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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman comes to the doctor's office with concerns about small spots on her shoulder. She reports that the lesions are accompanied by several tiny blood vessels that radiate from the center. During the examination, you observe that applying pressure to the spots causes them to turn white and then refill from the center. What condition is typically associated with this type of lesion?
Your Answer: Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
Correct Answer: Liver failure
Explanation:When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Spider Naevi
Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.
To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of pain, redness, and blurring of vision in his left eye. Upon fundoscopy, a combination of white and red retinal lesions was observed, indicating chorioretinitis. What is the essential test that must be performed to determine the underlying cause of chorioretinitis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV test
Explanation:Performing an HIV test is crucial in patients with AIDS, as it is the primary diagnostic tool for identifying the underlying cause. While options 1, 2, and 3 may be necessary as baseline investigations in most patients, they are not sufficient for diagnosing the specific condition in this case.
Causes of Chorioretinitis
Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the layers of tissue at the back of the eye. There are several causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can cause chorioretinitis as part of its secondary stage. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and it can cause chorioretinitis in some cases.
Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis in some cases. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as a rare complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female is admitted to the psychiatric ward and experiences an acute episode of psychosis. The on-call doctor is consulted and prescribes medication, but the patient subsequently develops severe acute agitation and torticollis.
What is the most suitable course of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Procyclidine
Explanation:Common Drugs and Their Roles in Treating Extra-Pyramidal Side Effects
Extra-pyramidal side effects (EPSE) are a common occurrence in patients taking antipsychotic medications. Procyclidine is an antimuscarinic drug that is the first line treatment for EPSE, including torticollis. It can be administered orally or parenterally and is usually very effective.
Naloxone, on the other hand, is an opioid antagonist used in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose. It has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine antagonist, is used to reverse central sedative effects of benzodiazepines during anaesthesia or diagnostic, surgical or dental procedures. It has no role in the treatment of torticollis or other EPSE.
N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is mainly used in the treatment of paracetamol overdose and has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Sodium thiosulphate, used as an antidote to cyanide poisoning, also has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Understanding the roles of these common drugs can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment for patients experiencing EPSE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you encounter a 40-year-old woman who has been brought in by the police under a section 135. The police had to obtain a warrant as part of the process. The patient is currently agitated and speaking incoherently about religious phrases. She has a documented history of severe depression.
What powers does section 135 grant to the police in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To bring a person with suspected mental health issues in from their property
Explanation:If the police believe that someone requires a mental health assessment or treatment, they can request a section 135 to remove the individual from their property. The procedure involves an Approved Mental Health Practitioner (AMHP) presenting evidence at a Magistrate’s Court to obtain a warrant. This warrant permits the Police, an AMHP, and a registered medical practitioner to enter the premises and conduct an assessment or take the person to a safe location for evaluation.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with a painful and swollen right calf. After a Doppler scan, it is confirmed that she has a deep vein thrombosis. What anticoagulant is recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
Explanation:While the first trimester poses a higher risk of teratogenic effects from warfarin, most healthcare providers would opt for low molecular weight heparin in such cases. Additionally, the possibility of peripartum hemorrhage and the difficulty in reversing the effects of warfarin in such a scenario should also be taken into account.
During pregnancy, the body undergoes changes that make it more prone to blood clots. This is known as a hypercoagulable state and is most common in the last trimester. The increase in factors VII, VIII, X, and fibrinogen, along with a decrease in protein S, contribute to this state. Additionally, the growing uterus can press on the inferior vena cava, leading to venous stasis in the legs.
When it comes to managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE) during pregnancy, warfarin is not recommended due to its potential harm to the fetus. Instead, subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin is preferred over intravenous heparin as it has a lower risk of bleeding and thrombocytopenia. It is important for pregnant women to be aware of the signs and symptoms of DVT/PE, such as leg swelling, pain, and shortness of breath, and to seek medical attention promptly if they experience any of these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is worried about his chances of developing heart disease due to his family history. His father passed away from a heart attack at the age of 45. During his medical check-up, his lipid profile is as follows:
HDL: 1.4 mmol/l
LDL: 5.7 mmol/l
Triglycerides: 2.3 mmol/l
Total cholesterol: 8.2 mmol/l
Upon clinical examination, the doctor notices tendon xanthomata around his ankles. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Familial hypercholesterolaemia can be diagnosed when there are tendon xanthomata and elevated cholesterol levels present.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected. The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes total cholesterol and LDL-C levels, tendon xanthoma, and family history of myocardial infarction or raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate for FH. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by age 10 if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
Overall, early diagnosis and management of FH are crucial in preventing cardiovascular disease and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports a gradual decline in his vision over the past few years and has difficulty reading small print. He is placed on the surgical waiting list.
