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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with needle marks on his arms, looking underweight and unwell. He admits to drug abuse and is febrile with shivering, but no localising symptoms are evident. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:Endocarditis in Intravenous Drug Abusers: A Common Cause of Pyrexia of Unknown Origin
Pyrexia of unknown origin (PUO) can be caused by various factors, but in intravenous drug abusers without localizing symptoms, infective endocarditis should be considered a strong possibility. This may be the only sign of endocarditis in such patients, making diagnosis difficult and requiring a high index of suspicion. Tricuspid valve involvement is common, and a murmur may be absent due to the small pressure gradient across this valve. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common infecting organism, and many patients also have Human Immunodeficiency Virus infection, which can also cause PUO. Pulmonary manifestations are often seen in patients with tricuspid valve infection, including pleuritic pain, lung abscess, and radiographic changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 2
Correct
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A 70-year-old gentleman, with mild dementia and known alcohol excess, has been seeing his GP regularly for low mood after his wife passed away recently.
On a routine review, he is noted to be more confused than usual.
On examination, he is noted to be underweight, ataxic, and has a nystagmus. Cranial nerve examination is otherwise unremarkable.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Refer to on-call medical team
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Medical Emergency
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention. Patients with new onset confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma should be considered for this diagnosis. It is important to note that increased confusion may be mistaken for worsening dementia, highlighting the significance of a thorough examination.
If left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to irreversible Korsakoff’s syndrome, making prompt treatment essential. Oral thiamine can be administered following initial intravenous treatment.
It is important to note that acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, have no role in the acute deterioration of cognition. Additionally, a posterior circulation stroke must also be considered, which is why the medical team would be the most appropriate referral initially.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a consultation after a routine health check revealed an elevated level of γ-glutamyltransferase (γ-GT). He confesses to regularly consuming over 30 units of alcohol per week but doesn't exhibit any signs of alcohol dependence. What is the most accurate statement regarding brief interventions in this scenario?
Your Answer: They are a form of primary prevention
Correct Answer: They involve giving information, advice and support
Explanation:Brief Interventions for Hazardous or Harmful Drinking
Brief interventions are a valuable tool in addressing hazardous or harmful drinking. These interventions aim to identify potential problems and motivate individuals to take action. They are targeted at those who are not dependent on alcohol but may be at risk of developing problems. Brief interventions can range from a short 5-10 minute conversation to multiple sessions of motivational interviewing or counseling.
During a brief intervention, patients are encouraged to consider both the negative and positive aspects of their drinking. If a patient decides to reduce their drinking, they are provided with support. These interventions are often opportunistic, meaning they are given when a patient is attending for another reason and has not necessarily expressed concern about their drinking.
Brief interventions can be given by a variety of healthcare professionals, including general practitioners, nurses, hospital doctors, social workers, and probation officers. By providing early intervention and support, brief interventions can help prevent the development of more serious alcohol-related problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking opioid substitution therapy to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and ultimately quit illicit drug use, including opioids. The GP conducts an initial evaluation.
What is the initial step to take in managing this patient?
Select ONE choice only.Your Answer: Advise that the programme will be stopped if illicit drugs are also used
Correct Answer: Check liver function tests
Explanation:Managing Opioid Substitution Treatment: Key Considerations
Opioid substitution treatment (OST) is a crucial component of managing opioid addiction. However, there are several important considerations that healthcare providers must keep in mind when prescribing and managing OST. Here are some key points to keep in mind:
1. Check liver function tests: Before prescribing methadone or buprenorphine, it is important to check liver function tests to ensure that the patient doesn’t have decompensated liver failure, which is a relative contraindication to OST.
2. Advise against alcohol use: Patients should be advised that they cannot have opioid substitution until they have stopped drinking alcohol. However, maintenance or detoxification from illicit substances and alcohol can occur concurrently.
3. Don’t stop medication abruptly: If a dosage is missed, prescribing should not be stopped immediately. Instead, the patient should be informed that missed doses will be reported to the pharmacist, and that abrupt cessation of medication can lead to withdrawal and a return to illicit substance use.
4. Address illicit drug use: Patients should be informed that the OST programme will be stopped if they continue to use illicit drugs. However, healthcare providers should continue to work with patients on other drug use, alcohol use, psychological interventions, and any health and social needs, even if a relapse into illicit drugs occurs while on a reduction regimen.
5. Initiate medication as soon as possible: Starting medication (methadone or buprenorphine) is important and occasionally urgent, and it needs to be initiated as rapidly as it can safely be done to avoid patients dropping out of treatment. However, starting substitute medication on the first presentation is often not possible, as results of investigations such as a toxicology screen often take several days to return.
By keeping these considerations in mind, healthcare providers can effectively manage OST and help patients on the path to recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 5
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with a six-month history of increasing shortness of breath and multiple instances of coughing up blood in the past four weeks. He has a 40-year history of smoking 30 cigarettes per day and has worked as a painter and builder. Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following risk factors is the most probable contributing factor? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Tobacco
Explanation:Identifying Risk Factors for Lung Cancer: A Case Study
A patient presents with symptoms of lung cancer, including breathlessness and haemoptysis, as well as chest pain, cough, fatigue, and weight loss. Given that smoking is responsible for 72% of lung cancer cases in the UK and 86% of lung cancer deaths, it is the most likely risk factor in this case.
While alcohol consumption is linked to an increased risk of certain cancers, it is not strongly associated with lung cancer. Exposure to arsenic is associated with certain occupations, but only accounts for 0.003% of lung cancers in the UK. Asbestos exposure, which is linked to construction and shipyard work, is responsible for 6-8% of lung cancer deaths, but tobacco is still a more significant risk factor.
Exposure to silica, which is associated with certain industries such as glass manufacture and mining, increases lung cancer risk by 68%. However, it only accounts for 0.02% of lung cancers in the UK. While silica exposure may have contributed to this patient’s lung cancer, smoking remains the most likely cause. Overall, identifying and addressing risk factors for lung cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 6
Incorrect
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After a prolonged episode of binge drinking, a young patient is prepared to stop. You are concerned about withdrawal symptoms. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that vulnerable people in acute withdrawal be considered for hospital admission.
Select from the list the feature that would LEAST SUGGEST vulnerability in this patient.
