfunction of the internal branch will not.
The greater auricular nerve and transverse cervical nerve are superficial cutaneous nerves that arise from the cervical plexus and supply the skin overlying the mandible, ear auricle, and neck. The phrenic nerve, also arising from the cervical plexus, provides motor innervation to the diaphragm and sensation to the parietal pericardium and pleura adjacent to the mediastinum.
During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which of the following would not increase the rate of diffusion of a substance across a lipid membrane such as the cell wall?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thickness of the membrane
Explanation:Diffusion and Fick’s Law
Diffusion is a natural process that occurs when molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. This process is passive and random, meaning that it does not require any external energy input. Fick’s Law states that diffusion occurs more quickly across a large, permeable, and thin membrane. For example, in lung disease, the thickening of the alveolar epithelial barrier can lead to a poor carbon monoxide transfer coefficient because the thicker membrane slows down the diffusion process. the principles of diffusion and Fick’s Law can help us better understand how molecules move and interact in various biological and chemical processes. By optimizing the conditions for diffusion, we can improve the efficiency of many natural and artificial systems.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
As a 2nd-year medical student on placement in a GP surgery in early February, you encounter a 79-year-old woman who comes in for a follow-up appointment due to fatigue. During the consultation, the GP reviews her blood tests and discovers a vitamin deficiency. The GP informs the patient that if left untreated, this deficiency can lead to bone softening. Can you explain how this vitamin increases serum calcium levels in the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raises absorption of calcium in the small intestine
Explanation:The primary way in which vitamin D increases serum calcium levels is by enhancing its absorption through the small intestine.
Understanding Vitamin D
Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.
The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.
A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which muscle is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brachialis
Explanation:The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the following muscles: Biceps brachii, Brachialis, and Coracobrachialis.
The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway
The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.
The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old taxi driver presents with a six-month history of constipation and colicky suprapubic pain that varies in intensity without any apparent pattern. He has experienced occasional episodes of diarrhoea and fever. Although he drinks little alcohol and does not smoke, he consumes large amounts of coffee. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic region, but no other abnormalities are detected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticular disease
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Rectal Bleeding
Rectal bleeding can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. While neoplasia may be a possible cause, diverticular disease is more common. To confirm the presence of diverticula, a barium enema should be performed, and a sigmoidoscopy should be done to rule out a tumor. Cystitis is rare in men and would present with symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, and dysuria. Inflammatory bowel disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and often presents with weight loss, fever, malaise, and potentially arthralgia. However, the lack of systemic symptoms suggests an alternative diagnosis. Ulcerative colitis often causes rectal bleeding, while Crohn’s disease can cause rectal bleeding and inflammation from the mouth to anus. It is more commonly diagnosed in patients before the age of 30. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with rectal bleeding to ensure appropriate management and treatment.
Further Reading:
Janes SE, Meagher A, Frizelle FA. Management of diverticulitis. BMJ. 2006;332:271-5. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
During your placement on the pediatric ward, you have the opportunity to participate in a study on a new medication for children with asthma. While compiling the data, the consultant and principal investigator mention that the study is expected to reveal a significant difference with the new drug.
What element of the research could have led the consultant to make this statement?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High power
Explanation:A double-blind study with randomized groups is more reliable in providing strong evidence, but it does not increase the probability of discovering a significant difference.
The significance level (alpha) can impact the likelihood of a type I error and can serve as an indicator of the study’s quality, but it does not affect the probability of detecting a significant difference.
Enforcing strict inclusion criteria can enhance the study’s quality, but it does not alter the chances of detecting a significant difference.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of low mood, fatigue, constipation, and urinary frequency. The doctor orders a standard blood test to investigate the possible cause. After reviewing the results, the GP diagnosis the woman with primary hyperparathyroidism.
What blood test results are expected for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised calcium, low phosphate
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is responsible for increasing plasma calcium levels and decreasing plasma phosphate levels. Hyperparathyroidism is a condition where there is an excess of PTH, either due to an overactive parathyroid gland (primary) or a low serum calcium level (secondary). Primary hyperparathyroidism results in raised calcium levels and low phosphate levels, while secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically seen in chronic kidney disease. PTH acts by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and digestive tract, as well as increasing bone resorption. This helps to prevent the formation of calcium phosphate crystals, which can cause renal stones. Symptoms of hyperparathyroidism include constipation and low mood, which are typical of hypercalcaemia.
Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism
Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman is scheduled to receive a heart transplant for severe congestive heart failure with an ejection fraction of 30%. She has been prescribed tacrolimus to minimize the risk of organ rejection.
What should be monitored due to her new medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood glucose
Explanation:Tacrolimus may lead to hyperglycaemia, necessitating regular monitoring of blood glucose levels. Additionally, tacrolimus can cause nephrotoxicity, necessitating monitoring of U&E levels.
Basiliximab, a monoclonal antibody against the IL-2 receptor, may cause oedema, necessitating weight monitoring.
Cyclosporine, a calcineurin inhibitor, may cause hirsutism.
Sirolimus, an mTOR inhibitor, may cause pancytopenia, necessitating monitoring of haemoglobin levels.
Both sirolimus and cyclosporine may affect lipid levels.
Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention
Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.
Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old girl is being evaluated by paediatric endocrinology services due to concerns about her height. Her BMI measures 18 kg/m2.
How should this child's weight be classified?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal weight
Explanation:Assessing Stature and Obesity in Childhood
The assessment of stature and obesity in childhood can be challenging due to various factors that affect growth, such as hormones, puberty, and nutrition. To address this, the World Health Organization recommends using age- and gender-specific BMI charts, with a cut-off of >85% percentile for overweight and >95th percentile for obesity. These values are similar to the BMI levels used for adults aged >18 years old.
In general, healthy children aged 1-10 years old have BMIs ranging from 14-17 kg/m2. By age 12, the median BMI is around 18 kg/m2, and it increases to around 22 kg/m2 by age 18 years. However, there may be slight variations in the cut-offs used between countries, which can be found in appropriate charts. Overall, using these charts can aid in accurately assessing stature and diagnosing obesity in children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following triggers the production of stomach acid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Histamine
Explanation:Gastrin is produced by G cells and stimulates the production of gastric acid. Pepsin is responsible for digesting protein and is secreted simultaneously with gastrin. Secretin, produced by mucosal cells in the duodenum and jejunum, inhibits gastric acid production and stimulates the production of bile and pancreatic juice. Gastric inhibitory peptide, produced in response to fatty acids, inhibits the release of gastrin and acid secretion from parietal cells. Cholecystokinin, also produced by mucosal cells in the duodenum and jejunum in response to fatty acids, inhibits acid secretion from parietal cells and causes the gallbladder to contract while relaxing the sphincter of Oddi.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A patient in their 60s is diagnosed with first-degree heart block which is shown on their ECG by an elongated PR interval. The PR interval relates to a particular period in the electrical conductance of the heart.
What factors could lead to a decrease in the PR interval?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased conduction velocity across the AV node
Explanation:An increase in sympathetic activation leads to a faster heart rate by enhancing the conduction velocity of the AV node. The PR interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization (P wave) and the onset of ventricular depolarization (beginning of QRS complex). While atrial conduction occurs at a speed of 1m/s, the AV node only conducts at 0.05m/s. Consequently, the AV node is the limiting factor, and a reduction in the PR interval is determined by the conduction velocity across the AV node.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
You are developing a research plan to investigate the impact of prolonged fasting on lipid stores in elderly individuals. Your aim is to examine the influence of diet on the breakdown of fats. To achieve this, you opt to track the levels of the rate limiting enzyme involved in this process following a high glucose load.