Which eye structure is most likely to be impacted by this ailment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lens
Explanation:Anatomy of the Eye: Understanding the Different Parts and Their Disorders
The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. It is made up of several parts, each with its own function. Understanding the anatomy of the eye and the disorders that can affect it is important for maintaining good eye health.
Lens: The lens is a transparent structure located behind the pupil and iris. It helps to focus light onto the retina. Cataracts occur when the lens becomes cloudy or opaque, causing vision problems.
Cornea: The cornea is the clear dome-shaped surface of the eye that sits over the iris. It plays a role in refracting light. Damage to the cornea can cause pain and light sensitivity.
Iris: The iris is the colored part of the eye. It can be affected by disorders such as uveitis, which causes inflammation of the uvea (iris, ciliary body, and choroid).
Retina: The retina is located at the back of the eye and contains rods and cones that process incoming light. Disorders of the retina include retinitis pigmentosa, diabetic retinopathy, and retinal detachment.
Sclera: The sclera is the white part of the eye. Disorders of the sclera include scleritis, which causes redness, pain, and reduced visual acuity. It can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
Understanding the different parts of the eye and their functions can help you identify potential problems and seek treatment early. Regular eye exams are important for maintaining good eye health and preventing vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and a facial rash and is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Her rheumatologist initiates treatment with hydroxychloroquine. What is the most crucial parameter to monitor during her treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Visual acuity
Explanation:The use of hydroxychloroquine can lead to a serious and irreversible retinopathy.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a subcutaneous injection of sumatriptan, resulting in the alleviation of his symptoms.
What is the mechanism of action of the drug?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Causing vasoconstriction of cranial arteries
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanisms of Sumatriptan: A Migraine and Cluster Headache Treatment
Sumatriptan is a medication commonly used to treat migraine and cluster headaches. It works by activating specific serotonin receptors (5-HT1D and 5-HT1B) found on cranial and basilar arteries, causing vasoconstriction of these blood vessels. This medication can be administered orally, by subcutaneous injection, or intranasally.
It is important to note that sumatriptan has no effect on adrenergic receptors or acetylcholinesterase receptors. It is also not a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor or an opioid receptor agonist or antagonist.
In addition to its effects on blood vessels, sumatriptan has been shown to decrease the activity of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for its effectiveness in treating cluster headaches.
Overall, understanding the mechanisms of sumatriptan can help healthcare professionals and patients better understand how this medication works to alleviate the symptoms of migraine and cluster headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to her irregular menstrual cycle and hot flashes. Which of the following situations would provide evidence for this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patient age 39 with raised FSH/LH and low oestradiol
Explanation:Premature menopause is characterized by irregular menstrual cycles occurring before the age of 45, along with elevated FSH/LH levels and low oestradiol levels in blood tests. The pituitary gland releases more hormones in an attempt to stimulate the failing ovary to produce oestrogen, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, options 1, 3, 4, and 5 are incorrect. Option 5 depicts primary pituitary failure.
Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man experiences severe facial and tongue swelling following administration of the Japanese encephalitis vaccine. He receives 500mcg of intramuscular adrenaline immediately and is placed in a supine position with elevated legs while receiving high-flow oxygen. Despite the initial dose of adrenaline, his facial swelling persists and his blood pressure drops to 82/54 mmHg. How long should the healthcare provider wait before administering a second dose of adrenaline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 minutes
Explanation:Adrenaline can be administered every 5 minutes during the management of anaphylaxis.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.
The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.
Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of increased urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia and mild, lower abdominal discomfort.
On examination, she looks well. She is afebrile, while her abdomen is soft and nontender. A urine dipstick is performed. Her estimated glomerular filtration rate was normal: > 90 ml/minute per 1.73 m2 three months ago.
