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  • Question 1 - A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on his forearms for the past 2 weeks. Loratadine has provided some relief for the itch, and occasionally the rash disappears within a few hours. However, in the last day, the rash has spread to his back and loratadine is no longer effective. The patient has no known allergies or triggers and is feeling well otherwise. What should be the next course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Dermatology referral

      Correct Answer: Trial of an oral corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      It is likely that the patient is experiencing a severe urticarial rash, which is a common condition that doesn’t require a dermatology appointment or further investigations at this stage. The patient is stable and not showing signs of anaphylaxis. To investigate further, a symptom diary would be sufficient, especially with exposure to different work environments as an archaeologist. The first-line treatment would be a non-sedating antihistamine such as loratadine or cetirizine. However, if the urticaria is severe, as in this case, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary.

      Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his hypertension....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his hypertension. Despite being on atenolol, amlodipine, and ramipril, his blood pressure consistently reads above 170/100 mmHg. During examination, he was found to have grade II hypertensive retinopathy. His test results show sodium levels at 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium at 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea at 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine at 100 mol/L (60-110), glucose at 7.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and HbA1c at 53 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7% (3.8-6.4). Additionally, his ECG revealed left ventricular hypertrophy. What potential diagnosis should be considered as a cause of his resistant hypertension?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      This patient is experiencing resistant hypertension and has a low potassium concentration despite being on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), which should have increased their potassium levels. These symptoms are highly suggestive of primary hyperaldosteronism, which can be caused by either an adrenal adenoma (Conn syndrome) or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, doctors typically look for an elevated aldosterone:renin ratio, which is usually above 1000. This condition can be challenging to diagnose, but it is essential to do so as it can lead to severe complications if left untreated. By identifying the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms, doctors can develop an effective treatment plan to manage their hypertension and potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      969.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her recent smear test...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her recent smear test results. The report indicates 'mild dyskaryosis', but HPV triage shows that she is 'HPV negative'. She is anxious about the possibility of needing treatment for the dyskaryosis. What is the appropriate follow-up plan in this case?

      Your Answer: She should be referred for colposcopy

      Correct Answer: She should have a cervical smear in 3 years time

      Explanation:

      HPV Triage in NHS Cervical Cancer Screening Programme

      HPV triage is a new addition to the NHS cervical cancer screening programme. It involves testing cytology samples of women with borderline changes or mild dyskaryosis for high-risk HPV types that are linked to cervical cancer development. The aim is to refer only those who need further investigation and treatment, as low-grade abnormalities often resolve on their own.

      If a woman tests negative for high-risk HPV, she is simply returned to routine screening recall. However, if she tests positive, she is referred for colposcopy. HPV testing is also used as a ‘test of cure’ for women who have been treated for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and have returned for follow-up cytology. Those who are HPV negative are returned to 3 yearly recall. This new approach ensures that women receive the appropriate level of care and reduces unnecessary referrals for colposcopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man residing in assisted living is brought in by his caregiver...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man residing in assisted living is brought in by his caregiver for a routine health check-up. His recent blood tests, including liver function tests, have all returned normal. The results are as follows:

      - Bilirubin: 10 umol/l (normal range: 3 - 17 umol/l)
      - Alanine transferase (ALT): 35 iu/l (normal range: 3 - 40 iu/l)
      - Aspartate transaminase (AST): 25 iu/l (normal range: 3 - 30 iu/l)
      - Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 90 umol/l (normal range: 30 - 100 umol/l)
      - Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT): 50 u/l (normal range: 8 - 60 u/l)
      - Total protein: 70 g/l (normal range: 60 - 80 g/l)

      During the consultation, the patient reveals that he consumes 62 units of alcohol per week. You discuss the possibility of referring him for alcohol dependence treatment and community detoxification.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action now?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient for a FibroScan (transient elastography)

      Explanation:

      Patients who consume more than 50 units of alcohol per week (males) or more than 35 units per week (females) should be referred for an ELF test or FibroScan, even if their liver function tests are normal, according to current NICE CKS guidance. This is because patients may have significant cirrhosis despite normal liver function tests, and FibroScan is the most accurate method for screening for cirrhosis.

      While monitoring liver function is important, the next appropriate step would be to assess using a FibroScan, as patients can have advanced cirrhosis with normal liver function tests. Waiting 2 or 4 years to repeat liver function tests is too long, as the disease may progress significantly in the meantime.

      Liver ultrasound may be helpful, but it is not sufficient for detecting cirrhosis in all cases. Ultrasound screening for liver cirrhosis alone is not recommended, as patients may have cirrhosis without evidence on liver ultrasound.

      Taking no further action is not appropriate, given the potential for liver disease despite normal liver function tests.

