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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department at 36-weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She is conscious and responsive. During the physical examination, her heart rate was 110 bpm, blood pressure was 95/60 mmHg, and O2 saturation was 98%. Neurological examination revealed dilated pupils and brisk reflexes. Laboratory results showed Hb of 118 g/l, platelets of 240 * 109/l, WBC of 6 * 109/l, PT of 11 seconds, and APTT of 28 seconds. What underlying condition could best explain the observed physical exam findings?
Your Answer: HELLP syndrome
Correct Answer: Cocaine abuse
Explanation:The symptoms described in the question suggest that the patient is experiencing placental abruption, which can be caused by cocaine abuse, pre-eclampsia, and HELLP syndrome. The presence of hyperreflexia on physical examination indicates placental abruption, while ruling out HELLP syndrome due to normal blood count results. Dilated pupils and hyperreflexia are consistent with cocaine abuse, while pinpointed pupils are more commonly associated with heroin abuse. Although pre-eclampsia can also lead to placental abruption, the physical exam findings suggest cocaine abuse as the underlying cause. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy is a complication of placental abruption, not a cause, and the normal PTT and APTT results make it less likely to be present.
Risks of Smoking, Alcohol, and Illegal Drugs During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, drug use can have serious consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, preterm labor, stillbirth, and sudden unexpected death in infancy. Alcohol consumption can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause learning difficulties, characteristic facial features, and growth restrictions. Binge drinking is a major risk factor for fetal alcohol syndrome. Cannabis use poses similar risks to smoking due to the tobacco content. Cocaine use can lead to hypertension in pregnancy, including pre-eclampsia, and placental abruption. Fetal risks include prematurity and neonatal abstinence syndrome. Heroin use can result in neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is important for pregnant women to avoid drug use to ensure the health and well-being of both themselves and their unborn child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child comes to the Emergency Department (ED) after running into a door while playing with his older brother. He cried and screamed initially, but fell asleep about an hour later. Upon waking up, he vomited twice. During the examination, a 3 cm x 4 cm swelling is observed on his forehead. The central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS) examination are generally normal, as are his eyes. His cervical spine is also normal. While in the examination room, he vomits again. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Do a CT brain scan within 1 hour to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Observe him closely for at least 4 hours (after the injury)
Explanation:Guidelines for Management of Head Injuries in Children: Observation and CT Scans
Children are at a higher risk for head injuries, which can lead to contusion and intracerebral hemorrhage. However, CT scans can also cause radiation-related brain damage and increase the risk of malignancy. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a detailed assessment and balance the risks and benefits before deciding on investigation and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for head injuries in children.
Observation and CT scans are necessary for children who have had a head injury and have more than one of the following features: loss of consciousness for more than 5 minutes, abnormal drowsiness, three or more episodes of vomiting, a dangerous mechanism/high-impact injury, or amnesia for more than 5 minutes. If they have only one of these features, they should be observed for at least 4 hours.
CT scans should be performed within 1 hour for children with risk factors such as suspicion of non-accidental injury, post-traumatic seizure, GCS less than 14, or presence of a skull fracture or basal skull fracture. A provisional written radiology report should be made available within 1 hour of the scan being performed.
If a child has only one of the risk factors mentioned above, they should be observed for a minimum of 4 hours. If any of the risk factors occur during observation, a CT scan should be performed within 1 hour.
It is important to note that child protection is crucial, but there are no features in the case history that suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, speaking to social services may not be necessary.
Guidelines for Management of Head Injuries in Children: Observation and CT Scans
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with sudden onset compressive chest pain radiating to the left upper limb. He has a medical history of obesity, hypertension and hyperlipidaemia, and is a smoker. Based on the initial assessment, you determine that there is a 40% likelihood that he is having an acute myocardial infarction. You order an ECG and cardiac enzymes for further evaluation.
What is the significance of the 40% estimate in this scenario?Your Answer: Likelihood ratio
Correct Answer: Prior probability
Explanation:Understanding Probability and Prevalence Measures in Medical Diagnosis
Probability and prevalence measures are essential in medical diagnosis. The prior probability estimates the likelihood of a disease before obtaining further data, while the posterior probability is the new probability after additional data is obtained. The odds ratio measures the association between an exposure and an outcome, while the likelihood ratio compares the likelihood of a test result in a patient with and without the target disorder. Prevalence refers to the proportion of people in a given population who have the disease at a specific point in time. Understanding these measures is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. Her temperature is 38.5ÂşC and her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute.