Which specific enzyme will you be monitoring?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I
Explanation:Carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I is the enzyme that limits the rate of lipolysis, while glycogen phosphorylase is the rate limiting enzyme for glycogenolysis. Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate limiting enzyme for the citric acid cycle, while phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of glycolysis. Finally, glycogen synthase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenesis.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old man visits his doctor reporting persistent fatigue, weight loss, and intermittent non-bloody diarrhea. He also has a blistering skin rash on his abdomen. His recent blood tests reveal low hemoglobin levels, high mean corpuscular volume, and low vitamin B12 levels. The doctor inquires about the man's diet and finds it to be sufficient, leading to a suspicion of malabsorption. What is the probable cause of the malabsorption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Villous atrophy
Explanation:Malabsorption is a common consequence of coeliac disease, which is caused by the destruction of epithelial cells on the villi of the small intestine due to an immune response to gluten. This results in villous atrophy, reducing the surface area of the gastrointestinal tract and impairing absorption. Coeliac disease often leads to B12 deficiency, particularly in the terminal ileum where villous damage is most severe. While decreased gut motility can cause constipation, it does not contribute to malabsorption in coeliac disease. Similarly, down-regulation of brush-border enzymes is not responsible for malabsorption in this condition, although it can occur in response to other immune responses or infections. Although increased gut motility can lead to malabsorption, it is not a mechanism of malnutrition in coeliac disease. Finally, it is important to note that coeliac disease reduces surface area rather than increasing it, which would actually enhance nutrient absorption.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset pain in the right iliac fossa, along with nausea, vomiting, and fever. She has no significant medical or surgical history. During the examination, you observe rebound tenderness at McBurney's point, guarding, and a positive Rovsing's sign. You suspect appendicitis and decide to take her for surgery.
What is the most probable physiological response in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased glucagon secretion
Explanation:Glucagon secretion increases in response to physiological stresses such as inflammation of the appendix and surgery. This is because glucagon helps to increase glucose availability in the body through glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. During times of stress, the body’s response is to increase glucose and oxygen availability, increased sympathetic activity, and redirect energy towards more crucial functions such as increasing blood pressure and heart rate.
However, insulin and glucagon have opposite effects on glucose regulation. Therefore, any factor that stimulates glucagon secretion must decrease insulin levels. This is because insulin reduces glucose availability in the body, which weakens the body’s ability to cope with stress.
The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis is also activated during times of stress, leading to the production of cortisol. Cortisol plays an important role in releasing glucose from fat storage, which is necessary for the body’s stress response. Therefore, the level of ACTH, which stimulates cortisol production, would increase rather than decrease.
Cortisol and glucocorticoids also inhibit thyroid hormone secretion. As a result, the level of T4, which is a modulator of metabolic rate, would decrease during times of stress. This is because the body needs to divert energy away from metabolism and towards more acute functions during times of stress.
Glucagon: The Hormonal Antagonist to Insulin
Glucagon is a hormone that is released from the alpha cells of the Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It has the opposite metabolic effects to insulin, resulting in increased plasma glucose levels. Glucagon functions by promoting glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, and lipolysis. It is regulated by various factors such as hypoglycemia, stresses like infections, burns, surgery, increased catecholamines, and sympathetic nervous system stimulation, as well as increased plasma amino acids. On the other hand, glucagon secretion decreases with hyperglycemia, insulin, somatostatin, and increased free fatty acids and keto acids.
Glucagon is used to rapidly reverse the effects of hypoglycemia in diabetics. It is an essential hormone that plays a crucial role in maintaining glucose homeostasis in the body. Its antagonistic relationship with insulin helps to regulate blood glucose levels and prevent hyperglycemia. Understanding the regulation and function of glucagon is crucial in the management of diabetes and other metabolic disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for a screening.
What is the purpose of his visit and what complication is he being screened for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic anterior uveitis
Explanation:Complications of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Patients with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) are regularly screened for chronic anterior uveitis, which can lead to scarring and blindness if left untreated. However, this condition may be asymptomatic in some cases, making annual screening using a slit-lamp essential.
One of the long-term complications of JIA is the development of flexion contractures of joints due to persistent joint inflammation. This occurs because pain is partly related to increased intra-articular pressure, which is at its lowest when joints are held at 30-50 degrees.
While corticosteroids may be used to manage joint inflammation, they are used sparingly in children due to the risk of cataract development. Conjunctivitis is not typically associated with JIA, but reactive arthritis. Keratitis, on the other hand, tends to be an infective process caused by bacteria or viruses.
Lastly, pterygium is an overgrowth of the conjunctiva towards the iris and is often seen in individuals exposed to windy or dusty conditions, such as surfers.