      Alcoholic liver disease is a range of conditions that includes alcoholic fatty liver disease, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis. When investigating this disease, gamma-GT levels are typically elevated, and a ratio of AST:ALT greater than 3 strongly suggests acute alcoholic hepatitis. In terms of management, glucocorticoids like prednisolone are often used during acute episodes of alcoholic hepatitis. Maddrey’s discriminant function is used to determine who would benefit from glucocorticoid therapy, and pentoxyphylline may also be used. The STOPAH study compared the effectiveness of pentoxyphylline and prednisolone and found that prednisolone improved survival at 28 days, while pentoxyphylline did not improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      725.8
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  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old female with ulcerative colitis is discovered to have anti-smooth muscle antibodies.

    What...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female with ulcerative colitis is discovered to have anti-smooth muscle antibodies.

      What is the most suitable subsequent test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Small bowel biopsy

      Correct Answer: Order an urgent endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Next Investigation for Women with Suspected Autoimmune Hepatitis

      The most appropriate next investigation for this woman is to conduct liver function tests (LFTs) to assess if there are any features of autoimmune hepatitis. This includes checking for raised levels of bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), and alkaline phosphatase. If any of these levels are elevated, further diagnostic imaging or a liver biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis.

      Autoimmune hepatitis is often seen in individuals with other autoimmune disorders such as ulcerative colitis. Therefore, it is important to conduct these tests to determine the underlying cause of the woman’s symptoms and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which statement accurately describes chest pain? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes chest pain?

      Your Answer: The pain of pericarditis is made worse by sitting up

      Correct Answer: Pleuritic pain is sharp and localised and aggravated by coughing

      Explanation:

      Pain and Innervation in the Diaphragm, Lungs, and Pericardium

      The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which only supplies the central portion of the muscle. Therefore, pain originating in the outer diaphragm will not be referred to the tip of the shoulder. Additionally, the lung parenchyma and visceral pleura are insensitive to pain, meaning that any discomfort felt in these areas is likely due to surrounding structures.

      Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart, can cause chest pain. However, this pain is typically relieved by sitting forward. This is because the pericardium is attached to the diaphragm and sternum, and sitting forward can reduce pressure on these structures, alleviating the pain. Understanding the innervation and sensitivity of these structures can aid in the diagnosis and management of chest pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      99.8
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  • Question 7 - You are reviewing a patient who presented to a colleague about eight weeks...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient who presented to a colleague about eight weeks ago. He is a 65-year-old male with mild to moderate symptoms of nasal congestion and persistent feeling of a blocked nose. He reports ongoing problems of a similar nature. He informs you that as well as the above he gets intermittent clear nasal discharge which can alternate between nostrils and he has had periods of nasal and ocular 'itch'.
      At his last appointment he was prescribed a daily non-sedating antihistamine which he has been using regularly. He was also given advice on nasal douching. Despite these measures he is still suffering from persistent nasal symptoms. He has heard that steroid medication can be used to treat his symptoms and asks for a prescription.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next pharmacological option to add in to his treatment in trying to manage his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Intranasal corticosteroid spray (for example, fluticasone propionate 100 mcgs each nostril once daily)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Guidelines for Allergic and Non-Allergic Rhinitis

      Guidelines for the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis recommend the use of oral non-sedating antihistamines, topical nasal corticosteroids or antihistamines, and anti-inflammatory eye drops either in isolation or in combination. For mild symptoms, oral and/or topical antihistamines are recommended, with regular use being more effective than as-required use. Sedating antihistamines should be avoided due to their negative effects on academic and work performance.

      In moderate to severe symptoms, intranasal corticosteroids are the treatment of choice if antihistamine treatment has been ineffective. Different preparations have different degrees of systemic absorption, with mometasone and fluticasone having negligible systemic absorption. Intranasal corticosteroids have an onset of action of six to eight hours after the first dose, but regular use for at least two weeks may be needed to see the maximal effects.

      If treatment with the above doesn’t improve things, it is important to review technique and compliance and increase the dosage where appropriate. Short courses of oral corticosteroids may be used to gain control in severe nasal blockage or if the patient has a very important upcoming event. They should be used in conjunction with intranasal corticosteroids, and a burst of prednisolone at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg/day for 5-10 days can be used.

      In addition to the above, watery rhinorrhoea may respond to topical ipratropium, and catarrh in those with co-existent asthma may be helped by a leukotriene receptor antagonist. These guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis, with a range of options available depending on the severity of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      128.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An overweight 35-year-old woman presents with a short history of right upper-quadrant pain,...

