00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Patients who have been taking amiodarone for a prolonged period of time may...

    Correct

    • Patients who have been taking amiodarone for a prolonged period of time may experience what issues related to thyroid function?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism + thyrotoxicosis

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone develop thyroid dysfunction. This can manifest as either amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) or amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT).

      The pathophysiology of AIH is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This is an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide. Despite this, amiodarone may be continued if desirable.

      On the other hand, AIT may be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 is caused by amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis. In patients with AIT, amiodarone should be stopped if possible.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients taking amiodarone for any signs of thyroid dysfunction and adjust treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old man with end-stage renal disease due to adult polycystic kidney disease...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with end-stage renal disease due to adult polycystic kidney disease complained of worsening lower back and sacral pain for the past 5 months. He looked emaciated and had lost a significant amount of weight. Despite taking regular paracetamol, his pain was excruciating. He is currently awaiting additional tests.
      What analgesics would be more effective in managing his pain?

      Your Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure can safely use oxycodone as it is primarily metabolized in the liver. However, NSAIDs such as naproxen should be avoided as they can lead to acute renal failure, interstitial nephritis (especially with ibuprofen and naproxen), volume overload, and worsening hypertension due to sodium retention caused by the inhibition of prostaglandin, which affects sodium excretion.

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      When it comes to prescribing medication for patients with renal failure, it is important to be aware of which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin should be avoided, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin. These drugs can potentially harm the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs can be used with dose adjustment. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as medications like digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, furosemide, and opioids, may require a lower dose in patients with chronic kidney disease. It is important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose as needed.

      Finally, there are some drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics like erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as medications like diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease. However, it is still important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose if necessary.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of each drug. By avoiding certain drugs, adjusting doses of others, and monitoring patients closely, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      164.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are seeking participants for a study of a novel anti-diabetic medication. The...

    Correct

    • You are seeking participants for a study of a novel anti-diabetic medication. The trial excludes patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) below 60 ml/min and requires individuals with a diabetes duration of no more than three years.

      What is accurate regarding this clinical investigation?

      Your Answer: All patients have to be given, understand and sign their informed consent

      Explanation:

      Informed Consent in Clinical Trials

      Clinical trials are conducted to test the safety and efficacy of new investigational agents. Before a patient can participate in a clinical trial, they must be given informed consent. This process involves detailing the potential benefits, risks, and adverse events associated with the investigational therapy. The patient must sign the informed consent form before beginning the therapy.

      All clinical trials must adhere to the declaration of Helsinki, which outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects. Patients can only receive reasonable expenses for participating in a clinical trial, and not a premium. Clinical trial waivers are not acceptable, and entry into a study is based on both potential efficacy and safety.

      In summary, informed consent is a crucial aspect of clinical trials. It ensures that patients are fully aware of the potential risks and benefits of the investigational therapy before they begin treatment. Adherence to ethical principles and guidelines is also essential to ensure the safety and well-being of study participants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department in a collapsed state after...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department in a collapsed state after taking an overdose of 50x100mg amitriptyline tablets. On arrival, her Glasgow coma scale is 9, blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 102 beats per minute and regular, and her chest is clear. Her laboratory investigations reveal a Na+ level of 135 mmol/l, K+ level of 5.1 mmol/l, HCO3- level of 15.1 mmol/l, urea level of 10.5 mmol/l, creatinine level of 155 µmol/l, and pH of 7.25. During examination, she experiences a short tonic clonic seizure.

      What is the most important medication to administer next?

      Your Answer: Sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      The appropriate solution for a patient with conduction abnormalities depends on their venous access status. It is important to avoid Class 1a, 1c anti-arrhythmics, beta blockers, and amiodarone as they can worsen the condition. Lignocaine may not be effective, so correcting acidosis should be the primary intervention. The College of Emergency Medicine guidelines provide further information on this topic.

      Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.

      Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 74-year-old patient has been admitted for cholecystectomy. While you are writing up...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old patient has been admitted for cholecystectomy. While you are writing up her drug chart, the patient informs the SHO that she is on digoxin for a heart condition.
      With regard to digoxin, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Visual disturbance is a feature of digoxin toxicity

      Explanation:

      Facts about Digoxin: Myths and Truths

      Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions such as atrial fibrillation and heart failure. However, there are several misconceptions about this drug that need to be clarified. Here are some facts about digoxin:

      Visual Disturbance is a Feature of Digoxin Toxicity: One of the side effects of digoxin toxicity is a yellow visual disturbance. This can be caused by hypokalaemia and hypercalcaemia.