During the examination, you observe that her left leg is warm and swollen with purple discoloration. On the back of her leg, her skin is peeling, and a deep, erythematosus, diffuse, grey soft wound is visible with white discharge.
When you ask her father about her medical history, he mentions that there was an outbreak of chickenpox at her school. He first noticed the wound on her leg three days ago.
Her Hb is 115 g/L (110-140), platelets are 140* 109/L (150 - 450), and WBC is 16 * 109/L (5-12 * 109).
What is the most likely complication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Necrotising fasciitis
Explanation:Chickenpox and its Complications
Chickenpox can lead to various complications, including invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections such as necrotizing fasciitis. This rare complication of the varicella-zoster virus causes painful lesions on the skin and underlying muscles, with systemic symptoms and open wounds. Diagnosis is made by passing a probe or gloved finger below the affected skin, causing it to separate from the underlying tissue.
Another complication caused by group A streptococcus is cellulitis, which affects the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. It presents with erythema, pain, swelling, and warmth, without systemic symptoms. Erysipelas, on the other hand, is a bacterial infection that affects the superficial layer of the dermis and commonly affects superficial cutaneous lymphatics. It presents similarly to cellulitis but has well-defined borders and can be a rare complication of chickenpox.
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura is an IgA-mediated vasculitis of the small vessels of the skin. It can rarely present as a complication of chickenpox with a widespread rash on the buttocks and lower thigh, abdominal pain, and joint pain. Reyes syndrome is another complication that commonly presents after a recent viral infection such as chickenpox. It is also thought to be triggered by aspirin use, which is often used to treat the symptoms of chickenpox, such as headaches. It presents with tachypnea, tiredness, and in severe cases can cause behavioral changes and coma. However, in this case, the patient only presents with tachypnea, and there is no evidence to suggest the use of aspirin.
Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.
Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia
Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with a complaint of missed periods for the past four months despite negative pregnancy tests. She is also distressed about the loss of her libido and has noticed milk leakage with minimal nipple stimulation during intercourse. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 122/70 mmHg, pulse is 70 and regular, and general physical examination is unremarkable. Which blood test is most likely to show elevated levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:Symptoms and Diagnosis of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin in the body. This condition is typically associated with symptoms such as milk production, decreased libido, and absence of menstruation. However, visual disturbances are not always present, as many cases of hyperprolactinaemia are related to a microprolactinoma.
When diagnosing hyperprolactinaemia, it is important to assess thyroid status as this condition is often associated with hypothyroidism. Thyroxine levels are usually low in individuals with hyperprolactinaemia. Additionally, beta-HCG levels are elevated in pregnancy, so it is important to rule out pregnancy as a potential cause of elevated prolactin levels.
In summary, hyperprolactinaemia is a condition that can present with a variety of symptoms, but is typically characterized by elevated prolactin levels. Diagnosis involves assessing thyroid status and ruling out pregnancy as a potential cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of persistent urinary symptoms. She mentions experiencing leakage whenever she coughs or sneezes, despite regularly performing pelvic floor muscle exercises. The patient expresses her reluctance towards any surgical intervention for this issue. What would be the next suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:If a patient with stress incontinence does not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and refuses surgery, duloxetine may be prescribed as a treatment option. Bladder retraining exercises are not effective for stress incontinence, but may be helpful for urge incontinence. Oxybutynin and tolterodine are medications used to manage urge incontinence, while desmopressin is used for nocturnal enuresis.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old rancher comes in with a small white spot on his right cheek that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. It has now developed a central ulcer. What is the probable type of this lesion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma
A slow-growing lesion on the face with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe is a possible indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. In contrast, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma.
Another skin condition that may be mistaken for basal cell carcinoma is seborrhoeic keratoses. However, seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the smooth surface of basal cell carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe menopausal symptoms and expresses her desire to start HRT. She has no significant medical or surgical history. Her friend used oestrogen patches and she wants to try them. What is the efficacy of oestrogen patch therapy for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone tablets must be given in conjunction with oestrogen patch therapy
Explanation:Progesterone Tablets and Patch Therapy for Hormone Replacement
Progesterone tablets are necessary for women undergoing hormone replacement therapy with an intact uterus. Without them, the risk of uterine cancer is significantly increased. However, for women who have undergone a hysterectomy, oral progesterone is not required. The tablets must be taken in conjunction with the patch therapy for at least 12 days of the cycle.
The patches are designed to be used continuously without a break and are changed every seven days. As the oestradiol is absorbed subcutaneously, there is no significant hepatic first pass metabolism. This method of delivery has the same effects on bone mineral density as tablet therapy. However, the adverse events associated with oestrogen replacement, such as breast cancer, remain the same.