    Correct

    • An overweight 35-year-old woman presents with a short history of right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. There is no previous history of illness and, apart from the jaundice, she has no signs of chronic liver disease.
      Initial investigations are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 115 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 105 fl 80–100fl
      Bilirubin 162 µmol/l 5-26 µmol/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 145 U/l 5–34 U/l
      Alanine transaminase (ALT) 40 U/l < 55 U/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 126 U/l 30–130 U/l
      Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT) 200 U/l 7–33 U/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Acute Right Upper-Quadrant Pain, Fever, and Jaundice: A Differential Diagnosis

      When a patient presents with acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, several conditions may be responsible. A differential diagnosis can help narrow down the possible causes based on the patient’s symptoms and laboratory results. Here are some potential conditions to consider:

      Alcoholic Hepatitis
      If the patient has a raised ALT or AST, alcoholic hepatitis may be the cause. An AST:ALT ratio >2 is typical of alcoholic liver disease or cirrhosis, and a macrocytosis and raised GGT further support this diagnosis.

      Autoimmune Hepatitis
      A short history of right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice may suggest autoimmune hepatitis. However, a raised AST:ALT ratio makes alcoholic liver disease more likely.

      Carcinoma of the Head of the Pancreas
      Painless obstructive jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools are typical of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. As the tumor grows, it may cause epigastric pain that radiates to the back. However, this condition should not present with a fever.

      Cholecystitis
      Cholecystitis can cause similar symptoms, but LFTs would show a different pattern, typically with a raised ALP and GGT and raised bilirubin if the patient is jaundiced. A normal ALP makes cholecystitis less likely.

      Hepatitis A Infection
      Hepatitis A infection can also cause acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. However, significantly raised ALT and AST levels are typical of this condition because the virus replicates within hepatocytes.

      In summary, a differential diagnosis can help identify the possible causes of acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. Laboratory results, such as AST:ALT ratio, macrocytosis, and GGT levels, can provide additional clues to narrow down the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      81.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following consultation models recommends discovering the motive for the patient's...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following consultation models recommends discovering the motive for the patient's visit in relation to thoughts, worries, and anticipations?

      Your Answer: Tuckett

      Correct Answer: Pendleton

      Explanation:

      The Calgary-Cambridge model also includes aspects of investigating concepts, worries, and anticipations.

      Consultation Models

      The following are various consultation models that healthcare professionals can use to guide their interactions with patients. Each model has its own unique approach and set of steps to follow. The Calgary-Cambridge observation guide focuses on initiating the session, gathering information, building the relationship, giving information, explaining and planning, and closing the session. The Stewart patient-centered clinical method emphasizes exploring both the disease and the illness experience, understanding the whole person, finding common ground, incorporating prevention and health promotion, enhancing the doctor-patient relationship, and being realistic with time and resources. The Pendleton model involves defining the reason for the patient’s attendance, considering other problems, choosing an appropriate action for each problem, achieving a shared understanding of the problems with the patient, involving the patient in the management and encouraging them to accept appropriate responsibility, using time and resources appropriately, and establishing or maintaining a relationship with the patient. The Fraser model includes interviewing and history-taking, physical examination, diagnosis and problem-solving, patient management, relating to patients, anticipatory care, and record-keeping. The Neighbour model, called the Inner Consultation, includes connecting, summarizing, handing over, safety netting, and housekeeping. Finally, the Tuckett model emphasizes that the consultation is a meeting between two experts, doctors are experts in medicine, patients are experts in their own illnesses, shared understanding is the aim, doctors should seek to understand the patient’s beliefs, and doctors should address explanations in terms of the patient’s belief system. By using these models, healthcare professionals can provide effective and patient-centered care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      23
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  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General Hospital dies suddenly. On reviewing her regular medications, you note that she was taking aspirin, a statin and three antihypertensive agents. She had also been receiving erythropoietin injections.
      What is the most likely cause of sudden death in this patient?

      Your Answer: Gastrointestinal (GI) haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Cardiovascular disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Sudden Death in Patients Undergoing Renal Dialysis

      Patients undergoing renal dialysis are at a high risk of cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Chronic renal failure leads to several risk factors, such as abnormal lipid levels and hypertension, that contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Statins and antihypertensive medications are commonly prescribed to manage these risk factors. Aspirin may also be prescribed to prevent vascular events, although it increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Although patients on dialysis are also at an increased risk of malignancies and pulmonary embolism, sudden death due to these causes is less common than sudden death due to cardiovascular failure. Occult malignancy and overwhelming sepsis are usually preceded by symptoms of illness, whereas sudden death is unexpected. Pulmonary embolism may occur in patients with multiple risk factors, but cardiovascular disease is a more likely cause of death in this context.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 41-year-old man presents to the surgery for the second time in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man presents to the surgery for the second time in the past month complaining of a severe sore throat. He has been prescribed a course of co-amoxiclav by your partner for suspected tonsillitis, but tells you this has had no impact on his symptoms. According to his records he has always had large tonsils and has been seen at the surgery for a number of episodes of tonsillitis over the past few years.