Your Answer: Low muscle mass
Correct Answer: Age 65 years
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Medically Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that individuals who require medically assisted alcohol withdrawal should receive treatment in the most appropriate setting based on their age, severity of alcohol dependence, social support, and any physical or psychiatric comorbidities. Hospital admission should be considered for vulnerable individuals, such as those who are frail, have cognitive impairment or multiple comorbidities, lack social support, or have learning difficulties. Frailty, which includes loss of muscle mass, muscle weakness, and osteoporosis, is a geriatric syndrome that may require hospitalization. However, being 65 years of age doesn’t necessarily imply vulnerability. On the other hand, individuals aged 16 or 17 years are considered vulnerable according to NICE.
Hospital admission is recommended for individuals with a history of withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens. Urgent admission is necessary for patients suspected of having Wernicke’s encephalopathy, who require intravenous thiamine treatment. Individuals younger than 16 years should also be admitted.
In summary, NICE guidelines emphasize the importance of individualized treatment for medically assisted alcohol withdrawal, taking into account various factors such as age, severity of dependence, and comorbidities. Hospital admission should be considered for vulnerable individuals and those with a history of severe withdrawal symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man seeks assistance from his General Practitioner to quit drinking alcohol. He confesses to consuming over 50 units of alcohol per week and has struggled to maintain a lower level of consumption. Although he has never encountered severe withdrawal symptoms, he is open to attending cognitive behaviour therapy and wonders if there is any medication that could aid him in his journey.
What is the most suitable medication to recommend?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No medication should be prescribed
Explanation:Medications for Alcohol Addiction: NICE Guidelines and Recommendations
The National Institute of Healthcare Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on the management of alcohol withdrawal, stating that medication should only be prescribed by specialist teams. Acamprosate is a second-line treatment that stabilizes the chemical balance in the brain disrupted by alcohol withdrawal. Chlordiazepoxide, a long-acting benzodiazepine, is used to reduce withdrawal symptoms in alcohol detoxification programs but should not be prescribed in primary care. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor, has been used to decrease drinking but is not licensed for this purpose. Naltrexone and nalmefene are opioid receptor antagonists used as second-line treatments after assisted withdrawal. Nalmefene has advantages over naltrexone, including a longer half-life and greater oral bioavailability, but none of these options should be prescribed in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man persistently misuses alcohol. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) require driving licence (Group 1) revocation or refusal until a minimum 6-month period of controlled drinking or abstinence has been attained.
Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the DVLA regulations in these circumstances?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seeking medical or other advice is a prerequisite of regaining his licence
Explanation:Alcohol Misuse and Driving: DVLA Guidelines
The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) defines alcohol misuse as a state that results in disturbed behavior, related diseases, or other consequences due to alcohol consumption. This state is likely to cause harm to the patient, their family, or society, and may or may not be associated with dependence. A diagnosis by a General Practitioner is enough to confirm persistent alcohol misuse, which is also indicated by abnormal blood markers.
It is the patient’s duty to inform the DVLA and seek advice from medical or other sources during the period off the road. A minimum of one year of controlled drinking or abstinence is required, and any abnormal blood parameters must return to normal. For drivers of Group 2 vehicles, the required period of abstinence is three years. These guidelines aim to ensure the safety of all road users and prevent accidents caused by alcohol misuse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner (GP) as a temporary resident and asks for opiate analgesics to manage a sickle-cell crisis. Which of the following choices would be the LEAST suspicious that he is a drug abuser?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staying for a month with his parents
Explanation:Identifying Drug-Seeking Behavior in Patients: Signs to Look Out For
When dealing with patients, it’s important to be able to identify drug-seeking behavior. One sign to look out for is when a patient claims to be a temporary resident in the area. This is a common tactic used by drug seekers who are just passing through. However, if the patient’s parents are also your patients and they are a stable couple, this can be reassuring.
Other signs to watch for include strange smells such as cannabis, cocaine, or heroin, as well as the smell of acetone or glue on the breath. Additionally, needle tracks or difficult intravenous access may also be present. By being aware of these signs, healthcare professionals can better identify and address drug-seeking behavior in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a regular check-up. During the consultation, she reveals that she smokes around 12 cigarettes per day and has made two attempts in the past to quit smoking. What is the most effective intervention for achieving smoking cessation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brief advice from a physician
Explanation:Effective Interventions for Smoking Cessation: Brief Advice and Lifestyle Changes
Brief advice from a physician can be a powerful tool in helping people quit smoking. In less than 30 seconds, a physician can ask a person if they smoke and if they have considered quitting, while also offering help. This type of intervention has been proven effective for lifestyle changes, such as smoking cessation and weight loss. However, acupuncture and hypnotherapy have little evidence to support their effectiveness in smoking cessation. While a prescribed exercise program may not be effective, short bouts of moderate exercise can help distract from cravings. Additionally, a low-calorie diet doesn’t impact a person’s ability to quit smoking successfully. By incorporating brief advice and lifestyle changes, physicians can help their patients successfully quit smoking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman is looking to discontinue her lorazepam 0.5 mg twice daily dosage. She has been taking it for severe anxiety symptoms since a traumatic event five years ago. She attempted to stop taking it on her own but experienced intense anxiety symptoms. What is the recommended approach for tapering off lorazepam?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Change from lorazepam to diazepam in stages, then slowly reduce the dose of diazepam in very small stages over about three months.
Explanation:Switching from Short-Acting to Long-Acting Benzodiazepines
Short-acting benzodiazepines should be replaced with longer-acting preparations to minimize the risk of withdrawal symptoms. The process of withdrawal should be gradual and guided by the patient. To begin, patients should be gradually switched to diazepam, with the reduction process taking between three months and a year. The details of withdrawal will vary depending on the drugs and doses used, but the general principle remains the same. By taking these steps, patients can safely transition to longer-acting benzodiazepines and avoid the negative effects of withdrawal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also suffers from stable angina, gout and peripheral vascular disease. He doesn't have diabetes.
Which one of the following antihypertensives is best suited for him initially?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Modified release nifedipine
Explanation:Choosing the Right Medication for Hypertension: NICE Guidelines
When it comes to managing hypertension, it’s important to choose the right medication based on the patient’s age, medical history, and other factors. According to NICE guidelines, the first-line therapy for hypertension in patients over the age of 55 without diabetes is a calcium-channel blocker, such as modified release nifedipine. Beta-blockers like atenolol may be considered in younger patients or those with certain contraindications, while ACE inhibitors are recommended for patients under 55. Thiazide-like diuretics can also be used in certain cases, such as when a calcium channel blocker is not tolerated or in cases of resistant hypertension. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman has been immobilised by a ruptured Achilles tendon. She is known to abuse alcohol. She requests a home visit because she is feeling unwell.