      Digoxin is Not the Treatment of Choice for Ventricular Fibrillation: Contrary to popular belief, digoxin is not the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation. Defibrillation is the preferred treatment.

      Digoxin Does Not Cardiovert Atrial Fibrillation: While digoxin can control the rate of atrial fibrillation by slowing AV conduction, it does not commonly cardiovert AF. Intravenous digoxin may be used to cardiovert some cases of AF, but it is not the first-line treatment.

      Hyperkalaemia Potentiates Digoxin Toxicity: High levels of potassium in the blood can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

      Digoxin is Excreted Unchanged by the Kidneys: Digoxin is not metabolised by the liver. Instead, it is excreted unchanged by the kidneys.

      In conclusion, it is important to understand the facts about digoxin to ensure safe and effective use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old female patient visits the clinic seeking contraception and expresses interest in...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female patient visits the clinic seeking contraception and expresses interest in trying the levonorgestrel intrauterine system. What can be said about its profile?

      Your Answer: It decreases the volume of bleeding by approximately 90% in women with menorrhagia

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel IUS for Menorrhagia

      The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS), commonly known as Mirena, is an effective treatment for menorrhagia, a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. It reduces the volume of bleeding by approximately 90% and also decreases the number of bleeding days during a menstrual cycle.

      Compared to other contraceptive methods, the levonorgestrel IUS has a very low failure rate of less than 1% (around 0.2%). Additionally, a 10-year follow-up cohort study has shown that it does not cause a loss of bone mineral density. However, some side effects such as weight gain, increased risk of vulvovaginitis, and decreased libido may occur, which are consistent with other progesterone-only contraceptive methods.

      The levonorgestrel IUS can be safely inserted immediately after delivery. It is a convenient and effective option for women with menorrhagia who want to avoid surgery or hormonal treatments that may have more significant side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department accompanied by her father. After...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department accompanied by her father. After a heated argument, the patient ingested a packet of her father's depression medication and locked herself in her room. When the door was forced open, she was found lying on the floor in a drowsy state. As part of her evaluation, an electrocardiogram was performed, revealing a sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 98 beats per minute, PR interval of 100ms, QRS of 150ms, and QTc interval of 420ms. What is the most appropriate course of action based on these findings?

      Your Answer: IV sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      In tricyclic overdose, the QRS complex widens and can lead to ventricular tachycardia. IV sodium bicarbonate can be given to achieve cardiac stability. SSRIs do not widen the QRS but prolong the QT. DC cardioversion is not appropriate in this case. IV dextrose is not useful in reversing toxicity. IV lorazepam is used for seizures but not needed currently. Flecainide is contraindicated in tricyclic overdose.

      Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.

      Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old woman presented with worsening constipation. One year previously she had been...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presented with worsening constipation. One year previously she had been discharged from hospital following an acute coronary syndrome and atrial fibrillation. She was treated with several new drugs in hospital and was adherent to all of them.
      Which one of her medications is most likely to have caused her constipation?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Common Side-Effects of Medications for Cardiovascular Conditions

      Verapamil, Ramipril, Aspirin, Nicorandil, and Simvastatin are medications commonly used in the treatment of cardiovascular conditions. However, they also come with some common side-effects that patients should be aware of.

      Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause constipation, headache, hypotension, reflux symptoms, nausea, peripheral oedema, fatigue, atrioventricular block, flushing, and bradycardia.

      Ramipril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, can cause first-dose hypotension, dry cough, renal dysfunction, dizziness, and diarrhoea.

      Aspirin, a blood thinner, can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, nosebleeds, reflux symptoms, and abdominal pain/cramping.

      Nicorandil, a vasodilator, can cause mouth/skin/anal ulceration, headaches, dizziness, flushing, tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting.

      Simvastatin, a cholesterol-lowering medication, can cause myopathy, deranged liver function tests/hepatitis, reflux symptoms, diarrhoea, gastrointestinal disturbance, and joint pains.

      It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      139.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are the surgical foundation year 1 doctor and have been bleeped by...