      On examination his temperature is 37.7°C, pulse is 70 bpm and regular, BP is 122/82 mmHg. There is some cervical lymphadenopathy. There is a large erythematous nodule on the right hand side of the tonsillar bed.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to ENT

      Correct Answer: Non-urgent referral for tonsillectomy

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Tonsillar Enlargement: A Red Flag for Tonsillar Lymphoma

      Unilateral tonsillar enlargement is a concerning symptom that may indicate tonsillar lymphoma. Delaying referral to an ENT specialist for biopsy can be detrimental to the patient’s health. Antibiotic therapy may not be effective in treating malignancy, and failure to respond to antibiotics may indicate underlying cancer. Patients with a history of smoking and alcohol consumption are at higher risk of tonsillar cancer, while those with recurrent tonsillitis may be more prone to tonsillar lymphoma.

      Other diagnostic options, such as full blood count and viscosity, may not be abnormal in early lymphoma, and non-urgent referral can cause a delay of several weeks before review by an ENT specialist. Therefore, it is crucial to promptly refer patients with unilateral tonsillar enlargement to an ENT specialist for further evaluation.

      The British Journal of General Practice (BJGP) published an article in November 2014 that provides a helpful table outlining the differences between acute tonsillitis and oropharyngeal carcinoma. This information can aid in the accurate diagnosis of tonsillar enlargement and prevent misdiagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      365.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old man has been experiencing frequent headaches for 6 weeks.
    Select from the...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man has been experiencing frequent headaches for 6 weeks.
      Select from the list the single red-flag feature that should prompt further referral.

      Your Answer: Worsening memory

      Explanation:

      Red Flags for Headaches: When to Consider Further Investigation or Referral

      According to NICE (Headaches, CG 150, September 2012), certain features in patients presenting with headaches should prompt further investigation or referral. These include worsening headache with fever, sudden-onset headache reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes, new-onset neurological deficit or cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, impaired level of consciousness, recent head trauma, headache triggered by certain activities, symptoms suggestive of certain conditions, compromised immunity, history of malignancy, and vomiting without an obvious cause. Memory loss falls under the category of new-onset cognitive dysfunction, while depression can be managed in general practice. Failure to find relief from simple analgesics may indicate medication-overuse headaches, and neck pain radiating to the neck may be indicative of tension headaches that interfere with sleep. It is important to recognize these red flags and consider further investigation or referral when appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      73.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 23-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment. She has recently become sexually active...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment. She has recently become sexually active and wants to start using long term contraception as she and her partner do not plan on having children anytime soon. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer a decade ago, and the patient, along with her family, underwent testing at that time, revealing that she has a BRCA1 mutation.

      As per the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH), what is the safest contraception method?

      Your Answer: Mirena coil

      Correct Answer: Copper coil

      Explanation:

      If a woman has a suspected or personal history of breast cancer or a confirmed BRCA mutation, the safest form of contraception for her is the copper coil. The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use (UKMEC) provides guidelines for the choice of contraception, grading non-barrier contraceptives on a scale of 1-4 based on a woman’s personal circumstances. Contraceptive methods that fall under category 1 or 2 are generally considered safe for use in primary care. In this case, all forms of contraception except the combined pill (category 3) can be offered, with the copper coil being the safest option as it falls under category 1.

      Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview

      Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).

      Barrier methods, such as condoms, act as a physical barrier and can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). However, their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people. Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation but increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and certain types of cancer. The progesterone-only pill thickens cervical mucous, but irregular bleeding is a common side effect.

      LARCs include implantable contraceptives, injectable contraceptives, and intrauterine devices (IUDs). The implantable contraceptive and injectable contraceptive both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous, with the implant lasting up to three years and the injection lasting 12 weeks. The IUD decreases sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system (IUS) prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous, with irregular bleeding being a common side effect.

      In summary, understanding the different types of contraception available and their methods of action can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman says she is currently struggling to cope at work and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman says she is currently struggling to cope at work and feels she needs some time off work. She has become depressed but denies any suicidal thoughts or intent. She feels anxious, shaky and nauseous most mornings. She admits to drinking about 40 - 50 units of alcohol per week. She is aware that this is too much but has not connected it to her current problems.
      What is the most appropriate response to this patient’s situation?

