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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
    Select from the list the single...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding agoraphobia.

      Your Answer: Commonly involves anticipatory anxiety

      Explanation:

      Understanding Agoraphobia: The Fear of Open Spaces and Leaving Home

      Agoraphobia is an irrational fear that affects up to one third of patients with panic disorders. It is characterized by a fear of open spaces and leaving home, especially those places from which escape may be difficult. Anxiety attacks are often triggered by provoking situations, and the anxiety experienced is disproportionate to the actual threat. Anticipatory anxiety is also common, with sufferers worrying about the anxiety itself and avoiding situations that may provoke it.

      The onset of agoraphobia is bimodal, with peaks in the mid-20s and mid-30s. Prevalence rates of panic disorder suggest that it is a common disorder, affecting 1-5% of the population. Anxiety disorders are twice as common in females and more prevalent in deprived areas. There is also an association with mitral valve prolapse.

      The treatments of choice for agoraphobia are self-help techniques and cognitive behavioural therapy, often in combination with antidepressant medication. Understanding agoraphobia and seeking appropriate treatment can help individuals overcome their fears and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.

      The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.

      The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old girl is constantly in trouble at school. She will not sit...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is constantly in trouble at school. She will not sit still and be quiet or get on with her work. She is equally troublesome at home and her mother cannot take her anywhere. She wonders if she has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

      Select from the list the single correct statement about ADHD.

      Your Answer: Some impairment from symptoms must be evident in two or more settings

      Explanation:

      Understanding ADHD: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Comorbidities

      Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically observed in individuals at a comparable level of development. In the UK, ADHD affects between 2-5% of children, with boys being more commonly affected. Diagnosis is usually made in children aged 3-7 years, but it can also be recognized later in life.

      To diagnose ADHD, symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity and/or inattention should be present. However, the ICD-10 classification requires all three problems of attention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness to be present. About 70% of children with ADHD also have other conditions, such as learning difficulties, dyspraxia, Gilles de la Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD, and depression and anxiety are common comorbidities.

      While about 1 in 3 children with ADHD can grow out of their condition and not require any treatment when they are adults, the remainder either continue with ADHD or retain some symptoms and functional impairment. Therefore, early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to improve outcomes for individuals with ADHD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 4 - The five stages of change for addictive behaviours are Action, Contemplation, Maintenance, precontemplation,...

    Correct

    • The five stages of change for addictive behaviours are Action, Contemplation, Maintenance, precontemplation, and Preparation. What is the correct rank order for these stages?

      Your Answer: 42513

      Explanation:

      The Stages of Change: Understanding Behavioural Transformation

      Behavioural change is a process that involves several stages. The precontemplation stage is characterized by a lack of awareness of the problem and no intention to change. In the contemplation stage, individuals acknowledge the problem and consider overcoming it but have not yet committed to taking action. The preparation stage involves intention and behavioural plans, with individuals intending to take action soon. The action stage is where individuals modify their behaviour, experiences, and environment to overcome their problems. The maintenance stage involves preventing relapse and consolidating gains attained during action. It is common for individuals to recycle through these stages several times before terminating the addiction. Understanding where a person is in relation to the stages of change can be helpful to doctors in promoting and supporting change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old woman is brought to the doctors by her son. Three weeks...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman is brought to the doctors by her son. Three weeks ago her husband died from pancreatic cancer. She reports being tearful every day but her son is concerned because she is constantly 'picking fights' with him over minor matters and issues relating to their family past. The son also reports that she has on occasion described hearing her husband talking to her and on one occasion she set a place for him at the dinner table.

      Despite this she has started going to yoga classes again with friends and says that she is determined to get 'back on track'.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief Reactions

      Grief is a natural response to the loss of a loved one, but it can be helpful to have an understanding of the potential stages a person may go through while grieving. One popular model divides grief into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. However, not everyone will experience all five stages.

      Abnormal or atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women and when the death is sudden or unexpected. Other risk factors include a problematic relationship before death or a lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving doesn’t begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which can last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.

      It is important to note that grief doesn’t necessarily need to be medicalized, but understanding the potential stages and risk factors can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal grief reaction or if they may need additional support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 6 - A 79-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with disorientation and restlessness. She...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with disorientation and restlessness. She lives independently and has previously seemed mentally alert. However, she has been increasingly unwell for the past month. She has long-standing hypertension, overactive bladder, osteoarthritis and depression. Physical examination and blood tests are unremarkable.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polypharmacy

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of delirium in an elderly patient with multiple co-morbidities

      Delirium is a common and serious condition in older adults, especially those with multiple chronic illnesses and medications. It is characterized by acute and fluctuating changes in cognition, attention, and consciousness, and can be caused by various factors, including infections, medications, metabolic disturbances, and organ failure. Distinguishing delirium from dementia, depression, or other cognitive disorders is important for appropriate management and prognosis.