Urinalysis reveals the following:
Investigation Result
Leukocytes +++
Nitrates +
Blood +
What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin 100 mg twice a day for seven days
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTIs is nitrofurantoin, with trimethoprim as an alternative if resistance is low. Painless haematuria warrants investigation of the renal tract, and this should also be considered in men with confirmed UTIs. Amoxicillin is not typically recommended for UTIs due to its inactivation by penicillinase produced by E. coli, but it may be appropriate if the causative organism is sensitive to it. While waiting for MSU results, empirical antibiotic treatment should be started immediately if a UTI is suspected. Ciprofloxacin is indicated for acute prostatitis or pyelonephritis, not uncomplicated lower UTIs, and caution is needed when prescribing quinolones to the elderly due to the risk of tendon rupture. Trimethoprim is an appropriate first-line antibiotic for lower UTIs in men, with a 7-day course recommended, while a 3-day course is suitable for non-pregnant women under 65.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the hospital with a flare-up of his condition. He has been experiencing up to five bloody stools per day for the past three days, and has developed abdominal pain and a low-grade fever in the last 24 hours. His blood work shows the following results:
- Hemoglobin: 13.9 g/dL
- Platelets: 422 * 10^9/L
- White blood cells: 10.1 * 10^9/L
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 88 mm/hr
- C-reactive protein: 198 mg/L
What is the most crucial investigation to conduct next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal x-ray
Explanation:It is possible that this individual has developed toxic megacolon, which is characterized by a transverse colon diameter exceeding 6 cm and accompanying symptoms of systemic distress. Treatment for toxic megacolon typically involves intensive medical intervention for a period of 24-72 hours. If there is no improvement in the patient’s condition during this time, a colectomy may be necessary.
Understanding Ulcerative Colitis Flares
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can cause flares or periods of worsening symptoms. While most flares occur without a clear trigger, there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and even quitting smoking.
Flares of ulcerative colitis can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the frequency and severity of symptoms. Mild flares may involve fewer than four stools a day with or without blood, while moderate flares may include four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares, on the other hand, may involve more than six stools a day containing blood, as well as evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, and hypoalbuminemia.
Patients with evidence of severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for close monitoring and treatment. Understanding the triggers and symptoms of ulcerative colitis flares can help patients manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with haemarthrosis in the knee and elbow after a trivial injury. She is otherwise fit and well. The patient’s mother suffers from Christmas disease.
What investigation should be organised to confirm this diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor IX activity level
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Haemophilia and Related Conditions
Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot properly, leading to spontaneous or excessive bleeding. To diagnose haemophilia and related conditions, several diagnostic tests are available.
Factor IX Activity Level: Lack of factor IX leads to Christmas disease, the second most common type of haemophilia. To diagnose haemophilia, the levels of clotting factor present in the blood must be measured.
Platelet Count: The platelet count is usually normal in patients with haemophilia. Reduced platelets would suggest an alternative diagnosis. However, it is still important to check the platelet count to exclude thrombocytopenia as a cause of unexplained bleeding.
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT): Blood tests in haemophilia usually demonstrate a prolonged aPTT. However, patients with moderate disease can still have a normal aPTT if their factor activity level is > 15%.
Urinalysis: Urinalysis in patients with haemophilia may demonstrate the presence of haematuria, but by itself is not diagnostic of the condition.
von Willebrand Factor Antigen: The plasma von Willebrand factor antigen is normal in individuals with haemophilia. Reduced von Willebrand factor suggests the possibility of von Willebrand disease (VWD).
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests is necessary to diagnose haemophilia and related conditions accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old infant is referred by the health visitor for failure to thrive. The infant's weight has dropped from the 50th to the 9th centile on the growth chart. The parents disclose that the infant vomits after every meal, sometimes even hitting the wall. The mother had a normal pregnancy with regular antenatal scans, and the infant was delivered vaginally without complications. The newborn examination did not reveal any abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:The probable diagnosis is pyloric stenosis.
Understanding Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.
The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.
Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his father, who is concerned as his son has a 4-day history of abdominal pain and fever. He seems to have lost his appetite and has been waking in the night with night sweats for the last week.
On examination, there is a large palpable abdominal mass and hepatomegaly. A urine dipstick is negative for blood, protein, leukocytes and nitrates.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Burkitt’s lymphoma
Explanation:Pediatric Abdominal Mass: Possible Causes and Symptoms
When a child presents with an abdominal mass, it can be a sign of various conditions, including malignancies. Here are some possible causes and symptoms to consider:
1. Burkitt’s lymphoma: This aggressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma commonly affects children and presents with abdominal pain, an abdominal mass, splenomegaly, and B symptoms such as fever and weight loss.