      Your Answer: Provide him with information about specialist alcohol services

      Explanation:

      Providing Support for Alcohol Dependence: A Patient-Centered Approach

      When working with a patient who displays signs of alcohol dependence, it is important to approach the situation with empathy and understanding. Referral to specialist alcohol services is recommended for those with moderate or severe dependence, and screening with an AUDIT or AUDIT-C questionnaire can help quantify the level of dependence. It is not helpful to use the threat of job loss as a means of motivating the patient to stop drinking, and offering a Statement of Fitness for Work should not be conditional on immediate cessation of alcohol use. Prescribing fluoxetine may not be effective while alcohol use is ongoing, and making judgemental statements about the patient’s behavior is not productive. Instead, a patient-centered approach that focuses on support and understanding can help the patient address their underlying issues with alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      97.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She tells you she is going to attend a carbohydrate counting course. She asks you what that involves.
      Select from this list the single correct statement about carbohydrate counting.

      Your Answer: It means eating foods with a low glycaemic index

      Correct Answer: It is suitable for those who inject insulin with each meal

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrate Counting for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Management

      Carbohydrate counting is a recommended method for managing blood glucose levels in adults with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. It involves counting the grams of carbohydrates in a meal and matching it with an individual’s insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio to determine the necessary insulin dose. This method is particularly useful for those who inject insulin with each meal or use an insulin pump. While foods with a low glycaemic index can help manage glucose levels in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, there is less evidence for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Carbohydrate counting doesn’t mean total freedom to eat whatever one wishes, as food excesses are unhealthy for anyone. However, most ready meals indicate the amount of carbohydrate on the food label, making carbohydrate counting easier. It is important for adult patients with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus to receive advice on issues beyond blood glucose control, such as weight control and cardiovascular risk management, and to increase the amount of fiber in their diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for routine blood tests. She is currently following a low-phosphate diet and taking calcitriol. The results are as follows:

      Hb 130 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 190 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 5 mg/L (< 5)
      Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 2.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 90 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.55 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 50 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the most appropriate course of action to address these blood test results?

      Your Answer: Alfacalcidol

      Correct Answer: Sevelamer

      Explanation:

      Managing Mineral Bone Disease in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) leads to low vitamin D and high phosphate levels due to the kidneys’ inability to perform their normal functions. This results in osteomalacia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and low calcium levels. To manage mineral bone disease in CKD, the aim is to reduce phosphate and parathyroid hormone levels.

      Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management, followed by the use of phosphate binders. Aluminium-based binders are less commonly used now, and calcium-based binders may cause hypercalcemia and vascular calcification. Sevelamer, a non-calcium based binder, is increasingly used as it binds to dietary phosphate and prevents its absorption. It also has other beneficial effects, such as reducing uric acid levels and improving lipid profiles in patients with CKD.

      In some cases, vitamin D supplementation with alfacalcidol or calcitriol may be necessary. Parathyroidectomy may also be needed to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Proper management of mineral bone disease in CKD is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      97.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What are the blood tests that women in the UK receive as part...

    Incorrect

    • What are the blood tests that women in the UK receive as part of their routine antenatal screening program?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Correct Answer: Strep B

      Explanation:

      Pathogens and Pregnancy: What You Need to Know

      Although various pathogens can colonize and infect the vagina during pregnancy, only syphilis is routinely tested for. Adequate treatment of syphilis before 18 weeks of pregnancy can prevent infection of the fetus, while treatment after 18 weeks can cure an infected fetus. Failure to treat syphilis can result in congenital syphilis, which can have long-term consequences.

      herpesvirus is not routinely screened for during pregnancy, but if a woman contracts genital herpes for the first time during the first trimester, there is a small risk of miscarriage. If first infection occurs later in the pregnancy, a caesarean section may be offered to prevent the baby from coming into contact with active sores. The risk of passing on a newly caught infection to the baby during vaginal birth is about 4 in 10, but neonatal herpes is very rare in the UK, affecting only 1-2 in every 100,000 babies born.

      Strep B is not routinely tested for during pregnancy, but about one in five pregnant women in the UK carry group B Streptococci bacteria. While most pregnant women who carry these bacteria have healthy babies, there is a small risk that infection can pass to the baby during childbirth. Group B Strep infection in newborn babies can cause serious complications that can be life-threatening, and even with the best medical care, one in 10 babies diagnosed with early-onset infection will die.

      HPV and gonorrhea are not routinely tested for during pregnancy. It is important for pregnant women to discuss any concerns about sexually transmitted infections with their healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcomes for themselves and their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      26.4
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman is known to have diverticular disease. She has experienced pain...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is known to have diverticular disease. She has experienced pain in the left iliac fossa intermittently in the past put now the pain is more persistent and more severe. She is tender in the left iliac fossa but there is no guarding or rebound tenderness and a mass is not felt. Her temperature is 38oC.
      Select from the list the single most useful drug in these circumstances.