In summary, hormone replacement therapy with progesterone tablets and patch therapy is an effective treatment option for women with an intact uterus. It is important to follow the prescribed regimen to minimize the risk of uterine cancer. Women who have undergone a hysterectomy do not require oral progesterone. The patch therapy is designed for continuous use and has similar effects on bone mineral density as tablet therapy. However, the potential adverse events associated with oestrogen replacement should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with a history of intermittent constipation and diarrhoea and progressive weight loss over the past 3 months. During examination, he appears cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He does not exhibit jaundice and his liver function tests are normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver metastases
Explanation:Liver Metastases: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Liver metastases are a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, with the most frequent primary sites being the bowel and breast. While palpable metastases may not affect liver function, obstruction to the biliary tract or involvement of over half of the liver can lead to impaired function and the presence of ascites. Autopsy studies have shown that 30-70% of cancer patients have liver metastases, with the frequency depending on the primary site. Most liver metastases are multiple and affect both lobes.
When considering a differential diagnosis, cirrhosis can be ruled out as it is the end-stage of chronic liver disease and would typically present with elevated serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Hepatoma is less common than metastases and lymphoma may present with evidence of involvement in other sites, such as lymphadenopathy. Myelofibrosis, which is associated with bone marrow fibrosis and abnormal stem cell appearance in the liver and spleen, may be asymptomatic in its early stages or present with leuko-erythroblastic anemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats. However, it is much less common than liver metastases.
In summary, liver metastases should be considered as a potential cause of nodular hepatomegaly, particularly in patients with a history of cancer. A thorough differential diagnosis should be conducted to rule out other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. She states that she has not experienced any changes in her vision. Upon examining her eyelids, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid edges that are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If these measures are not effective, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.
Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painful area on the eyelid, which settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can encourage drainage.
Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis present with conjunctival erythema, watery/discharging eye, and a gritty sensation. Most cases are self-limiting, but some patients will require topical antibiotics if symptoms have not resolved.
Entropion: This condition is when the margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.
Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, in which case plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling in her left breast. Despite receiving three rounds of antibiotics from her primary care physician over the past four weeks, the erythema and tenderness have not subsided. During the examination, there is noticeable redness and swelling in the breast, and a tender lump can be felt along with swollen lymph nodes in the armpit. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent mammogram
Explanation:Breast Abscess Diagnosis in Older Women
The diagnosis of a breast abscess in older women, particularly those over 70 years old, should be approached with caution as it is a rare occurrence in this age group. If there are additional symptoms such as the presence of a mass or lymphadenopathy, along with the typical signs of erythema and oedema, it is important to consider the possibility of an inflammatory breast cancer. To confirm the diagnosis, a mammogram or ultrasound should be performed, followed by a tissue biopsy. Only after a confirmed diagnosis can appropriate treatment options be considered. It is crucial to be vigilant and thorough in the diagnosis of breast abscesses in older women to ensure that any underlying conditions are identified and treated promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden pain in her right groin. She mentions that she had noticed a swelling in the area on and off for a few years, but it never bothered her before. She denies any nausea, vomiting, changes in bowel habits, or weight loss.
Upon examination, the abdomen appears normal, but there is a tender and irreducible swelling below and to the side of the pubic tubercle.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral hernia
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Femoral Hernia
The patient’s hernia is located in the typical position of a femoral hernia, which is below and to the side of the pubic tubercle. The patient has reported an intermittent swelling that has become irreducible. Based on these symptoms, it is likely that the femoral canal has been blocked by omentum, rather than a loop of bowel becoming trapped. Since the patient has no other concerning signs, it is safe for them to undergo hernia repair on the next available CEPOD list.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of vomiting, blood in stools, and irritability. During the physical examination, the baby's abdomen is found to be tense, and he draws his knees up in response to palpation.
What would be the most suitable course of action for this baby?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgeons
Explanation:Intussusception in Children: Diagnosis and Treatment
Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the intestine slides into another part, causing a blockage. Children with this condition may experience severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools. If left untreated, intussusception can lead to bowel perforation, sepsis, and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to diagnose and treat this condition promptly.
When a child presents with symptoms of intussusception, the most appropriate course of action is to refer them immediately to a paediatric surgical unit. There, doctors will attempt to relieve the intussusception through air reduction, which involves pumping air into the intestine to push the telescoped section back into place. If this method fails, surgery may be necessary to correct the blockage.