In summary, JIA can lead to various complications, including chronic anterior uveitis, joint contractures, and cataract development. Regular screening and management are crucial to prevent long-term damage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old individual visits a maxillofacial clinic complaining of facial pain that has persisted for 3 months after sustaining a basal skull fracture in a car accident. According to neuroimaging reports, where is the lesion most likely located, indicating damage to the maxillary nerve as it traverses the sphenoid bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum
Explanation:The correct location for the passage of the maxillary nerve is the foramen rotundum. In the case of a basal skull fracture involving the sphenoid bone, the lesion is most likely located in the foramen rotundum. The foramen ovale is not the correct location as it is where the mandibular nerve passes through. The foramen spinosum is also not the correct location as it transmits the middle meningeal artery and vein, not the maxillary nerve. The hypoglossal canal is also not the correct location as it transmits the twelfth cranial nerve, not the maxillary nerve.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old male admitted to the ICU after a car accident has a pneumothorax. Using a bedside spirometer, his inspiratory and expiratory volumes were measured. What is the typical tidal volume for a male of his age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 500ml
Explanation:The amount of air that is normally breathed in and out without any extra effort is called tidal volume, which is 500ml in males and 350ml in females.
Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 82-year-old woman named Mrs. Smith visits her GP complaining of constant fatigue. She has a medical history of hypothyroidism and takes oral levothyroxine. Her routine blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 87 g/L (115-160), MCV 108 fL (76-96), Platelets 136 ×109/L (150-400), TSH 3.6 (0.3-5), and T4 88 (70-150). What is the appropriate treatment plan for Mrs. Smith?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin supplementation
Explanation:Pernicious Anaemia: An Autoimmune Disease
Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disease that occurs when the body produces antibodies against gastric parietal cells. These cells are responsible for producing intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Vitamin B12 is essential for the synthesis of thymine, which is required for effective DNA synthesis. As a result, patients with pernicious anaemia may experience symptoms related to other cell lines, such as diarrhoea caused by gut mucosa turnover.
The failure of DNA synthesis leads to a large mean cell volume in erythrocytes as they mature through the erythroid cell line. Treatment for pernicious anaemia involves the replacement of vitamin B12, usually through hydroxycobalamin injections. Blood transfusions are unnecessary unless the patient is severely compromised, as they do not address the underlying problem.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old male child is brought to the pediatrician by his father who is very worried about his child. The father reports that his son often forgets to flush the toilet, and has noticed his urine is usually brown-black by the time he sees it.
During the examination, the child appears to be in good spirits and health, and the only notable finding is discoloration of his ear cartilage.
The pediatrician explains to the father that the most likely cause of his child's presentation is alkaptonuria, a metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of a crucial enzyme.
Which enzyme is the pediatrician referring to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Homogentisic dioxygenase deficiency
Explanation:The lack of homogentisic dioxygenase is the root cause of Alkaptonuria, while Pompe disease is a rare and fatal muscular disease that results from a deficiency of the enzyme acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA). In Alkaptonuria, the inability to metabolize phenylalanine and tyrosine leads to the accumulation of toxic homogentisic acid. To manage this condition, patients are advised to limit their intake of phenylalanine and tyrosine and take high doses of vitamin C. Conversely, a deficiency of vitamin C can cause scurvy, which is characterized by symptoms such as prolonged wound healing and bleeding gums.
Alkaptonuria, also known as ochronosis, is a rare genetic disorder that affects the metabolism of phenylalanine and tyrosine. It is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme homogentisic dioxygenase (HGD), which leads to the accumulation of toxic homogentisic acid in the body. While the kidneys are able to filter out the acid, it eventually builds up in cartilage and other tissues, resulting in various symptoms. These may include pigmented sclera, black urine upon exposure to air, back pain due to intervertebral disc calcification, and the formation of renal stones.
Despite its potential complications, alkaptonuria is generally considered a benign and often asymptomatic condition. However, treatment is still necessary to manage its effects. This may involve high-dose vitamin C supplementation and dietary restrictions on phenylalanine and tyrosine intake. By following these measures, individuals with alkaptonuria can help prevent the accumulation of homogentisic acid and reduce the risk of associated symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man comes to the physician complaining of non-productive cough and difficulty breathing during physical activity. During the examination, he has a fever and low oxygen saturation at rest. He has scattered crackles in his lungs, but no signs of focal consolidation. He has also experienced some weight loss. When questioned, he informs the doctor that he had unprotected sexual intercourse with multiple partners while on vacation in Thailand six months ago. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP pneumonia), a fungal pneumonia caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii that typically affects those with weakened immune systems. The patient’s history of engaging in unprotected sexual activity has resulted in HIV infection, which has compromised their immune system and made them susceptible to opportunistic infections like PCP pneumonia. The presence of scattered crackles and absence of focal consolidation is a common characteristic of PCP pneumonia.