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Management of Diverticulitis in Primary Care

      Diverticulitis is a common condition that can be managed in primary care, provided there are no complications. If the patient is not dehydrated, experiencing severe bleeding, or showing signs of perforation, abscess or fistula formation, or significant comorbidity, they can be treated at home.

      The first step in treatment is to prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics that cover anaerobes and Gram-negative rods. Co-amoxiclav or a combination of ciprofloxacin and metronidazole (if allergic to penicillin) are good options. The course of antibiotics should last for at least 7 days.

      If the patient’s symptoms worsen or persist beyond 48 hours, hospital admission may be necessary. However, with proper management and monitoring, most cases of diverticulitis can be successfully treated in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      110.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 44-year-old woman presents with sudden onset weakness and numbness in her legs....

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman presents with sudden onset weakness and numbness in her legs. She has a history of treated hypertension and occasional cigarette smoking. Her mother passed away in her early forties due to a heart problem. On examination, her cranial nerves and upper limbs appear normal. However, there is increased tone in her legs bilaterally, with brisk reflexes and up-going plantars. She has reduced power to 3/5 in all modalities below the hips and has lost pain and light touch sensation to the waist. Vibration and joint-position sense are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anterior Cord Syndrome: Causes and Effects

      Anterior cord syndrome occurs when the blood supply to the anterior portion of the spinal cord is interrupted. This portion of the spinal cord is supplied by the anterior spinal artery, which receives branches from the aorta. Therefore, lesions within the aorta, such as aneurysm or atherosclerosis, are the most common causes of anterior cord syndrome. Other causes include vasculitis, polycythemia, sickle cell disease, decompression sickness, cocaine use, and collagen and elastin disorders.

      Anterior spinal artery thrombosis affects the corticospinal tracts and spinothalamic tracts, which are responsible for motor neurons and pain/temperature sensation. These tracts are located at the front of the spine. Posterior columns, which carry vibration and joint-position sense, are not affected. As a spinal lesion, anterior cord syndrome is purely upper motor neuronal, resulting in brisk reflexes and up-going plantars.

      In contrast, other conditions that affect both upper and lower motor neurons will produce a combination of up-going plantars with absent knee jerks. Understanding the causes and effects of anterior cord syndrome can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      115.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A seven-year-old boy comes to the GP with his mother, who reports a...

    Correct

    • A seven-year-old boy comes to the GP with his mother, who reports a persistent eczema patch on his right cheek that has worsened despite his regular use of emollient and topical hydrocortisone treatment. The patch has become excruciatingly painful overnight and has spread to his chin. The boy has had eczema since he was a baby but is otherwise healthy.

      During the examination, the GP observes a dry, reddish skin patch on the right cheek and a larger, more inflamed patch on the left that extends to the chin. The area is warm and tender to the touch. The patient's vital signs are normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Same-day referral to paediatrics

      Explanation:

      When a child presents with rapidly worsening and painful eczema that is not responding to usual treatment, it may be an early sign of eczema herpeticum. This is a medical emergency that requires urgent assessment and treatment with antivirals to prevent systemic complications. Therefore, the most appropriate action is same-day referral to paediatrics. Oral aciclovir, oral flucloxacillin, and topical clobetasol are not the most appropriate actions in this case. Mild cases may respond to oral antivirals, but a thorough assessment is necessary, and IV antiviral treatment may be required for facial involvement. Definitive treatment for eczema herpeticum is antivirals, not antibiotics or topical steroids.

      Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children who have atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The affected area usually shows monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions with a diameter of 1-3 mm.

      Due to its life-threatening potential, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted for intravenous aciclovir treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      113.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of impetigo on his chin. He has a history of heart disease and recently underwent a cardiac procedure. After seven days of treatment, there has been no improvement in his symptoms. On examination, a persistent small, crusted area is noted on the right side of his chin. While waiting for swab results, what is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Topical mupirocin

      Explanation:

      In light of the recent hospitalization and the ineffectiveness of fusidic acid, it is important to consider the possibility of MRSA. The most suitable treatment option in this case would be topical mupirocin.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During a routine cranial nerve examination of a different patient, the following results...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine cranial nerve examination of a different patient, the following results were obtained:

      Rinne's test: Air conduction > bone conduction in both ears
      Weber's test: Localises to the left side

      What do these test results indicate?

      Your Answer: Right sensorineural deafness

      Correct Answer: Left sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      If there is a sensorineural issue during Weber’s test, the sound will be perceived on the healthy side (right), suggesting a problem on the opposite side (left).