    Incorrect

    • You are the surgical foundation year 1 doctor and have been bleeped by the nurse on the surgical ward regarding a 66-year-old patient who had a laparotomy for large bowel obstruction 2 days ago. On attending the ward the nurse reports that she thinks the patient is becoming unconscious with a drop in respiratory rate to eight breaths per minute. You have tried to secure the patient’s airway and noted on the drug chart that patient has been using the patient controlled analgesia with morphine regularly.
      Which of the following is the next appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: 40 µg increments of naloxone titrated to effect

      Correct Answer: 400 µg bolus of naloxone

      Explanation:

      Proper Medication Dosages and Procedures for Opioid Overdose

      Opioid overdose is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Here are some important medication dosages and procedures to keep in mind:

      – A 400 µg bolus of naloxone should be given intravenously immediately to treat opioid toxicity. However, be aware that one bolus may not be sufficient as naloxone has a short half-life.
      – Naloxone should be prescribed in µg rather than mg.
      – Flumazenil is used in benzodiazepine overdose, not opioid overdose.
      – Naloxone should be given in bolus rather than increments of 40 µg, which is an insufficient dose.
      – Intubation and ventilation should only be attempted by trained professionals in cases of compromised airway.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively treat opioid overdose and potentially save lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man comes to you with a severe sunburn-like reaction on his...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes to you with a severe sunburn-like reaction on his face after spending a few hours in the garden the previous day. He was prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection a few days ago. Upon examination, you notice a severe erythematosus reaction with the formation of several vesicles on all sun-exposed areas. The following investigations were conducted:

      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 × 109/l (neutrophils 6.2) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 145 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Skin biopsy Necrotic keratinocytes

      Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced Photosensitivity Reactions and Associated Antibiotics

      Photosensitivity reactions are a common adverse effect of certain medications. There are two main types of drug-induced photosensitivity: an immediate sunburn-type reaction and an allergic dermatitis-type reaction. Trimethoprim is one of the drugs that can cause an acute-type reaction, along with tetracyclines, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, diuretics, vitamin A derivatives, anti-fungals, and others. Adequate sunblock and topical corticosteroids are the main components of treatment for these reactions.

      Amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav, cephalexin, and cefaclor are antibiotics that are more classically associated with different types of allergic reactions. Amoxicillin is associated with an erythematous rash in the context of glandular fever or an allergic reaction causing urticaria, while co-amoxiclav is also associated with an erythematous rash and rare cases of angio-oedema. cephalexin and cefaclor are more commonly associated with an allergic reaction causing urticaria, and in rare cases, angio-oedema, erythema multiforme, and Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of chest...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of chest pain, breathlessness, and palpitations. An admission ECG reveals ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a ventricular rate of 170 bpm. His blood pressure is 100/66 mmHg, and his oxygen saturations are 95% on air and 100% on high flow oxygen (15 L/min). His blood sugar level is 8.3 mmol/L. Despite his condition, he remains alert and able to communicate. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and asthma. The medical team administers intravenous amiodarone to attempt to stop the arrhythmia. What is the mandatory intervention while giving intravenous amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Continuous ECG recording should be done via cardiac monitoring

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic drug that prolongs the repolarisation phase of the action potential by modulating calcium and potassium permeability. It is useful in various cardiac arrhythmias but requires continuous ECG monitoring due to its negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects. Amiodarone is metabolised via the cytochrome P450 enzyme system and is contraindicated in bradycardia and second or third degree heart block. Rapid infusion can cause a significant drop in blood pressure and should be avoided. Amiodarone can cause pulmonary complications, so routine chest x-rays and follow-up radiographs are recommended. It does not affect glucose metabolism but can cause hypoglycaemia when used with some oral antidiabetic drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      69.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Your next patient is a 23-year-old woman who presents with symptoms of depression....

    Correct

    • Your next patient is a 23-year-old woman who presents with symptoms of depression. She reports being allergic to all selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and requests dothiepin and temazepam. Upon examination, you observe that she appears thin and disheveled. Additionally, she exhibits rhinorrhea, watery eyes, and frequent yawning. What is the probable underlying issue?

      Your Answer: Heroin abuse

      Explanation:

      Most drug abusers consume multiple types of drugs, and although Dothiepin has sedative effects, it can be extremely hazardous when taken in excessive amounts.