Haemophilus influenzae is a bacterial pathogen that can cause respiratory tract infections. Symptoms may initially resemble those of a viral infection, with low-grade fevers often present.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacteria that commonly resides in the respiratory tract of healthy individuals but can cause pneumonia in young children and the elderly.
Listeria monocytogenes is a pathogenic bacteria that can cause listeriosis, a condition that often results in central nervous system infections. Pregnant women may experience mild flu-like symptoms, but the infection can lead to complications such as miscarriage, preterm labor, or discharge.
Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia in HIV Patients
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia) is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with HIV. The organism responsible for this infection is an unicellular eukaryote, which is classified as a fungus by some and a protozoa by others. Symptoms of PCP include dyspnea, dry cough, fever, and few chest signs. Pneumothorax is a common complication of PCP, and extrapulmonary manifestations are rare.
To diagnose PCP, a chest x-ray is typically performed, which may show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates or other findings such as lobar consolidation. Sputum tests often fail to show PCP, so a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) may be necessary to demonstrate the presence of the organism. Treatment for PCP involves co-trimoxazole or IV pentamidine in severe cases. Aerosolized pentamidine is an alternative treatment, but it is less effective and carries a risk of pneumothorax. Steroids may be prescribed if the patient is hypoxic, as they can reduce the risk of respiratory failure and death.
It is recommended that all HIV patients with a CD4 count below 200/mm³ receive PCP prophylaxis. This infection can be serious and potentially life-threatening, so prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department experiencing a sudden asthma attack. He is administered nebulised salbutamol to alleviate his breathing difficulties.
What is the most probable site of action for this medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smooth muscle cells of the bronchi
Explanation:Salbutamol is a medication used for asthma and COPD that acts on beta 2 receptors in the smooth muscle cells of the airways, causing relaxation and lessening bronchoconstriction. Type 1 pneumocytes are responsible for gas exchange and are not affected by this medication. Anticholinergics can also be used for bronchodilation by acting on muscarinic receptors in the smooth muscle.
Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 2-year-old toddler presents to the emergency department with a low-grade fever and difficulty breathing. The mother reports that the toddler has had some nasal discharge for the past two days and started coughing a few hours ago. The toddler has no significant medical history, being born full term at 39 weeks via normal vaginal delivery. The toddler is developmentally normal and received all vaccinations according to the immunisation schedule. During examination, the toddler appears lethargic and has a barking cough. Auscultation reveals an inspiratory stridor bilaterally, with no crepitations or wheezes heard. Air entry is equal bilaterally. The toddler's temperature is 38.3ºC, oxygen saturation is 93% based on pulse oximetry, blood pressure is 98/55 mmHg (normal range: SBP 72-140 mmHg; DBP 37-56 mmHg), and the heart rate is 120 beats per minute (normal range: 100-190 beats per minute).
What is the most likely association with this toddler's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steeple sign
Explanation:The infant is displaying symptoms of croup, including a barking cough and inspiratory stridor, which is typical for their age. While chest radiographs are not typically used to diagnose croup, if a neck radiograph is taken, the steeple sign may be present, indicating subglottic narrowing due to inflammation of the larynx and trachea.
The thumb sign, which is indicative of an oedematous epiglottis, is not present in this case, and the infant does not display symptoms of epiglottitis, such as drooling or dysphagia. Additionally, the infant is not in the typical age range for epiglottitis.
The sail sign, which suggests left lower lobe collapse, is not present as the infant has equal bilateral air entry. The coffee bean sign, which is suggestive of sigmoid volvulus, is also not relevant as it typically presents with abdominal pain and distension, rather than respiratory symptoms, and is uncommon in children.
Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
What is the primary function of zinc in the human body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antioxidant function
Explanation:The Importance of Zinc in the Body
Zinc is a vital mineral that plays various roles in the body. One of its essential functions is acting as an antioxidant, where it forms part of an enzyme complex that protects cell membranes from free radical damage. Additionally, zinc is involved in many enzyme reactions, including the production of hormones, DNA replication, and neurotransmitter metabolism. It also helps protect the body from toxins, heavy metals, and radiation.