2. Wilms’ tumour: This malignant kidney tumour usually affects young children and presents with an asymptomatic abdominal mass, hypertension, haematuria, or urinary tract infection. Splenomegaly is not expected.
3. Hepatoblastoma: This rare malignant liver tumour usually presents with an asymptomatic abdominal mass in the right upper quadrant. However, if the child has symptoms and splenomegaly, it may suggest a haematological malignancy.
4. Neuroblastoma: This rare malignancy commonly affects children under five and presents with an abdominal mass. Symptoms are rare in early disease, but if present, may suggest a haematological malignancy.
5. Phaeochromocytoma: This rare tumour releases excessive amounts of catecholamines and commonly arises in the adrenal glands. It presents with headache, palpitations, tremor, and hyperhidrosis, but not with splenomegaly or a palpable abdominal mass.
In summary, a pediatric abdominal mass can be a sign of various conditions, including malignancies. It is important to consider the child’s symptoms and other clinical findings to determine the appropriate diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a three-week history of heartburn. There is no significant weight loss, no alteration in bowel movements, no nausea, and no difficulty swallowing. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: One-month trial of full-dose PPI
Explanation:Management of Dyspepsia in Primary Care: Guidelines and Recommendations
Dyspepsia is a common complaint in primary care, encompassing a range of symptoms such as epigastric pain, heartburn, acid regurgitation, bloating, nausea, and vomiting. Here are some guidelines and recommendations for managing dyspepsia in primary care:
One-month trial of full-dose PPI: NICE guidelines recommend offering empirical full-dose PPI therapy for 4 weeks to patients with dyspepsia. Helicobacter pylori testing should also be offered, but a 2-week washout PPI-free period is necessary before testing.
Helicobater pylori stool test and routine referral for OGD: In young patients with no risk factors and relatively benign history and physical findings, routine referral for an endoscopy or testing for Barrett’s esophagus is not necessary.
Long-term low-dose PPI: If symptoms recur after initial treatment, offering a PPI at the lowest dose possible to control symptoms would be appropriate. H2 receptor antagonist therapy should be considered if there is an inadequate response to a PPI.
Refer urgently for OGD: Patients presenting with dyspepsia and significant acute GI bleeding should be referred for same-day assessment to a specialist. Other reasons for urgent referral would be the suspicion of malignancy, which in young patients with no red flag symptoms would be unwarranted.
Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori eradication: Testing for Helicobacter pylori should be offered to patients with dyspepsia after a 2-week washout PPI-free period. It would be inappropriate to initiate triple therapy treatment without a positive test result first.
In summary, dyspepsia in the general population in primary care is defined broadly to include patients with recurrent epigastric pain, heartburn or acid regurgitation, with or without bloating, nausea, or vomiting. Management should follow evidence-based guidelines and recommendations to ensure appropriate and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
Blood tests reveal:
Bilirubin 45 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 326 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 72 u/L (3 - 40)
Positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis is a likely diagnosis for a middle-aged female patient with an obstructive liver injury picture and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype. This differential is important to consider, as alcohol abuse may not always be obvious and gallstones could produce a similar result on liver function tests. However, the absence of pain and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies make these less likely. Paracetamol overdose is also a potential differential, but the liver function profile in this case is more consistent with an obstructive picture, with a higher ALP and bilirubin and a modest increase in ALT. Additionally, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are not associated with paracetamol overdose.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with progressive weakness and fatigue over the past year. He reports difficulty achieving and maintaining an erection with his new partner, which is a new symptom for him. Laboratory tests reveal elevated ferritin levels. The patient is started on a treatment plan that involves regular phlebotomies.
What is the most effective way to monitor the patient's response to treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferritin and transferrin saturation
Explanation:To monitor treatment in haemochromatosis, the most effective combination of iron tests is ferritin and transferrin saturation. These tests can track the response to treatment by measuring total iron stores and the amount of serum iron bound to proteins in the blood. However, serum transferrin and serum iron are not reliable indicators of treatment response as they fluctuate throughout the day and are affected by diet and phlebotomies. Therefore, using ferritin and serum transferrin or serum iron would not be the most useful combination for monitoring haemochromatosis. Similarly, using serum iron and serum transferrin together would not provide any insight into treatment monitoring. The most appropriate and effective combination is ferritin and transferrin saturation.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.