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including both natural and synthetic opioids. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning. Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C can also be helpful.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the mechanism of action of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of osteoclast activity

      Explanation:

      Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator used for treating postmenopausal osteoporosis. It mimics the effects of oestrogen on bone while avoiding negative effects on other tissues. Oestrogens reduce differentiation and maturation of osteoclasts and their activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old female patient is currently being prescribed ferrous sulphate by her doctor...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient is currently being prescribed ferrous sulphate by her doctor to treat anaemia caused by menorrhagia.

      What is the most frequently encountered adverse effect of taking oral iron supplements?

      Your Answer: Abdominal discomfort

      Explanation:

      Ferrous Salts for Iron Deficiency Anaemia

      Ferrous salts are frequently used to supplement iron in patients with iron deficiency anaemia. Ferrous ions (Fe2+) are more easily absorbed than ferric ions (Fe3+), making preparations of ferrous sulphate, ferrous gluconate, ferrous succinate, and ferrous fumarate all available for oral use. The most common side effects of oral iron treatment are gastrointestinal disturbances, which typically include abdominal discomfort, nausea, diarrhoea or constipation, and cramps.

      However, acute toxicity or overdose of iron can cause severe complications such as necrotising gastritis with severe vomiting, haemorrhage, diarrhoea, and circulatory collapse. It is important to follow the recommended dosage and seek medical attention immediately if any symptoms of iron toxicity occur. Overall, ferrous salts are a useful option for treating iron deficiency anaemia, but caution must be taken to avoid potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old man is recovering from a coronary artery bypass surgery and is...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is recovering from a coronary artery bypass surgery and is about to come off the cardiac bypass circuit. What medication should be given to restore the patient's clotting function before closing the chest and removing the cannula?

      Your Answer: Protamine sulphate

      Explanation:

      Protamine sulphate can reverse an overdose of heparin.

      To prevent blood clots during cardiac bypass procedures, high amounts of heparin are given intravenously. However, if too much heparin is given, it can be reversed with protamine sulphate. Although fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may also work, it poses a risk of fluid overload.

      Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.

      Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old female patient presents at the clinic for a check-up. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents at the clinic for a check-up. She reports experiencing heavy periods with menstrual bleeding and clots for up to eight days every month. The patient is sexually active, using barrier contraception, and has no plans of getting pregnant in the near future. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is regular at 64 bpm, and her BMI is 23 kg/m2. Abdominal and pelvic examination shows no abnormalities, and an ultrasound reveals no fibroids. Her 21 day progesterone level is also normal. What is the most appropriate treatment to alleviate her bleeding symptoms?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system (IUS)

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for heavy menstrual periods

      Women who do not plan on getting pregnant in the next year and suffer from heavy menstrual periods have several treatment options available to them. The preferred treatment, according to NICE, is the progesterone releasing IUS. This method significantly reduces menstrual bleeding and can even stop periods altogether. Additionally, the level of progesterone delivered locally is lower than that of the progesterone only pill.

      If the IUS is not an option, there are other treatments available. Tranexamic acid, combined oral contraceptives, and NSAIDs are all reasonable second choices. The progesterone only pill is also a potential strategy. It is important for women to discuss their options with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old male comes to your clinic with an inflamed left big toe,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male comes to your clinic with an inflamed left big toe, and you diagnose it as his second gout episode this year. His recent blood tests show normal kidney function. What is the next best step to take?

      Your Answer: Commence febuxostat immediately

      Correct Answer: Commence allopurinol once the inflammation has settled and the patient is no longer in pain

      Explanation:

      The administration of Allopurinol should commence after the subsiding of inflammation and relief from pain in the patient.

      Allopurinol is a medication used to prevent gout by inhibiting xanthine oxidase. Traditionally, it was believed that urate-lowering therapy (ULT) should not be started until two weeks after an acute attack to avoid further attacks. However, the evidence supporting this is weak, and the British Society of Rheumatology (BSR) now recommends delaying ULT until inflammation has settled to make long-term drug decisions while the patient is not in pain. The initial dose of allopurinol is 100 mg once daily, with the dose titrated every few weeks to aim for a serum uric acid level of less than 300 µmol/l. Colchicine cover should be considered when starting allopurinol, and NSAIDs can be used if colchicine cannot be tolerated. ULT is recommended for patients with two or more attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics, and Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