Several risk factors can increase a child’s likelihood of developing intussusception, including viral infections and intestinal lymphadenopathy. Therefore, parents should seek medical attention if their child experiences any symptoms of this condition. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, most children with intussusception can make a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. On examination, bibasilar wet pulmonary crackles are noted with mild bilateral lower limb pitting oedema. His jugular vein is slightly distended. An S4 sound is audible on cardiac auscultation. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows evidence of left ventricular (LV) hypertrophy. Chest radiography shows bilateral interstitial oedema without cardiomegaly.
Which one of the following findings is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impaired LV relaxation – increased LV end-diastolic pressure – normal LV end-systolic volume
Explanation:Understanding the Different Types of Left Ventricular Dysfunction in Heart Failure
Left ventricular (LV) dysfunction can result in heart failure, which is a clinical diagnosis that can be caused by systolic or diastolic dysfunction, or both. Diastolic dysfunction is characterized by impaired LV relaxation, resulting in increased LV end-diastolic pressure but normal LV end-systolic volume. This type of dysfunction can be caused by factors such as LV hypertrophy from poorly controlled hypertension. On the other hand, impaired LV contraction results in systolic dysfunction, which is characterized by LV dilation, increased LV end-systolic and end-diastolic volumes, and increased LV end-diastolic pressure. It is important to differentiate between these types of LV dysfunction in order to properly diagnose and manage heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on contraception and opts for the intrauterine system. What is the predominant side effect that she should be informed about during the initial 6 months of having the intrauterine system inserted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irregular bleeding
Explanation:During the initial 6 months after the intrauterine system is inserted, experiencing irregular bleeding is a typical adverse effect. However, over time, the majority of women who use the IUS will experience reduced or absent menstrual periods, which is advantageous for those who experience heavy menstrual bleeding or prefer not to have periods.
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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As an FY2 doctor in the Paediatric Emergency Department, you encounter an 8-month-old girl who has been brought in after experiencing rectal bleeding. According to her parents, she has been suffering from abdominal pain since this morning, drawing her legs up into the fetal position, and has had little appetite, which is unusual for her. She vomited three times and then passed bloody stools, which were described as jelly-like red and slimy. The child has been weaned for the past 2 months and only given baby food. Upon examination, you notice right lower abdominal tenderness, dehydrated mucous membranes, and a vague mass in her right lower abdomen. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Common Causes of Gastrointestinal Issues in Toddlers
Gastrointestinal issues in toddlers can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some common causes and their symptoms:
1. Intussusception: This condition is characterized by slimy or jelly-like red stools, abdominal pain, and a palpable mass or fullness. It is most common in toddlers aged around 9-12 months old and is diagnosed with an ultrasound scan. Treatment usually involves an air enema, but surgery may be required in complicated cases.
2. Campylobacter-related gastroenteritis: This bacterial infection is rare in toddlers and is even more unlikely if the child only consumes baby food.
3. Colon cancer: Colorectal cancer is almost unheard of in this age group.
4. Hirschsprung’s disease: This congenital condition causes bowel obstruction, with the child vomiting and not passing stools. It usually occurs in very young neonates and is diagnosed with a rectal biopsy. Treatment involves surgically removing the affected part of the bowel.
5. Pyloric stenosis: This condition causes forceful projectile vomiting immediately after feeds and usually occurs within the first 4 weeks of birth. It is diagnosed with ultrasound imaging and is treated surgically with a pyloromyotomy.
It is important to seek medical attention if your toddler is experiencing any gastrointestinal symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Johnny, a 5-year-old boy, has been brought to the doctor due to delayed speech development. What factors could increase his likelihood of developing autistic spectrum disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A trinucleotide repeat disorder of the X chromosome
Explanation:Autistic spectrum disorder and learning difficulties have been linked to fragile X syndrome, especially in males, which is a trinucleotide repeat disorder. However, recent guidance has shown that there is no connection between the MMR vaccine and autistic spectrum disorder, contrary to what the media may suggest. Additionally, a higher risk of autistic spectrum disorder has been associated with low birth weight, not high birth weight, and there is no evidence to support a link between childhood obesity and autistic spectrum disorder. It is important to note that males have a significantly higher risk of developing autistic spectrum disorder compared to females, with a male to female ratio of approximately 4:1.
Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.
Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of painless rectal bleeding that has been occurring for the past 5 days. The patient reports experiencing bright red bleeding during bowel movements, which appears as streaks on the toilet paper and in the toilet bowl. The blood is not mixed in with the stool. This has been happening every time he has a bowel movement since the symptoms began. He does not feel any pain during these episodes, but he does experience some itching and irritation around the anal area afterwards. He is otherwise healthy, without changes in bowel habits or weight loss.