The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man has been hospitalized with abdominal discomfort. The surgical team intends to conduct a contrast-enhanced CT scan, but they are apprehensive due to his stage 3 chronic kidney disease. Below is his most recent renal function:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.6 mmol/l
Urea 8.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 µmol/l
What is the most crucial measure in decreasing the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride pre- and post-procedure
Explanation:Contrast Media Nephrotoxicity and Prevention
Contrast media nephrotoxicity is a condition where there is a 25% increase in creatinine within three days of intravascular administration of contrast media. This condition usually occurs 2-5 days after administration and is caused by various risk factors such as known renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, and the use of nephrotoxic drugs. Procedures such as CT with contrast and coronary angiography/percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) are examples that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy.
To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours pre- and post-procedure is recommended. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate is also supported by evidence. However, N-acetylcysteine, which was previously given, is now considered ineffective. Patients who are high-risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function has been shown to be normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.
In summary, contrast media nephrotoxicity is a condition that can occur after the administration of contrast media. It is caused by various risk factors and can be prevented by using intravenous sodium chloride or isotonic sodium bicarbonate. N-acetylcysteine is no longer recommended, and patients at high risk should have metformin withheld until their renal function is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old retired car mechanic who is a smoker is diagnosed with lung cancer. Some fifteen years ago he was treated with surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy for bladder cancer. His brother had oesophageal cancer aged 66 and another brother had prostate cancer in his 70s. His 55-year-old daughter was recently diagnosed with breast cancer.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the cancers in your patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exposure to tobacco smoke
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Multiple Cancers in an Individual
It is not uncommon for an individual to develop two different types of cancer over their lifetime. In a case where a man has been diagnosed with both bladder and lung cancer, the possible causes need to be explored.
Exposure to tobacco smoke is the most likely cause of both cancers in this case. Smoking is responsible for 85% of lung cancers and is also the biggest risk factor for developing bladder cancer.
Exposure to asbestos or aniline dyes are not likely causes of both cancers. While asbestos exposure is associated with mesothelioma, it is not linked to bladder cancer. Similarly, aniline dyes increase the risk of bladder cancer but not lung cancer.
A hereditary cancer predisposition syndrome is also an unlikely cause in this case. While it is possible for an individual to have a genetic predisposition to developing multiple cancers, there are no specific patterns in the family history that suggest this.
Finally, the second tumor is not a late complication of chemotherapy. While previous cancer treatment could potentially increase the risk of developing lung cancer, smoking is still the most likely cause in this case.
In conclusion, exposure to tobacco smoke is the most likely cause of both bladder and lung cancer in this individual. It is important to identify the possible causes of multiple cancers in an individual to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl, who is a keen dancer, visits her General Practitioner with a painful rash on her foot. She says that it started several weeks ago and often stings. Examination reveals a red rash in the interdigital spaces, with small fissures and white exudate.
What is the most appropriate treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical miconazole
Explanation:Understanding Topical Treatments for Skin Conditions
Athlete’s foot is a common fungal infection that affects the toe webs and is often caused by excess moisture. The first-line treatment for this condition is a topical antifungal such as miconazole or terbinafine cream, which should be used twice daily for four weeks. If there is no improvement, further investigations may be required, and oral antifungals may be prescribed. It is important to advise patients on foot hygiene and to avoid walking barefoot in communal areas.
Dithranol is a topical treatment for psoriasis, a condition that presents as large, scaly plaques with a symmetrical distribution. This is different from athlete’s foot, which is characterized by a moist, peeling rash between the toes. Emollients, which are topical moisturizers, are used for atopic eczema management and have no role in treating athlete’s foot.