Furthermore, zinc is crucial in maintaining a healthy immune system, as it plays a role in both the antibody and cell-mediated immune responses. Unfortunately, zinc deficiency is relatively common among certain groups, such as women, children, the elderly, and pregnant patients. Vegetarians and chronic dieters may also experience mild zinc deficiency.
To ensure adequate zinc intake, it is recommended to consume foods rich in zinc, such as liver, peas, pulses, meat, and wholemeal bread. By maintaining sufficient levels of zinc in the body, individuals can support their overall health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 90-year-old man was brought to the clinic by his family due to a decline in his memory over the past 6 months, accompanied by occasional confusion. His personality and behavior remain unchanged. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities were found. Following further investigations, he was diagnosed with dementia. What is the probable molecular pathology underlying his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of neurofibrillary tangles
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease is the most prevalent cause of dementia, followed by vascular dementia. It is characterized by the accumulation of type A-Beta-amyloid protein, leading to cortical plaques, and abnormal aggregation of the tau protein, resulting in intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles. Parkinson’s disease is indicated by the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra, while Lewy body dementia is suggested by the presence of Lewy bodies. Vascular dementia is associated with atherosclerosis of cerebral arteries.
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.
The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.
Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old patient with multiple comorbidities, including atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes mellitus, mild arthritis of the knees, gastric oesophageal reflux disease and high cholesterol, is on several medications. The patient underwent a kidney transplant a few weeks ago and is now visiting the general practitioner with concerns about a persistent rise in blood sugar levels, blurry vision, increased thirst, and fatigue. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tacrolimus
Explanation:Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention
Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.
Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which of the following characteristics does not increase the risk of refeeding syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyrotoxicosis
Explanation:Understanding Refeeding Syndrome and its Metabolic Consequences
Refeeding syndrome is a condition that occurs when a person is fed after a period of starvation. This can lead to metabolic abnormalities such as hypophosphataemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and abnormal fluid balance. These metabolic consequences can result in organ failure, making it crucial to be aware of the risks associated with refeeding.
To prevent refeeding problems, it is recommended to re-feed patients who have not eaten for more than five days at less than 50% energy and protein levels. Patients who are at high risk for refeeding problems include those with a BMI of less than 16 kg/m2, unintentional weight loss of more than 15% over 3-6 months, little nutritional intake for more than 10 days, and hypokalaemia, hypophosphataemia, or hypomagnesaemia prior to feeding (unless high). Patients with two or more of the following are also at high risk: BMI less than 18.5 kg/m2, unintentional weight loss of more than 10% over 3-6 months, little nutritional intake for more than 5 days, and a history of alcohol abuse, drug therapy including insulin, chemotherapy, diuretics, and antacids.
To prevent refeeding syndrome, it is recommended to start at up to 10 kcal/kg/day and increase to full needs over 4-7 days. It is also important to start oral thiamine 200-300mg/day, vitamin B co strong 1 tds, and supplements immediately before and during feeding. Additionally, K+ (2-4 mmol/kg/day), phosphate (0.3-0.6 mmol/kg/day), and magnesium (0.2-0.4 mmol/kg/day) should be given to patients. By understanding the risks associated with refeeding syndrome and taking preventative measures, healthcare professionals can ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man has been prescribed dapagliflozin by his physician to improve management of his pre-existing type 2 diabetes mellitus following a raised HbA1c reading.
What is the main site of action for this medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:The proximal convoluted tubule in the nephron is responsible for the majority of glucose reabsorption. Dapagliflozin, a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor, acts on this area to reduce glucose reabsorption, resulting in glycosuria. While this can aid in glycaemic control and weight loss, it also increases the risk of urinary tract infections. Other SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin and empagliflozin. The distal convoluted tubule is important for ion absorption, while the cortical collecting duct regulates water reabsorption. Sulfonylureas act on pancreatic beta cells, not acinar cells, which are responsible for exocrine function and are not targeted by SGLT-2 inhibitors.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old man is brought into the emergency department after attempting to take his own life. He was found at home with empty packets of paracetamol by his side. He is still conscious. A history is taken from him to evaluate his risk of future attempts.