Which of the following findings is NOT typically a feature of alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal: Symptoms and Timeline
Alcohol withdrawal is a range of symptoms that can occur when someone stops drinking alcohol. The severity of symptoms can vary greatly and typically appear about eight hours after the last drink. Symptoms peak on day two and usually improve by day four or five.
Minor symptoms may appear within 6-12 hours and include cravings, anxiety, restlessness, depression, insomnia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, tremors, headache, sweating, and palpitations. Hallucinations can occur 12-24 hours after the last drink, while tonic-clonic seizures may occur after 24-48 hours.
The most severe form of alcohol withdrawal is delirium tremens, which can occur after 48-72 hours. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing alcohol withdrawal symptoms, especially if they are severe. Understanding the timeline and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presents with chronic productive cough and dyspnoea.
He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has smoked for 30 years.
To how many pack years does this equate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15
Explanation:Understanding Pack Year History
Pack year history is a tool used to estimate the risk of tobacco exposure. It is calculated by multiplying the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day (20 cigarettes in one pack) by the number of years of smoking. For instance, if someone smoked half a pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years, their pack year history would be 15 (1/2 x 30 = 15). This tool helps to standardize tobacco exposure and provide a clearer understanding of the potential risks associated with smoking. By knowing one’s pack year history, healthcare professionals can better assess the potential health consequences and provide appropriate care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding retirement planning is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy and varenicline may be combined if patients have failed monotherapy
Explanation:Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old alcoholic man is brought to the Emergency Department because of tremor, agitation, confusion, visual and auditory hallucinations, fever, sweating, and tachycardia and hypertension. His partner reports that he has not had any alcohol for about four days.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delirium tremens
Explanation:Alcohol Withdrawal and Related Complications
Alcohol withdrawal can lead to various complications, including delirium tremens, major alcohol withdrawal symptoms (hallucinosis), Korsakoff psychosis, and Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Delirium tremens is the most severe manifestation of alcohol withdrawal, characterized by agitation, confusion, disorientation, hallucinations, fever, hypertension, perspiration, and autonomic hyperactivity. Major alcohol withdrawal symptoms, also known as alcoholic hallucinosis, include visual and auditory hallucinations, whole body tremor, vomiting, perspiration, and hypertension. Korsakoff psychosis is a permanent brain damage caused by untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is a neuropsychiatric complication resulting from thiamine deficiency that occurs frequently in people with chronic alcohol dependence. It is crucial to have a high index of suspicion for Wernicke’s encephalopathy as the classic triad of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia is only present in about 10% of cases. While some of these features may be present in a patient with pneumonia, a cough and chest signs are typically present in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of increasing fatigue that has been developing over the past few months. She is a non-smoker, takes no medication, and has been consuming two bottles of wine daily for the last 12 years. During the examination, the patient is found to have jaundice, finger clubbing, and telangiectasia. What investigation is most likely to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound (US) scan
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnosis of Alcoholic Liver Disease-Related Cirrhosis
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD)-related cirrhosis is a condition that develops over several years, progressing from hepatitis to fibrosis and then on to cirrhosis. It is often asymptomatic until complications develop, such as variceal bleeding, ascites, or spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. A diagnosis of ALD-related cirrhosis can be confirmed with an abdominal ultrasound (US) scan, which shows a shrunken, nodular liver. However, sometimes a liver biopsy may be required if the diagnosis cannot be confirmed on US.
Routine liver blood tests, including alanine transaminase (ALT), should not be used to rule significant liver pathology in or out, as ALT can be normal in cirrhosis. Bilirubin levels may be raised in cirrhosis, but a raised bilirubin can also be caused by other conditions, such as hepatitis, cholangitis, haemolysis, and pancreatic cancer.
Ceruloplasmin levels are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease, but in the case of ALD-related cirrhosis, it is much more likely that the diagnosis is related to alcohol consumption. Gastroscopy is not used to diagnose cirrhosis but should be undertaken once cirrhosis is diagnosed to screen for oesophageal varices, which are a complication occurring in around half of patients with cirrhosis.
Overall, a diagnosis of ALD-related cirrhosis is based on a combination of clinical history, physical examination, and imaging studies. It is important to diagnose cirrhosis early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with alcohol dependency disorder feels unwell. He stopped drinking six days ago.
Which one of the following symptoms is most suggestive of delirium tremens?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Visual hallucinations
Explanation:Delirium Tremens: Symptoms and Characteristics
Delirium tremens is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals who have been drinking heavily for a prolonged period of time. It is characterised by a range of symptoms, including confusion, agitation, tremors, tachycardia, fevers, high blood pressure, and visual hallucinations.
One of the key features of delirium tremens is the presence of visual hallucinations, which can be particularly distressing for individuals experiencing this condition. These hallucinations may involve seeing things that are not there, such as animals or people, or distortions of reality, such as objects appearing to move or change shape.
Other symptoms of delirium tremens can include sweating, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. In severe cases, delirium tremens can be life-threatening, and medical intervention may be necessary to manage the symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female presents in a confused and drowsy state.
A friend found her this morning after she had been out drinking the previous night but also states that she had been upset after her boyfriend had 'dumped her'.
Examination reveals that she is drowsy with a Glasgow coma scale rating of 10/15. She has a blood pressure of 138/90 mmHg, a temperature of 37.5°C, large pupils which react slowly to light, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 32/min and has exaggerated reflexes with down-going plantar responses. Examination of the abdomen reveals a palpable bladder.
Which of the following substances is she most likely to have taken?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants
Explanation:Anticholinergic Overdose and Treatment
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of anticholinergic overdose, including drowsiness, irritability, large pupils, pyrexia, and tachycardia. Tricyclics, commonly used as antidepressants, can be lethal in overdose. Close monitoring is necessary as ventricular arrhythmias and seizures may occur. Treatment for seizures involves phenytoin, while lidocaine can be used for ventricular arrhythmias. Bicarbonate can correct metabolic acidosis.