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents to you seeking advice on...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents to you seeking advice on the pneumococcal vaccination. As per the current NICE CKS guidance, what would be your recommendation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Advise the patient she needs the pneumococcal vaccination every 5-years

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that sickle cell patients require the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years, as per current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, advising them that they do not need this vaccination would be incorrect. This is because sickle cell patients, along with those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, and chronic renal disease, are likely to experience a rapid decline in antibody concentration. In contrast, patients with conditions such as chronic respiratory disease or diabetes mellitus may only require vaccination once in their lifetime.

      Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.

      In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the correct statement regarding the management of thyrotoxicosis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the correct statement regarding the management of thyrotoxicosis?

      Your Answer: Surgical treatment should be considered for patients with large goitres

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism: Medications, Radio-Iodine, and Surgery

      Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone, leading to symptoms such as weight loss, tremors, and tachycardia. Carbimazole and propylthiouracil are medications used to treat hyperthyroidism, but they require monitoring and should be initiated under specialist advice. A β-blocker may also be used to relieve adrenergic symptoms. Treatment is typically on a titration-block or block-and-replace regime, with a remission rate of about 50% after 6-18 months of treatment.

      Radio-iodine is another treatment option for hyperthyroidism, particularly for toxic nodular hyperthyroidism or when medical treatment is not effective. However, it is contraindicated in thyroid eye disease and pregnancy, and can lead to hypothyroidism in 80% of patients. There is no increased risk of cancer from radio-iodine treatment.

      Surgical treatment by total or near-total thyroidectomy may be necessary for recurrent hyperthyroidism after drug treatment, compression symptoms from a large toxic multinodular goitre, potentially malignant thyroid nodules, or in certain cases of pregnancy or active eye disease.

      Overall, treatment options for hyperthyroidism should be carefully considered and discussed with a specialist to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You are presented with a 63-year-old female patient who complains of a red...

    Correct

    • You are presented with a 63-year-old female patient who complains of a red eye that she noticed this morning. She reports no pain or discomfort and no changes to her vision. She has been experiencing a cough for the past week but is improving. She is generally healthy and doesn't take any regular medications. Upon examination, you observe a well-defined area of redness in her left eye. Her pupils and visual acuity are normal, and staining the eye reveals no abnormalities.

      What would be an appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Reassurance and blood pressure check

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with a Subconjunctival haemorrhage, which is characterised by a distinct area of bleeding in one eye, it is important to provide reassurance and check their blood pressure. This condition is often caused by coughing, constipation, or high blood pressure. Treatment may involve using lubricating eye drops for dry eyes, while infective conjunctivitis can be treated with options 3 and 4. Patients with conjunctivitis typically experience itchy eyes.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhages occur when blood vessels in the subconjunctival space bleed. These vessels typically supply the conjunctiva or episclera. Trauma is the most common cause, followed by spontaneous idiopathic cases, Valsalva manoeuvres, and several systemic diseases. While subconjunctival haemorrhages can look alarming, they are rarely an indicator of anything serious. They are more common in women than men, and the risk increases with age. Newborns are also more susceptible. The incidence of both traumatic and non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 2.6%.

      Risk factors for subconjunctival haemorrhages include trauma, contact lens usage, idiopathic causes, Valsalva manoeuvres, hypertension, bleeding disorders, certain drugs, diabetes, arterial disease, and hyperlipidaemia. Symptoms include a red eye, usually unilateral, and mild irritation. Signs include a flat, red patch on the conjunctiva with well-defined edges and normal conjunctiva surrounding it. The patch’s size can vary depending on the size of the bleed and can involve the whole conjunctiva. Traumatic haemorrhages are most common in the temporal region, with the inferior conjunctiva as the next most commonly affected area. Vision should be normal, including acuity, visual fields, and range of eye movements. On examination, the fundus should be normal.

      The diagnosis of a subconjunctival haemorrhage is clinical. If there is no obvious traumatic cause, check the patient’s blood pressure. If raised, refer the patient appropriately. If the patient is taking warfarin, check the INR. If raised, refer for appropriate adjustments to the dose to bring the INR back into the target range. If you cannot see the whole border of the haemorrhage, it may be associated with an intracranial bleed or an orbital roof fracture. Further appropriate investigations should then be done, including a full cranial nerve exam looking for neurological signs as well as a CT head, after discussion with a senior. Recurrent or spontaneous, bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages warrant investigations for bleeding disorders or other pathology.

      Reassure the patient that subconjunctival haemorrhages are a benign condition that will resolve on their own in 2 to 3 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 68-year-old man has metastatic prostate cancer. Because he is now experiencing excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has metastatic prostate cancer. Because he is now experiencing excessive fatigue, some routine blood tests are performed.
      Which of the following findings would raise the most concern?