What is the most significant risk factor for a successful suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addiction to opiates
Explanation:Individuals with a history of alcohol or drug abuse and deliberate self harm, particularly males, should be considered at high risk for suicide.
The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man has been released from the hospital after receiving a liver transplant. As a preventive measure against graft-versus-host disease, he has been prescribed an immunosuppressant that forms a complex with FK506 binding protein (FKBP) and inhibits calcineurin phosphatase. What is the name of the medication that this patient is likely taking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tacrolimus
Explanation:Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention
Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.
Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
During a radical gastrectomy for carcinoma of the stomach, if the patient is elderly, would the surgeons still remove the omentum? What is the main source of its blood supply?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroepiploic artery
Explanation:The omental branches of the right and left gastro-epiploic arteries provide the blood supply to the omentum, while the colonic vessels do not play a role in this. The left gastro-epiploic artery originates from the splenic artery, and the right gastro-epiploic artery is the final branch of the gastroduodenal artery.
The Omentum: A Protective Structure in the Abdomen
The omentum is a structure in the abdomen that invests the stomach and is divided into two parts: the greater and lesser omentum. The greater omentum is attached to the lower lateral border of the stomach and contains the gastro-epiploic arteries. It varies in size and is less developed in children. However, it plays an important role in protecting against visceral perforation, such as in cases of appendicitis.
The lesser omentum is located between the omentum and transverse colon, providing a potential entry point into the lesser sac. Malignant processes can affect the omentum, with ovarian cancer being the most notable. Overall, the omentum is a crucial structure in the abdomen that serves as a protective barrier against potential injuries and diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman is recuperating from a hip replacement surgery. She is experiencing localized discomfort and is worried about the buildup of chromium. What is the primary function of chromium in the human body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regulation of glucose homeostasis
Explanation:Chromium and Cobalt Accumulation in Hip Prostheses and Their Effects on the Body
Chromium and cobalt can build up around faulty metal-on-metal hip prostheses, leading to potential health concerns. While chromium is considered safe at normal levels in the human diet, isolated cases of chromium deficiency are rare. Chromium plays various roles in the body, including regulating blood sugar levels, lipid metabolism, enhancing protein synthesis, and potentially enhancing RNA synthesis. However, many individuals following Western-style diets may not consume enough chromium, leading to subtle symptoms such as dyslipidemia and impaired glucose tolerance.
Toxicity due to chromium is uncommon, but local irritation from metal-on-metal hip prostheses can cause the development of cysts rich in chromium, known as pseudotumors. The exact mechanism behind these pathological changes is not yet fully understood. Overall, while chromium is an essential micronutrient, its accumulation in hip prostheses can lead to potential health concerns.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old patient is seeking treatment for their heart failure at the cardiology outpatient clinic. The medical team has decided to prescribe a medication that will enhance their heart rate and strength.
Which adrenoceptor class should be the focus of the treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta 1
Explanation:Beta 1 adrenoceptors are responsible for increasing both heart rate and force, while alpha 1 adrenoceptors cause salivary secretion and relaxation of GI smooth muscle. Alpha 2 adrenoceptors are located presynaptically and work to inhibit neurotransmitter release. Beta 2 adrenoceptors, on the other hand, are responsible for relaxing smooth muscle in the respiratory tree, GI tract, and vasculature.
Adrenoceptors are a type of receptor found in the body that respond to the hormone adrenaline. There are four main types of adrenoceptors: alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, and beta-2. Each type of adrenoceptor is responsible for different physiological responses in the body.
Alpha-1 adrenoceptors are found in various tissues throughout the body and are responsible for vasoconstriction, relaxation of GI smooth muscle, salivary secretion, and hepatic glycogenolysis. On the other hand, alpha-2 adrenoceptors are mainly presynaptic and inhibit the release of neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and acetylcholine from autonomic nerves. They also inhibit insulin and promote platelet aggregation.
Beta-1 adrenoceptors are mainly located in the heart and are responsible for increasing heart rate and force. Beta-2 adrenoceptors, on the other hand, are found in various tissues such as the lungs, blood vessels, and GI tract. They are responsible for vasodilation, bronchodilation, and relaxation of GI smooth muscle. Lastly, beta-3 adrenoceptors are found in adipose tissue and promote lipolysis.