Paracetamol overdose typically presents with few symptoms or signs initially, but can lead to fulminant hepatic failure later on. Opiates cause small pupils and depressed respirations, while benzodiazepines typically only cause marked drowsiness. Ecstasy often causes excitability, tachycardia, and hypertension, but can also lead to severe hyponatremia when associated with excessive water consumption, resulting in drowsiness and obtundation.
In summary, anticholinergic overdose requires close monitoring and prompt treatment to prevent potentially lethal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient with known alcohol dependency collapses outside his General Practice surgery. He is displaying signs of seizure activity, with both his upper and lower limbs jerking. He is not known to be epileptic. His General Practitioner is in attendance within three minutes as the seizure stops and notes that the patient has bitten his tongue.
Which of the following features would be most suggestive that this is an alcohol withdrawal seizure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised tonic–clonic seizure
Explanation:Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal Seizures
Alcohol withdrawal seizures are a common occurrence in individuals who abruptly stop drinking. These seizures typically occur within 6-48 hours of the last drink and are often the first sign of alcohol withdrawal. They are major motor seizures that can last for a few minutes and are characterized by tonic-clonic movements. However, if the seizure lasts for more than 20 minutes, it may indicate an alternative cause and should be investigated further.
It is important to note that alcohol withdrawal seizures usually occur in patients who have no previous history of seizures or epileptiform disorders. Electroencephalograms are usually normal, and only about 30-40% of patients progress to delirium tremens. If a patient has a past history of epilepsy or experiences a partial/focal seizure, it may indicate another cause and should be investigated further.
Additionally, a prolonged post-ictal phase is very unusual in alcohol withdrawal seizures and should prompt consideration of another cause. Overall, understanding the characteristics and potential causes of alcohol withdrawal seizures can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking assistance in quitting alcohol after a prolonged period of heavy drinking. He reports experiencing moderate withdrawal symptoms in the past, but has never had seizures or delirium tremens. His wife is supportive and he is in good health. What is the most suitable medication to use in a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal program?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Medications for Alcohol Withdrawal: Types and Uses
Alcohol withdrawal can be a challenging process, and medications are often used to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Here are some common medications used for alcohol withdrawal:
Chlordiazepoxide: This long-acting benzodiazepine is used to reduce withdrawal symptoms in people with moderate alcohol dependence.
Lorazepam: For people with liver impairment, lorazepam is suggested as it requires limited liver metabolism. It is also used intravenously for alcohol withdrawal seizures.
Acamprosate: This medication is effective in preventing relapse in patients with alcohol dependence.
Clomethiazole: While licensed for use in acute alcohol withdrawal, benzodiazepines are preferred. Clomethiazole should only be used in an inpatient setting and not prescribed if the patient is likely to continue drinking alcohol.
Haloperidol: Antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be prescribed as adjunctive therapy to benzodiazepines for patients with marked agitation or hallucinations and those at risk of delirium tremens.
It is important to note that these medications should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and in conjunction with other forms of treatment, such as therapy and support groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner seeking guidance. He reports that he has been consuming alcohol excessively for a few weeks and wants to quit. He mentions that he experienced delirium tremens the last time he attempted to stop.
What is the accurate statement regarding delirium tremens?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is associated with visual hallucinations
Explanation:Understanding Delirium Tremens: Symptoms, Timeline, and Treatment
Delirium tremens is a serious condition that can occur within 24 hours to one week after a person stops drinking alcohol. The symptoms peak at around 72-96 hours and can be life-threatening. One of the most common symptoms is visual hallucinations, which often involve miniature humans or animals. Tachycardia, or a rapid heartbeat, is also a common feature.
If someone is experiencing delirium tremens, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. Hospital admission is often necessary, and treatment typically involves large doses of benzodiazepines. With proper care, most people recover from delirium tremens, but it is important to take the condition seriously and seek help as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man, who regularly injects drugs, presents to the General Practice clinic with a four-day history of a painful swelling in his groin.
During examination, a 5 cm tender, hot, fluctuant mass with overlying erythema is observed. Tympanic temperature is 38 oC (normal range: 36.5-37.5 oC).
What is the most suitable initial management option for this case? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incision and drainage
Explanation:Treatment Options for Groin Abscess in Injecting Drug Users
Groin abscesses are a common complication of injecting drug use, characterized by a tender fluctuant mass, overlying erythema, and fever. The first-line treatment for an abscess is incision and drainage, followed by antibiotics if necessary. Risk factors for infection at injection sites include frequent drug use, reusing equipment, and poor nutrition.
Co-amoxiclav 625 mg three times daily for seven days may be prescribed as a second-line treatment for cellulitis if first-line treatment, such as flucloxacillin, has failed. It is important to check local guidelines on antibiotic regimens. Flucloxacillin 1 g four times daily for seven days is the first-line treatment for cellulitis.
Laparoscopic hernia repair is the gold standard treatment for an inguinal hernia, which presents as a reducible mass with a cough impulse. Open hernia repair may be indicated for larger herniae. Risk factors for inguinal hernia include obesity, constipation, chronic coughing, and heavy lifting.
Treatment Options for Groin Abscess and Inguinal Hernia in Injecting Drug Users
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing varenicline to a 42-year-old man who wants to quit smoking. What is the most probable condition that would contraindicate the use of varenicline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Past history of deliberate self-harm
Explanation:Patients with a history of depression should use varenicline with caution due to ongoing studies investigating the risk of suicidal behavior. The MHRA/CHM advises patients to seek medical attention immediately if they experience agitation, depressed mood, or suicidal thoughts while taking varenicline. Patients with a history of psychiatric illness should be closely monitored during treatment. Additionally, varenicline may exacerbate underlying illnesses, including depression, and should be used with caution in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease or predisposition to seizures. Upon completion of a 12-week course, dose tapering should be considered to minimize the risk of relapse, irritability, depression, and insomnia.
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes in seeking assistance with quitting smoking. She attempted to quit when she discovered she was pregnant at six weeks, but was unsuccessful. She inquires about the possibility of medication to aid her in quitting.