Oral terbinafine is reserved for severe or extensive fungal infections that cannot be treated with topical antifungal agents. Finally, while an antifungal/topical steroid combination may reduce symptoms more rapidly in cases of inflamed tissue, it has no overall benefit. Moderately potent topical steroids such as eumovate are more appropriate for managing atopic eczema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man, currently admitted to a medical ward for acute pancreatitis, experiences intermittent episodes of epistaxis. Blood tests are conducted and reveal the following results:
- Platelets: 52 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
- Prothrombin time (PT): 23 seconds (normal range: 10-14 seconds)
- Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 46 seconds (normal range: 25-35 seconds)
- Fibrinogen: 0.8 g/L (normal range: 2 - 4)
- D-Dimer: 1203 ng/mL (normal range: < 400)
Based on the probable diagnosis, what would be the expected findings on a blood film?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schistocytes
Explanation:The presence of schistocytes is indicative of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, which is associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). DIC is a condition where the coagulation pathways are activated, leading to a procoagulant state. It can be triggered by various factors, including acute illness. The patient’s blood tests show a depletion of platelets and coagulation factors, which is typical of DIC. However, elliptocytes, Heinz bodies, and Howell-Jolly bodies are not expected in DIC. Elliptocytes are usually seen in conditions like iron deficiency and thalassemia, while Heinz bodies are associated with alpha-thalassemia and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies are characteristic of decreased splenic function, such as post-splenectomy.
Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis
Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.
To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An aging patient in a care facility is prescribed quetiapine for persistent aggressive behavior that has not improved with non-pharmacological interventions. What potential adverse effects do antipsychotics increase the likelihood of in older patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stroke
Explanation:Elderly individuals taking antipsychotics are at a higher risk of experiencing stroke and VTE.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease and the next appropriate step is likely starting her on donepezil. She has a past medical history of ischaemic heart diseases, pacemaker insertion for bradyarrhythmias, diabetes mellitus type II, hypercholesterolaemia and general anxiety disorder (GAD).
Which one of the following could be a contraindication to the prescription of donepezil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Contraindications and Considerations for the Use of Donepezil
Donepezil is a medication used to treat Alzheimer’s disease. However, there are certain contraindications and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when prescribing this medication.
Bradycardia, a condition where the heart beats too slowly, is a relative contraindication for the use of donepezil. This medication may cause bradycardia and atrioventricular node block, so caution should be taken in patients with other cardiac abnormalities. Additionally, patients with asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, supraventricular conduction abnormalities, susceptibility to peptic ulcers, and sick-sinus syndrome should also be closely monitored when taking donepezil.
Concurrent use of simvastatin, a medication used to lower cholesterol levels, is not a concern when taking donepezil. General anxiety disorder (GAD) and diabetes mellitus type II are also not contraindications for the use of donepezil.
However, elderly patients with a known history of persistent bradycardia, heart block, recurrent unexplained syncope, or concurrent treatment with drugs that reduce heart rate should avoid donepezil. A history of ischaemic heart diseases alone is not a contraindication for donepezil.
In summary, healthcare professionals should carefully consider a patient’s medical history and current medications before prescribing donepezil. Close monitoring is necessary in patients with certain cardiac abnormalities and caution should be taken in elderly patients with a history of bradycardia or heart block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP with complaints of progressive tunnel vision and difficulty seeing at night for the past year. He recalls his grandfather experiencing similar symptoms but is unsure of the cause. During fundus examination, bone-spicule pigmentation is observed in the peripheral retina. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa
Explanation:The presence of black bone-spicule pigmentation on fundoscopy is a classic sign of retinitis pigmentosa, an inherited retinal disorder that causes tunnel vision and night blindness by affecting the peripheral retina.
Understanding Retinitis Pigmentosa
Retinitis pigmentosa is a condition that primarily affects the peripheral retina, leading to tunnel vision. The initial sign of this condition is often night blindness, which can progress to a loss of peripheral vision. Fundoscopy, a diagnostic test, reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium. Retinitis pigmentosa is often associated with other diseases such as Refsum disease, Usher syndrome, abetalipoproteinemia, Lawrence-Moon-Biedl syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and Alport’s syndrome.
To better understand retinitis pigmentosa, it is important to know that it is a genetic disorder that affects the retina’s ability to respond to light. This condition can lead to the death of photoreceptor cells in the retina, which are responsible for detecting light and transmitting visual information to the brain. As a result, individuals with retinitis pigmentosa may experience difficulty seeing in low light conditions, loss of peripheral vision, and, in severe cases, complete blindness.