      The most significant adverse effects of allopurinol are dermatological, and patients should stop taking the medication immediately if they develop a rash. Severe cutaneous adverse reaction (SCAR), drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS), and Stevens-Johnson syndrome are potential risks. Certain ethnic groups, such as the Chinese, Korean, and Thai people, are at an increased risk of these dermatological reactions. Patients at high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele. Allopurinol can interact with other medications, such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. Azathioprine is metabolized to the active compound 6-mercaptopurine, which is oxidized to 6-thiouric acid by xanthine oxidase. Allopurinol can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine, so a much-reduced dose must be used if the combination cannot be avoided. Allopurinol also reduces renal clearance of cyclophosphamide, which may cause marrow toxicity. Additionally, allopurinol causes an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline by inhibiting its breakdown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 85-year-old man with chronic myeloid leukaemia develops gout after treatment. His GP...

    Correct

    • A 85-year-old man with chronic myeloid leukaemia develops gout after treatment. His GP prescribed allopurinol to prevent the accumulation of uric acid. How does allopurinol achieve this?

      Your Answer: By inhibiting purine breakdown and synthesis

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol Mechanism of Action

      Allopurinol is a purine analogue that inhibits xanthine oxidase, an enzyme responsible for the oxidation of hypoxanthine and xanthine. By blocking this process, the production of uric acid is reduced. Additionally, the accumulation of hypoxanthine and xanthine leads to their conversion into adenosine and guanosine, which inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme of purine biosynthesis, amidophosphoribosyl transferase. As a result, allopurinol reduces both the breakdown and synthesis of purines.

      It is important to note that allopurinol should not be used in combination with Rasburicase, as the two medications have opposing effects. Proper of allopurinol mechanism of action is crucial for its safe and effective use in the treatment of conditions such as gout and hyperuricemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You go on a home visit to see Mrs. Jones, an elderly woman...

    Correct

    • You go on a home visit to see Mrs. Jones, an elderly woman who is suffering from an acute diarrhoeal illness she picked up from her grandchildren. Her past medical history includes: ischaemic heart disease, type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolaemia, and osteoarthritis. Her medications are bisoprolol 2.5mg OD, ramipril 2.5mg OD, aspirin 75 mg, lansoprazole 30 mg OD, metformin 1g BD, atorvastatin 40 mg ON, and paracetamol 1g PRN. Her pulse is 92/min, blood pressure 152/82 mmHg, oxygen saturations 97%, respiratory rate 16/min. Her tongue looks a little dry, abdomen is soft and non-tender, with very active bowel sounds. After examining her, you feel she is well enough to stay at home, and you prescribe some rehydration sachets and arrange telephone review for the following day.

      What other medication changes should you advise Mrs. Jones to make immediately?

      Your Answer: Suspend metformin

      Explanation:

      During intercurrent illness such as diarrhoea and vomiting, it is important to suspend the use of metformin as it increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Increasing the dose of ramipril is not recommended as it may increase the risk of electrolyte disturbance while the patient is unwell. Similarly, there is no indication to double the dose of lansoprazole. Suspending ramipril is also not necessary as there is no evidence of acute electrolyte disturbance. However, reducing the dose of paracetamol to 500 mg may be considered if the patient has a low body weight.

      The following table provides a summary of the typical side-effects associated with drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus. Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal side-effects and lactic acidosis. Sulfonylureas can lead to hypoglycaemic episodes, increased appetite and weight gain, as well as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion and liver dysfunction (cholestatic). Glitazones are associated with weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, and fractures. Finally, gliptins have been linked to pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      55.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old African man with a history of sickle cell anaemia has been...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old African man with a history of sickle cell anaemia has been admitted to the Respiratory Ward after presenting with a non-productive cough and pleuritic chest pain for the past two days. He has previously been hospitalized for pain crises and priapism. What medication is known to cause priapism?

      Your Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      Medications and Medical Conditions that can Cause Sexual Dysfunction

      Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of many medications and medical conditions. Priapism, a painful and prolonged erection, can be caused by sickle cell anemia, prostate and bladder cancer, multiple myeloma, and certain medications such as sildenafil, trazodone, sertraline, clozapine, and heparin. Beta-blockers like atenolol and propranolol, as well as angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitors like captopril, can cause impotence. Levodopa, used to treat Parkinson’s disease, can also cause impotence. It is important to discuss any sexual dysfunction with a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and explore potential treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (18/20) 90%
Passmed