      In this case, the patient presents with delirium, as evidenced by her confusion, disorientation, and agitation. The history and examination suggest that the most likely cause of delirium is polypharmacy, i.e., the use of multiple medications that may interact or have side effects, such as sedation, dizziness, or serotonin syndrome. Therefore, a medication review and optimization should be a priority, with attention to reducing the overall burden of medications and avoiding potentially harmful combinations.

      Other potential causes of delirium, such as accidental poisoning, alcohol withdrawal, Alzheimer’s disease, or chest infection, are less likely based on the available information. However, it is important to keep an open mind and consider further investigations or referrals if the patient’s condition doesn’t improve or worsens. Follow-up assessments of the patient’s cognitive and functional status are also recommended to monitor for any residual or long-term effects of delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, was seen for...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, was seen for a routine mental health review and ECG review. He reported no symptoms and was otherwise well. He is on regular oral haloperidol. He has had no changes to medications other than recently being treated for tonsillitis with clarithromycin.

      Rate 66
      Rhythm Sinus
      PR interval 180 ms
      QTc 505 ms
      RR interval 1 s

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Discuss with the on-call medical team for advice

      Explanation:

      Risk of QT Prolongation with Clarithromycin and Haloperidol

      Both clarithromycin and haloperidol have been associated with an increased risk of QT prolongation, which can lead to potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. If a patient’s QTc interval exceeds 500 ms, it is crucial to discuss the case with the on-call team immediately. The patient may require inpatient cardiac monitoring and consultation with psychiatry regarding their current antipsychotic medication. It is essential to monitor patients closely for signs of QT prolongation when prescribing these medications and to take appropriate measures to prevent adverse outcomes. Proper management of QT prolongation can help prevent serious cardiac events and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 8 - A 57-year-old plumber has come for a medication review. He has had three...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old plumber has come for a medication review. He has had three separate episodes of depression in the past four years, resulting in several absences from work. He is currently employed by a competitor and finds the reduced stress level beneficial. He has been taking citalopram 20 mg for the past nine months and reports feeling well. He is interested in discontinuing his medication and seeks your guidance. What is the recommended duration of antidepressant withdrawal after achieving remission?

      Your Answer: He can withdraw six months into his recovery

      Correct Answer: He can withdraw 24 months into his recovery

      Explanation:

      Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Patients with Recurrent Depression

      Guidance from NICE on Depression (CG23) recommends that patients who have experienced two or more episodes of depression in the recent past or suffered significant functional impairment should continue antidepressants for at least two years into remission. This recommendation was reiterated in the 2009 publication of Depression in adults (CG90). However, for patients who have suffered a single episode of depression without significant functional impairment, the duration of treatment after remission is six months. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these guidelines when treating patients with depression to ensure appropriate and effective management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident 3 weeks ago. He reports experiencing flashbacks of the crash while watching car chase scenes on TV and has been avoiding such shows. He also mentions having trouble falling asleep and feeling more irritable than usual. However, his symptoms have not significantly impacted his work or relationships, and he is generally functioning well. What is the recommended next step in primary care management according to current NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: Arrange a period of watchful waiting, ensuring a follow-up appointment within 1 month

      Explanation:

      If an individual is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of PTSD for less than 4 weeks, it may be appropriate to suggest a period of watchful waiting, as per the current NICE guidelines. It is not recommended to use single session interventions that focus on the traumatic event, despite their common practice. Additionally, drug treatments should not be the first-line management for PTSD, whether used by general practitioners or specialist mental health professionals. There is no need for an urgent referral to the adult mental health team in this situation.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 10 - A 62-year-old male who has been on long term chlorpromazine presents with repetitive...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male who has been on long term chlorpromazine presents with repetitive eye blinking. He reports he is unable to control this and is concerned about the underlying cause. Despite this, he is generally in good health and has no visual impairment. Upon examination, his face and eyes appear normal except for excessive rapid blinking.

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Benign essential blepharospasm

      Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      The correct term is tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by abnormal involuntary choreoathetoid movements that occur late in patients who have been on conventional antipsychotics. Symptoms may include lip-smacking, jaw pouting, chewing, repetitive blinking, or tongue poking. This condition is often difficult to treat, but replacing the antipsychotic or trying tetrabenazine may provide some relief.

      Parkinsonism, which can also occur in patients taking conventional antipsychotics, presents with symptoms similar to those of Parkinson’s disease, such as tremor, blank facies, bradykinesia, and muscle rigidity. However, this option is incorrect as there is no mention of other symptoms in the stem, and repetitive blinking is not a typical symptom of Parkinsonism.

      While dry eyes may lead to eye twitching, repetitive blinking is unlikely, and other symptoms such as visual disturbance or watering of the eyes would be expected.

      Sjogren’s syndrome, which can cause dry eyes, is also an unlikely cause of repetitive involuntary blinking.

      Blepharospasm, which is characterized by involuntary twitching or contraction of the eyelid, is a focal dystonia that may last only a few days or be lifelong. While stress or fatigue may trigger it, the patient in the stem is more likely suffering from tardive dyskinesia due to extrapyramidal side effects of chlorpromazine, a typical antipsychotic.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Mental Health (8/10) 80%
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