During a rectal examination, the doctor observes a fleshy protrusion at the 7 o'clock position that appears when the patient strains but recedes into the anus when he stops straining.
Which of the following management options would be appropriate in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Injection sclerotherapy
Explanation:Understanding Haemorrhoids and Treatment Options
Haemorrhoids, also known as piles, are swollen vascular mucosal cushions within the anal canal that can cause discomfort and pain. They are more common with advancing age and can be associated with pregnancy, constipation, increased intra-abdominal pressure, low-fibre diet, and obesity. Haemorrhoids can be classified by the degree of prolapse through the anus, with grade 1 being the mildest and grade 4 being the most severe.
Patients with haemorrhoids may present with painless rectal bleeding, anal itching and irritation, rectal fullness or discomfort, and soiling. Pain is not a significant feature unless the haemorrhoid becomes strangulated or thrombosed. It is important to exclude ‘red flag’ symptoms such as change in bowel habit, weight loss, iron deficiency anaemia, or unexplained abdominal pain, especially in patients over 40.
Conservative treatment options for haemorrhoids include lifestyle changes such as increasing fluid and fibre intake, managing constipation, anal hygiene advice, and simple analgesia. If conservative treatment fails, secondary care treatment options include rubber band ligation, injection sclerotherapy, photocoagulation, diathermy, haemorrhoidectomy, and haemorrhoid artery ligation. Referral to specialists or admission may be necessary for acutely thrombosed haemorrhoids or perianal haematoma, associated perianal sepsis, large grade 3 or 4 haemorrhoids, and persistent or worsening symptoms despite conservative management.
Other treatment options such as mebendazole, topical lidocaine ointment, incision and drainage, and sphincterotomy are not indicated for haemorrhoids. Mebendazole is used to treat threadworms, while topical lidocaine ointment is useful for anal fissures. Incision and drainage are indicated for perianal abscesses, and sphincterotomy is used to manage chronic or recurrent anal fissures.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for haemorrhoids is essential for effective management and improved quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A young couple attends for genetic counselling. They are considering having a child and wish to discuss pre-implantation genetic screening. The husband of the couple has attenuated familial adenomatous polyposis (AFAP) and has undergone prophylactic colectomy as a young adult. The husband’s mother also had the condition. The wife of the couple has no family history of cancer or colon polyps.
What counselling should they be given around the risk of their future child inheriting AFAP?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 2
Explanation:Understanding the Probability of Inheriting Autosomal Conditions
Autosomal conditions are genetic disorders that are caused by mutations in genes located on autosomes, which are non-sex chromosomes. The probability of inheriting an autosomal condition depends on the specific inheritance pattern of the disorder. Here are some key points to keep in mind:
Attenuated familial adenomatous polyposis (AFAP) is an autosomal dominant condition. If one parent has the AFAP gene, their children have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene.
If both parents are carriers of an autosomal recessive condition, their children have a 25% chance of inheriting two copies of the mutated gene and developing the disorder.
Gender-dependent transmission is only applicable to X-linked or Y-linked conditions, not autosomal conditions.
It’s important to note that genetic testing can provide more accurate information about an individual’s risk of inheriting an autosomal condition. However, in some cases, the risk may be unknown until testing is performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 20
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What advice would you give Mrs Rose regarding her 3-year-old toddler who she is concerned has 'flat feet'? She is anxious and distressed and has been advised that her child needs an early operation and expensive orthotics to reverse the condition. However, upon examination, you observe that the toddler is a happy child with full mobility and no pain. The foot only appears flat when standing, but the arch reconstitutes when the child is toe walking or hanging their foot.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure her that in asymptomatic patients, the arch will normally develop with age and resolve spontaneously
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Pes Planovalgus
Pes planovalgus, also known as flat foot, is a common condition characterized by a decrease in the medial longitudinal arch with a valgus hindfoot and forefoot abduction with weight-bearing. While most cases resolve spontaneously, some individuals may experience arch or pretibial pain. However, asymptomatic patients can be reassured that the arch will normally develop with age.
Non-operative management is typically recommended, with symptomatic patients finding relief with athletic heels or orthotics such as heel cups. Surgical intervention, such as Achilles tendon or gastrocnemius fascia lengthening or calcaneal lengthening osteotomy, is reserved for chronic, painful cases that have failed non-operative therapy. Bed rest and partial weight-bearing are not indicated in the treatment of pes planovalgus.
Overall, understanding and managing pes planovalgus involves proper diagnosis, reassurance for asymptomatic patients, and appropriate non-operative or surgical intervention for symptomatic cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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