In summary, retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic condition that primarily affects the peripheral retina, leading to tunnel vision. It is often associated with other diseases and can cause night blindness, loss of peripheral vision, and, in severe cases, complete blindness. Early diagnosis and management are crucial in preventing further vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is suspected of suffering from insulin-dependent diabetes. He undergoes a glucose tolerance test following an overnight fast.
Which of the following results would most likely confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 hours that stays high
Explanation:Interpreting Glucose Tolerance Test Results in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes
Glucose tolerance tests are commonly used to diagnose and monitor diabetes. In insulin-dependent diabetes, the results of these tests can provide valuable information about the patient’s glucose metabolism. Here are some key points to consider when interpreting glucose tolerance test results in insulin-dependent diabetes:
– A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 hours that stays high: In insulin-dependent diabetes, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4 hours of the test. This is in contrast to normal individuals, who typically have a sharper and earlier peak that returns to basal levels.
– An ‘overshoot’ in the decline of plasma glucose at 3.5 hours: This phenomenon is seen in normal individuals but not in insulin-dependent diabetics.
– A plasma glucose level of 4 mmol/l at zero time: This is unlikely in diabetic patients, who typically have high basal glucose levels.
– A glucose concentration of 5.2 mmol/l at 4 hours: In insulin-dependent diabetes, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4 hours of the test.
– A low haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): If the patient has been suffering from diabetes for some time without treatment, the HbA1c would likely be elevated rather than low.Overall, glucose tolerance tests can provide valuable insights into the glucose metabolism of insulin-dependent diabetics. By understanding the nuances of these test results, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage this chronic condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following vaccinations should be avoided in individuals who have HIV, and what is the reason for this recommendation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: BCG
Explanation:Live attenuated vaccines include BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.
Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics
Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is admitted to the orthogeriatric ward following a femoral fracture from a fall. He has a medical history of diabetes mellitus type 2, benign prostate hyperplasia, and severe hay fever. After a few days, the patient reports experiencing suprapubic discomfort and difficulty urinating. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Codeine
Explanation:Urinary retention is a common side effect of opioid analgesia, including the use of codeine. Other medications that can cause this issue include tricyclic antidepressants, anticholinergics, and NSAIDs. Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, is often prescribed to improve symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia and reduce resistance to bladder outflow. Duloxetine, an SSRI used to treat diabetic neuropathy, does not typically cause urinary retention. Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, is a second-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia when alpha-blockers are not effective, as it reduces prostatic bulk.
Drugs that can cause urinary retention
Urinary retention is a condition where a person is unable to empty their bladder completely. This can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Some drugs that may lead to urinary retention include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline, anticholinergics such as antipsychotics and antihistamines, opioids, NSAIDs, and disopyramide. These drugs can affect the muscles that control the bladder, making it difficult to urinate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man is admitted under the medical take with acute chest pain. An MRI of the chest with contrast is requested. His blood tests show acute kidney injury (AKI).
Which of the following would mitigate the risk of worsening AKI when using contrast?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV fluids before and after a CT scan
Explanation:Preventing Contrast-Induced Nephropathy: Strategies and Considerations
Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is a common complication of IV contrast administration, particularly in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. CIN is characterized by a decline in renal function within 48-72 hours of contrast exposure. To prevent CIN, strategies that focus on maintaining intravascular volume expansion are crucial.
Intravenous (IV) saline 0.9% is preferred over 0.45% saline as it enhances intravascular volume expansion and prevents renin-angiotensin activation. Oral fluids are beneficial but not as effective as IV hydration. Volume expansion should begin 6 hours before the procedure and continue for 6-24 hours post-procedure, with post-procedure hydration being more important than pre-procedure hydration.
Diuretics alone are not recommended, but a recent meta-analysis suggests that furosemide with matched hydration may reduce the incidence of CIN in high-risk patients. Fluid restriction is not recommended, and oral fluids should be encouraged.
Dialysis is required in less than 1% of patients with CIN, with a slightly higher incidence in patients with underlying renal impairment and those undergoing primary percutaneous coronary intervention for myocardial infarction. N-Acetylcysteine (NAC) supplementation has been associated with a significant decrease in CIN risk and blood creatinine levels, but it does not reduce mortality or the need for dialysis.
In conclusion, preventing CIN requires a multifaceted approach that includes maintaining intravascular volume expansion, avoiding fluid restriction, and considering NAC supplementation in high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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