What is the most suitable pharmacological approach for this patient, if any?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT)
Explanation:Safe and Effective Smoking Cessation Aids for Pregnant Women
Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is a recommended aid for smoking cessation in pregnancy, along with behavioral support. Compared to smoking, NRT poses lower risks as nicotine levels are much lower and the delivery method is less addictive. Varenicline is not routinely recommended due to limited efficacy and safety data. Bupropion is contraindicated for pregnant women. NRT can be offered at any stage of pregnancy to minimize adverse effects on the fetus. It is important to consider safe and effective options for smoking cessation during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of a one-week history of fever, malaise, a generalised rash and a sore throat. During the examination, there is an erythematous rash affecting the entire body and generalised lymphadenopathy. She confesses to a history of intravenous drug use. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human Immunodeficieny Virus (HIV)
Explanation:HIV, glandular fever, measles, rubella, and syphilis are all infectious diseases with distinct symptoms and modes of transmission. HIV is more common among at-risk groups such as intravenous drug users, men who have sex with men, and sex workers. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein-Barr Virus and is common in young adult populations. Measles and rubella are RNA viruses transmitted by respiratory droplet spread, with measles being uncommon in the UK due to vaccination rates. Syphilis is a treponemal infection with distinct stages, but is not associated with drug use and doesn’t present with prominent systemic features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who is concerned about his memory. He has no recollection of recent or distant events, but responds to every question with a very detailed, yet incorrect, answer.
Upon examination, he displays ataxia and nystagmus. He has not visited a doctor in over 25 years, doesn't take any regular medication, and has consumed eight pints of beer per night for the past 35 years.
What is the most probable deficiency causing this presentation? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:The patient is suffering from Korsakoff syndrome, a condition caused by a deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine). This syndrome is a late manifestation of untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy and is characterized by mental confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. It is most common in people in their fifties and sixties and is caused by alcoholism or other factors such as chronic subdural hematoma, nutritional stress, AIDS, hyperemesis gravidarum, thyrotoxicosis, long-term dialysis, or congestive heart failure. Urgent medical assessment and admission for parenteral thiamine is necessary, as it can be fatal if left untreated. Zinc deficiency, on the other hand, is characterized by symptoms such as anorexia, lethargy, diarrhea, growth restriction, impaired immune function, delayed sexual maturation, learning disability, weight loss, and macular degeneration. It is not related to memory or cognitive problems, ataxia, or nystagmus. Vitamin B2 deficiency is more common in vegetarians, vegans, pregnant women, or young children and is thought to have a role in migraines. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes symptoms such as cognitive and memory disturbance, headaches, dyspepsia, loss of appetite, palpitations, visual disturbance, weakness and lethargy, angina, optic neuropathy, symmetrical neuropathy affecting the legs more than the arms, and a megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin E deficiency is rare in healthy people and is strongly associated with conditions affecting absorption, such as Crohn’s disease or cystic fibrosis. However, this patient’s history of alcohol excess makes thiamine deficiency much more likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old mother who has not accessed antenatal care gives birth to a 2 kg baby. The baby becomes agitated, with a high-pitched cry, tremor, sweating, excessive yawning, and a high respiratory rate 24 hours after delivery. What is the most likely substance abused during this pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heroin
Explanation:Neonatal Withdrawal Symptoms and Associated Substance Use During Pregnancy
Neonatal withdrawal symptoms can occur when a baby is born to a mother who has used certain substances during pregnancy. Opiate withdrawal is characterized by classic symptoms such as sweating, yawning, vomiting, diarrhea, and seizures, and typically begins 24-48 hours after birth. Cocaine withdrawal can cause tremors, agitation, and difficulty feeding, and is associated with intrauterine growth restriction. Alcohol use during pregnancy can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which presents with craniofacial features, low birth weight, and neurodevelopmental dysfunction. Cannabis use is not typically associated with poor outcomes, while heavy use may lead to growth restriction and sudden infant death syndrome. Methadone withdrawal typically begins 48-72 hours after birth and presents with symptoms similar to opiate withdrawal. Antenatal care can help identify substance use during pregnancy and provide additional support and monitoring for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. During the appointment, he mentions feeling down and confesses to increased alcohol consumption and recreational drug use. His current medications include metformin, gliclazide, sitagliptin, ramipril, simvastatin, and vardenafil. As his healthcare provider, you know that there are certain recreational substances that should be avoided when taking vardenafil. Which of the following substances is contraindicated with the use of vardenafil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amyl nitrite
Explanation:Cautionary Measures When Prescribing Phosphodiesterase Type 5 Inhibitors
In clinical practice, it is important to exercise caution when prescribing phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (PDE5i) in combination with nitrates. This is because the combination can lead to life-threatening hypotension due to excessive vasodilation. As such, co-prescription of PDE5i and nitrates is contraindicated.
When considering the use of PDE5i, it is important to determine whether the patient is taking nitrates regularly or as needed (PRN). Patients who are on regular daily nitrates should avoid PDE5i altogether. On the other hand, patients who use PRN nitrate medications, such as sublingual GTN spray, should avoid taking sildenafil or vardenafil within 24 hours and tadalafil within 48 hours of using the nitrate.
While recreational substances are not without their health risks, amyl nitrite, also known as poppers, is of particular concern when used with PDE5i. Amyl nitrite is a nitrite-containing compound that can have the same fatal hypotensive effect as prescribed nitrates when used in combination with PDE5i.
In summary, caution should be exercised when prescribing PDE5i in combination with nitrates, and consideration should be given to the patient’s nitrate use pattern. Patients should also be advised to avoid recreational substances, particularly amyl nitrite, when using PDE5i.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman says she is currently struggling to cope at work and feels she needs some time off work. She has become depressed but denies any suicidal thoughts or intent. She feels anxious, shaky and nauseous most mornings. She admits to drinking about 40 - 50 units of alcohol per week. She is aware that this is too much but has not connected it to her current problems.
What is the most appropriate response to this patient’s situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide him with information about specialist alcohol services
Explanation:Providing Support for Alcohol Dependence: A Patient-Centered Approach
When working with a patient who displays signs of alcohol dependence, it is important to approach the situation with empathy and understanding. Referral to specialist alcohol services is recommended for those with moderate or severe dependence, and screening with an AUDIT or AUDIT-C questionnaire can help quantify the level of dependence. It is not helpful to use the threat of job loss as a means of motivating the patient to stop drinking, and offering a Statement of Fitness for Work should not be conditional on immediate cessation of alcohol use. Prescribing fluoxetine may not be effective while alcohol use is ongoing, and making judgemental statements about the patient’s behavior is not productive. Instead, a patient-centered approach that focuses on support and understanding can help the patient address their underlying issues with alcohol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Chronic alcohol abuse is known to have a negative impact on the cardiovascular system. Among the following conditions, which is the LEAST likely to be associated with excessive alcohol consumption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Alcohol Abuse and Cardiovascular Problems: Effects and Risks
Alcohol abuse can lead to various cardiovascular problems, including atrial fibrillation, hypertension, strokes, and cardiomyopathy with heart failure. Additionally, infective endocarditis is more common in those who abuse alcohol. However, it is interesting to note that mild to moderate alcohol consumption, particularly in the form of wine and beer, which are rich in polyphenols, may actually have cardiovascular protective effects. This is true for both individuals with existing cardiovascular disease and healthy individuals. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with alcohol abuse, but also to consider the potential benefits of moderate alcohol consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has a range of symptoms.