      Your Answer: Potassium 5.0 mmol/l

      Correct Answer: Calcium 3.42 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Test Results: A Case Study of Hypercalcaemia

      The patient’s blood test results show a serum calcium concentration of 3.42 mmol/l, indicating hypercalcaemia most likely caused by cancer. This constitutes an emergency, and the patient should be immediately offered admission to the hospital. Intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates are the usual management for hypercalcaemia. The other blood test results, including alanine aminotransferase, potassium, sodium, and urea, are all within normal limits or near the upper end of the reference range and are not a cause for concern. This case study highlights the importance of recognizing significant abnormalities in blood test results, especially in emergency situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in...

    Incorrect

    • A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in a surveyed population. Is it accurate to say that the disease is more fatal in this age group?

      Your Answer: There were 140% more fatalities from the disease in this population compared to the reference population

      Correct Answer: There were 40% more fatalities from the disease in this population compared to the reference population

      Explanation:

      There were a higher number of deaths in the sample population than what was anticipated.

      Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio

      The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.

      An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man developed episodes of dizziness, tinnitus and mild left-sided hearing loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man developed episodes of dizziness, tinnitus and mild left-sided hearing loss. The symptoms presented over several months and were slowly progressive. Neurological examination and otoscopy were normal. Audiometry revealed a mild degree of sensorineural hearing loss on the left side.
      Select the single most appropriate next course of action.

      Your Answer: CT scan with contrast

      Correct Answer: MRI scan

      Explanation:

      Acoustic Neuroma: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Acoustic neuroma, also known as vestibular schwannoma, is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. The most common symptoms include unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, unsteadiness, tinnitus, headache, mastoid pain or otalgia, facial numbness, diplopia, and vertigo. If a patient presents with these symptoms, an MRI scan is the recommended diagnostic tool, as CT scans do not have sufficient resolution.

      In most cases, the initial symptom of vestibular schwannomas is unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, which may have been present for 1-5 years. The loss is gradually progressive in 80-90% of cases and sudden in 10-20%. This sudden loss may be caused by occlusion of the internal auditory artery.

      Many patients with vestibular schwannomas are now observed for any signs of change over time, rather than operated on immediately. Microsurgery or stereotactic radiosurgery are the main treatment methods. These treatments are effective in reducing the size of the tumor and improving symptoms.

      In conclusion, acoustic neuroma is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms, and an MRI scan is the recommended diagnostic tool. Treatment options include observation, microsurgery, and stereotactic radiosurgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant visits her doctor and asks...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant visits her doctor and asks if there are any medical conditions in her history that would prevent her from breastfeeding.
      What maternal condition would make breastfeeding not recommended?

      Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding and Maternal Health: Considerations and Recommendations

      Breastfeeding is a crucial aspect of maternal and infant health, providing numerous benefits for both parties. However, certain health conditions may impact the safety and efficacy of breastfeeding. Here are some considerations and recommendations for breastfeeding mothers:

      Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection: HIV can be transmitted through breast milk, so it is recommended that HIV-positive mothers exclusively formula-feed their infants from birth.

      Hepatitis B: The benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of infection for infants born to mothers with hepatitis B. Infants should receive hepatitis B-specific immunoglobulin and be vaccinated from birth.

      Hepatitis C: Breastfeeding is safe for infants born to mothers with hepatitis C, as there is no evidence of mother-to-infant transmission. However, if the mother’s nipples are cracked and bleeding, it is recommended to abstain from breastfeeding until they are healed.

      Mastitis: Mastitis is a common condition that causes breast pain, swelling, and redness. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus entering through a cracked nipple. Antibiotics may be necessary, but it is recommended to continue breastfeeding or pumping to improve milk flow.

      Vitamin D deficiency: Vitamin D deficiency is prevalent in the UK, and breastfeeding mothers and infants are at risk of developing rickets. It is recommended that both take a daily supplement of vitamin D to prevent this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      31.8
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  • Question 30 - You see a 40-year-old woman for a third episode of moderately severe depression...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 40-year-old woman for a third episode of moderately severe depression in the last 18 months.

      She has been stopping and starting her antidepressant medication according to how she is feeling. You advise her that she should take the medication regularly.

      What length of time is recommended for continuation of antidepressants for recurrent depression?

      Your Answer: Two years

      Correct Answer: Six months

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Antidepressant Use for Recurrent Depression

      According to NICE guidance, patients who have experienced two or more depressive episodes in the recent past and have suffered significant functional impairment during these episodes should be advised to continue taking antidepressants for a period of two years. This recommendation is based on evidence that suggests that longer-term use of antidepressants can reduce the risk of relapse and recurrence of depression. It is important to note that this guidance applies specifically to patients with recurrent depression and should be considered on a case-by-case basis in consultation with a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      18.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular Health (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (3/4) 75%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/3) 33%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/2) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
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