All adrenoceptors are G-protein coupled, meaning they activate intracellular signaling pathways when activated by adrenaline. Alpha-1 adrenoceptors activate phospholipase C, which leads to the production of inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). Alpha-2 adrenoceptors inhibit adenylate cyclase, while beta-1 and beta-2 adrenoceptors stimulate adenylate cyclase. Beta-3 adrenoceptors also stimulate adenylate cyclase.
In summary, adrenoceptors play a crucial role in regulating various physiological responses in the body. Understanding their functions and signaling pathways can help in the development of drugs that target these receptors for therapeutic purposes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man presents with left-sided hemiparesis and a CT scan reveals a right-sided stroke. Blood tests indicate high LDL cholesterol levels. To prevent secondary cerebrovascular disease, you initiate atorvastatin therapy. What is the mechanism of action of this lipid-lowering treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Explanation:HMG-CoA reductase is the enzyme that limits the rate of cholesterol synthesis, and statins are commonly used to inhibit its activity.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hyperaldosteronism. What is the source of aldosterone release?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
Explanation:The production of aldosterone takes place in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex and its function is to preserve water and sodium.
Aldosterone is a hormone that is primarily produced by the adrenal cortex in the zona glomerulosa. Its main function is to stimulate the reabsorption of sodium from the distal tubules, which results in the excretion of potassium. It is regulated by various factors such as angiotensin II, potassium, and ACTH, which increase its secretion. However, when there is an overproduction of aldosterone, it can lead to primary hyperaldosteronism, which is a common cause of secondary hypertension. This condition can be caused by an adrenal adenoma, which is also known as Conn’s syndrome. It is important to note that spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, can cause hyperkalemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
As a medical student in general practice, you come across a patient with poorly controlled hypertension. The decision is made to initiate Bendroflumethiazide therapy. What could be a possible contraindication for starting this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:Gout may be a potential side effect of thiazides.
It is important to note that spironolactone and bendroflumethiazide belong to different drug classes, so being allergic to one does not necessarily mean the other cannot be prescribed.
Bendroflumethiazide is a type of diuretic that causes the body to lose potassium, so it may actually be prescribed in cases of refractory hyperkalemia rather than being avoided.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old individual presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a gradual decline in visual acuity, difficulty seeing at night, and occasional floaters. Upon fundoscopy, yellow pigment deposits are observed in the macular region, along with demarcated red patches indicating fluid leakage and bleeding. The patient has no significant medical history. The ophthalmologist recommends a treatment that directly inhibits vascular endothelial growth factors. What is the appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bevacizumab
Explanation:Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and is used as a first-line treatment for the neovascular or exudative form of age-related macular degeneration (AMD). This form of AMD is characterized by the proliferation of abnormal blood vessels in the eye that leak blood and protein below the macula, causing damage to the photoreceptors. Bevacizumab blocks VEGF, which stimulates the growth of these abnormal vessels.
Fluocinolone is a corticosteroid that is used as an anti-inflammatory via intraocular injection in some eye conditions, but it does not affect VEGF. Laser photocoagulation is used to cauterize ocular blood vessels in several eye conditions, but it also does not affect VEGF. Verteporfin is a medication used as a photosensitizer prior to photodynamic therapy, which can be used in eye conditions with ocular vessel proliferation, but it is not an anti-VEGF drug.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 23 years old male presents to the hospital with a complaint of reduced ability to flex his left elbow. The doctor observes a significant weakness in the flexion of his left elbow and supination of his forearm. Additionally, the patient reports experiencing a tingling sensation on his left lateral forearm.
Which nerve is most likely to be damaged in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation:The musculocutaneous nerve originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus and provides innervation to the bicep brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis muscles in the upper arm. It then continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm. Damage to this nerve can result in the aforementioned symptoms.
The median nerve is responsible for innervating the anterior compartment of the forearm, but does not provide innervation to any muscles in the arm.
The ulnar nerve provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the forearm, as well as the intrinsic muscles of the hand (excluding the thenar muscles and two lateral lumbricals). It is commonly injured due to a fracture of the medial epicondyle.
The radial nerve innervates the tricep brachii and extensor muscles in the forearm, and provides sensory innervation to the majority of the posterior forearm and dorsal surface of the lateral three and a half digits. It is typically injured due to a midshaft humeral fracture.
The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway
The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.
The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)