He has a history of heroin addiction and you suspect that he is currently experiencing withdrawal from heroin.
Which of the following symptoms would be unusual for heroin withdrawal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yawning
Explanation:Heroin Withdrawal Symptoms
People experiencing heroin withdrawal often experience insomnia instead of feeling sleepy. However, all the other symptoms are typical. Heroin withdrawal can cause a range of physical and psychological symptoms, including muscle aches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anxiety, depression, and intense drug cravings. These symptoms can be extremely uncomfortable and can last for several days or even weeks. It is important for individuals going through heroin withdrawal to seek medical attention and support to manage their symptoms and increase their chances of successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned friend. He is drowsy, confused and sweating profusely. The accompanying friend reports drug use earlier that evening. A toxicology screen for opiates, cocaine, cannabis and alcohol is negative.
What is the most likely causative drug?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spice
Explanation:Spice, a synthetic cannabinoid, is a type of new psychoactive substance (NPS) that is often referred to as a legal high despite being prohibited by the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 and the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971. NPS use has become increasingly common in the UK, particularly among young men who mistakenly believe that they are safer than traditional illicit drugs. Spice is typically consumed as a herbal smoking mixture and is responsible for over half of all NPS use. While it produces similar effects to cannabis, it is more potent and can cause negative side effects such as dizziness, agitation, paranoia, and seizures. Based on the symptoms described in this scenario and the negative toxicology screen for other illicit drugs, Spice is the most likely cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 34
Incorrect
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You are conducting an interview with a 35-year-old man who has increased his alcohol consumption after a recent breakup. According to NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable method to screen for alcohol dependence and harmful drinking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: AUDIT questionnaire
Explanation:According to the Clinical Knowledge Summaries from NICE, it is recommended to utilize formal assessment tools to evaluate the extent and seriousness of alcohol misuse. This includes utilizing the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test) as a routine measure for identification purposes. This can assist in determining whether a brief intervention is necessary and, if so, what type of intervention is appropriate. In situations where time is limited, it is recommended to use a shortened version of the AUDIT, such as the AUDIT-C (AUDIT-Consumption), and then follow up with the complete questionnaire if problem drinking is indicated.
Alcohol Problem Drinking: Detection and Assessment
Alcohol problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. Therefore, it is important to detect and assess alcohol consumption to identify those who may need intervention. Screening tools such as AUDIT, FAST, and CAGE can be used to identify hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
AUDIT is a 10-item questionnaire that takes about 2-3 minutes to complete. It has been shown to be superior to CAGE and biochemical markers for predicting alcohol problems. A score of 8 or more in men, and 7 or more in women, indicates a strong likelihood of hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption. A score of 15 or more in men, and 13 or more in women, is likely to indicate alcohol dependence. AUDIT-C is an abbreviated form consisting of 3 questions.
FAST is a 4-item questionnaire that can quickly identify hazardous drinking. The score for hazardous drinking is 3 or more. Over 50% of people will be classified using just the first question, which asks how often the individual has had eight or more drinks on one occasion (six or more for women).
CAGE is a well-known screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Two or more positive answers are generally considered a ‘positive’ result. The questions ask about feeling the need to cut down on drinking, being annoyed by criticism of drinking, feeling guilty about drinking, and having a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover.
To diagnose alcohol dependence, the ICD-10 definition requires three or more of the following: compulsion to drink, difficulties controlling alcohol consumption, physiological withdrawal, tolerance to alcohol, neglect of alternative activities to drinking, and persistent use of alcohol despite evidence of harm.
Overall, screening and assessment tools can help identify individuals who may need intervention for alcohol problem drinking. It is important to use these tools to promote early detection and intervention to prevent further harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, nausea and mild jaundice. He admits to a long history of regular alcohol consumption, drinking two 330ml bottles of lager per day (3% ABV) as well as a 75cl bottle of 12% ABV wine per week.
What is this man's weekly alcohol consumption in units (to the nearest unit of alcohol)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 23 units
Explanation:Calculating Units of Alcohol
To calculate the number of units of alcohol in a drink, you need to multiply the percentage of alcohol (ABV) by the volume in millilitres and then divide by 1000. However, there are potential pitfalls to watch out for, such as converting volumes from centilitres to millilitres and adjusting for daily or weekly consumption.
For example, if a person drinks two 330ml bottles of lager per day with a 3% ABV, the calculation would be 3% x 330ml = 9.9ml, divided by 1000 = 0.99 units per bottle, rounded up to 1 unit. This equates to 14 units per week. If they also drink one 750ml bottle of wine per week with a 12% ABV, the calculation would be 12% x 750ml = 90ml, divided by 1000 = 9 units per bottle. Therefore, the total amount of units consumed per week would be 23 units.
It is important to check the units of volume and duration when calculating units of alcohol. The UK recommendations are for no more than 14 units per week for both sexes. While these calculations may seem simple, it is important to be prepared for any eventuality in an exam setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old homeless woman with an illicit drug use problem requests detoxification in the community.
Which of the following factors would make community detoxification difficult in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A previous community detoxification attempt failed
Explanation:Community Detoxification: Considerations and Options
Community detoxification is often the preferred option for patients seeking to reduce or eliminate their use of illicit drugs. However, there are certain factors that may make inpatient detoxification more appropriate, such as previous failed attempts at community detoxification, significant social problems, complex drug use, or physical comorbidities. Concurrent abuse of alcohol is a common issue, but it doesn’t necessarily prevent a patient from entering an opioid-reduction program. While complete detoxification should be the ultimate goal, any reduction in drug or alcohol use is a positive step. Homelessness can present challenges, but it is not a barrier to community detoxification, as pharmacies can work with detoxification teams to provide prescriptions. When it comes to medication-assisted detoxification, both methadone and buprenorphine are effective options. Ultimately, the choice between community and inpatient detoxification, as well as the specific treatment approach, should be based on the individual patient’s needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Among the patients listed below, which one is the most probable candidate for having their Group 1 driving license denied or taken away?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 40-year-old woman who is taking a supra-therapeutic dose of diazepam as part of a benzodiazepine withdrawal programme
Explanation:Benzodiazepines and Driving: Guidelines for Licensing
Benzodiazepines, particularly long-acting ones, are known to impair driving performance, especially when combined with alcohol. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) has set guidelines for licensing regarding the use of these drugs.
For Group 1 vehicles, persistent misuse or dependence on benzodiazepines will result in license refusal or revocation until a minimum of one year free of use has been achieved. For Group 2 vehicles, this period is extended to three years. The DVLA may require independent medical assessment and urine screening, as well as a favorable report from a consultant or specialist upon reapplication.
The non-prescribed use of benzodiazepines or the use of supra-therapeutic doses, whether in a substance withdrawal/maintenance program or not, is considered misuse/dependence for licensing purposes. However, occasional misuse doesn’t constitute persistent misuse or dependence.
Prescribed use of benzodiazepines at therapeutic doses, without evidence of impairment, is not considered misuse/dependence for licensing purposes, although clinical dependence may exist. It is important to note that any patient taking benzodiazepines may become unfit to drive at some point, but the guidelines are clear regarding licensing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old cocaine user, Sarah, visits the clinic and asks for a prescription for methadone. She had taken methadone at 30 mg once a day last year. Sarah is currently using the same amount of cocaine as she did last year and wants to resume taking 30 mg of methadone to manage withdrawal symptoms. However, you have no experience prescribing methadone and feel unsure about doing so. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Not prescribe methadone
Explanation:Prescribing methadone is a serious matter that requires an experienced and competent prescriber. It is important that the prescriber doesn’t feel pressured to prescribe the drug due to patient demands. As you are not confident in prescribing methadone, it would be unsafe for you to do so.
Before prescribing methadone, it is essential to confirm opioid dependence through a thorough history, examination, and toxicology screening using urine or oral fluid swabs. The prescribing process should involve a multidisciplinary team, including the patient’s drug team or local drug worker and pharmacist.
Methadone should be prescribed at a low dose and titrated upwards. The standard concentration is 1 mg/ml oral solution, with higher concentrations rarely used. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, depending on the amount and method of heroin or other opioids being used. Methadone is typically taken once daily.
Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management
Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.
Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.
In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.
Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Your next patient is a 32-year-old man who has a history of alcohol abuse. He has been consuming approximately 100 units of alcohol per week for the past five years. He often skips meals and is a heavy smoker, smoking 20 cigarettes per day. Do you suggest any vitamin supplements for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral thiamine
Explanation:Management of Problem Drinking: Nutritional Support and Drug Therapy
Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. To manage this condition, nutritional support and drug therapy are often recommended. According to SIGN, alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their diet may be deficient. This is because alcohol can interfere with the absorption and utilization of thiamine, which can lead to neurological complications such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
In addition to nutritional support, drug therapy can also be used to manage problem drinking. Benzodiazepines are commonly used for acute withdrawal symptoms, while disulfiram is used to promote abstinence. Disulfiram works by inhibiting acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, which causes a severe reaction when alcohol is consumed. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol in perfumes, foods, or mouthwashes can produce severe symptoms. However, disulfiram is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.
Another drug used to manage problem drinking is acamprosate. This medication reduces craving and has been shown to improve abstinence in placebo-controlled trials. Acamprosate is a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, which are involved in the development of alcohol dependence. By blocking these receptors, acamprosate may help reduce the reinforcing effects of alcohol and prevent relapse.
In summary, the management of problem drinking involves a combination of nutritional support and drug therapy. Oral thiamine is recommended for alcoholic patients with a deficient diet, while benzodiazepines can be used for acute withdrawal symptoms. Disulfiram promotes abstinence but should be used with caution in patients with certain medical conditions. Acamprosate reduces craving and improves abstinence by blocking NMDA receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old ex-footballer comes in seeking treatment for alcoholism and is given a prescription for disulfiram.
What is the mechanism of action of disulfiram?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase activity
Explanation:Disulfiram and Acetaldehyde Syndrome
Alcohol is primarily metabolized in the liver through a two-step process. First, alcohol dehydrogenase converts alcohol into acetaldehyde. Then, acetaldehyde dehydrogenase further metabolizes acetaldehyde into acetate. Disulfiram is a medication used to treat alcohol dependence by irreversibly inhibiting the oxidation of acetaldehyde. It does this by competing with the cofactor nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) for binding sites on acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. As a result, acetaldehyde levels increase, leading to the unpleasant side effects associated with acetaldehyde syndrome, such as headaches, nausea, and flushing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with neuropathic pain that has not responded to amitriptyline. She has a medical history of severe congestive heart failure and is currently taking aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, furosemide, and ramipril. If the GP prescribes medication for her pain, what is the most common side effect she is likely to experience? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dizziness
Explanation:Choosing the Best Neuropathic Pain Medication for a Patient with Cardiac History: Understanding Side-Effects
When treating a patient with neuropathic pain and a history of congestive cardiac failure, it is important to choose a medication that is safe and effective. The four options available are amitriptyline, gabapentin, pregabalin, and duloxetine. If the patient has already tried amitriptyline with no effect, one of the other three agents should be offered. However, caution must be taken with pregabalin and duloxetine due to their contraindications in heart failure.
Gabapentin is the safest and best choice for this patient, as it has no contraindications or cautions in heart failure and doesn’t interact with any of her medications. While dizziness is a very common side-effect of gabapentin, affecting more than 1 in 10 people taking the drug, it is still the most likely side-effect she will experience.
It is important to note that memory disturbance is not a side-effect of gabapentin, but is a common side-effect of pregabalin. Nausea is also a common side-effect of gabapentin, affecting between 1 in 10 to 1 in 100 people, but is less likely than dizziness. Palpitations, on the other hand, are a common side-effect of duloxetine, which is not the most appropriate medication to prescribe in this case. Finally, while urticaria is a common side-effect of gabapentin, it is less likely than dizziness. Understanding these side-effects can help clinicians make informed decisions when choosing the best medication for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has a history of alcohol dependence disorder for several years. He is currently experiencing confusion, double vision, and an unsteady gait. Additionally, his short term memory is poor. He reports abstaining from alcohol for the past week. What is the urgent vitamin requirement for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:Urgent Treatment Needed for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Explanation: The most probable diagnosis for the patient is Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. The patient requires immediate treatment with vitamin B1 (thiamine) to prevent further damage to the brain. It is crucial to administer thiamine as soon as possible to avoid irreversible brain damage and potential death. Therefore, urgent medical attention is necessary to ensure the patient’s recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) for the first time seeking help for her alcohol dependence. She explains that she has been using alcohol to cope with work stress and has gradually increased her daily drinking to 15-20 units. She has no significant medical history other than her alcohol use. She has a normal body mass index and reports a balanced diet. After assessing her, the GP refers her to specialist services. What would be the most appropriate management plan for thiamine use in a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer an oral preparation of thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Explanation:Thiamine Replacement for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcoholics
Thiamine deficiency is common in alcoholics due to poor diet and reduced absorption. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric complication caused by thiamine deficiency and occurs frequently in chronic alcohol dependence. Oral thiamine can be given at a maximum dose of 300 mg/day for healthy, well-nourished individuals. However, parenteral high-potency B complex vitamins should be considered for all other patients undergoing withdrawal despite the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine doesn’t prevent delirium tremens, and admission is required for inpatient detoxification if the patient presents acutely with evidence of this. Thiamine replacement is futile for Korsakoff syndrome, which is characterized by severe short-term memory loss and associated functional impairment. An ongoing prescription of lower doses of thiamine is suggested if there is concern about chronic deficiency after initial replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 44
Incorrect
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32-year-old Sarah is on methadone 60mg once a day to manage her symptoms from heroin withdrawal. She collects her methadone daily from the pharmacy and is supervised consuming it. One Friday morning Sarah fails to turn up to the pharmacy. What should the pharmacist do in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give him his usual 60mg methadone when he turns up the next day on Thursday and forfeit the dose from the day before
Explanation:Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management
Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.
Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.
In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.
Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking as she is planning to start a family. Despite several attempts to quit on her own, she has been unsuccessful. She is hesitant to attend a smoking cessation program and asks about medical options to aid in quitting. What would be the most suitable management to suggest, considering she has not tried any medications before?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) alone
Explanation:Smoking Cessation Options for a Woman Trying to Conceive
Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is the recommended option for a woman trying to conceive who is struggling to quit smoking. While it is ideal for her to delay conception until she has successfully quit smoking and ceased NRT, the benefits of NRT outweigh the risks of smoking and NRT. It is important for her to also receive behavioral support through a Stop Smoking Service. E-cigarettes are not currently recommended due to lack of evidence on their safety and effectiveness. Bupropion and varenicline are contraindicated in pregnancy and should not be prescribed. While attending a Stop Smoking Service is preferred, medical treatments such as NRT can be prescribed in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man collapses in the General Practice waiting room. His breathing is shallow with a respiratory rate of six breaths per minute. His oxygen saturations are unrecordable. Blood sugar is normal. His pupils are both constricted.
Which of the following drugs should be administered immediately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Antidotes for Poisoning: Understanding Their Uses
When a patient presents with symptoms of poisoning, it is important to identify the specific toxin involved in order to administer the appropriate antidote. Here are some common antidotes and their uses:
Naloxone: This opiate antagonist is used to treat acute opiate toxicity. It rapidly reverses respiratory depression, loss of consciousness, and constricted pupils. Patients may become aggressive upon awakening, and repeated doses may be necessary.
Fomepizole: This antidote is used in confirmed cases of ethylene glycol poisoning as an alternative to ethanol. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, altered consciousness, and seizures.
Acetylcysteine: This is the antidote for paracetamol poisoning. It should be administered in a hospital after a full clinical assessment has been carried out. Symptoms may not appear until days later, and can include hepatic encephalopathy.
Flumazenil: This antidote is used for benzodiazepine overdose. It should only be administered by experienced specialists in a hospital setting, as it can precipitate seizures.
Glucagon: This antidote can be used to treat hypoglycaemia and beta-blocker overdose. However, if a patient’s blood sugar is normal, hypoglycaemia is not the cause of their collapse.
By understanding the uses of these antidotes, healthcare professionals can quickly and effectively treat cases of poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to an MAOI. You stop the MAOI (which is of the non reversible kind) and wish to prescribe an SSRI.
How long should you wait before starting the SSRI?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14 days
Explanation:Switching between MAOIs and SSRIs
When switching from an MAOI to an SSRI, it is important to wait at least two weeks before starting the new medication. This is because MAOIs can inactivate the enzymes that break down certain neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline and 5HT. It can take up to two weeks for these enzymes to resume normal activity after stopping an MAOI, and during this time there is a risk of severe drug reactions if an SSRI is started too soon. Therefore, it is crucial to allow enough time for the body to adjust before switching between these types of antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which drug may NOT necessarily result in driving licence refusal or revocation, according to the DVLA's statement on persistent substance use or dependence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methadone
Explanation:Substance Use and Driving Licence Eligibility
Explanation: The use of certain psychoactive substances can lead to refusal or revocation of a driving licence. These substances include cannabis, amphetamines, ecstasy, ketamine, Lysergic acid diethylamide, hallucinogens, heroin, morphine, methadone, cocaine, and methylamphetamine. Medical enquiry will confirm persistent use or dependence on these substances. A minimum period of 6 months free of use is required for cannabis, amphetamines, ecstasy, ketamine, Lysergic acid diethylamide, and hallucinogens. For heroin, morphine, methadone, cocaine, and methylamphetamine, the period is 12 months. However, applicants or drivers who comply with a consultant-supervised oral methadone maintenance programme may be licensed, subject to a favourable assessment and annual medical review. Those on an oral buprenorphine programme may also be considered. There should be no evidence of continuing use of other substances, including cannabis. Group 2 drivers (lorries, buses, etc.) must have a minimum period of three years of stability on a maintenance programme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old known alcoholic comes to the emergency department with acute haematemesis. Emergency endoscopy shows bleeding oesophageal varices that are treated with banding. He is admitted and discharged 10 days later without any complications. What medication would be the most appropriate prophylactic agent to prevent further variceal bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Portal Hypertension and Varices in Alcoholic Cirrhosis
The portal vein is responsible for carrying blood from the gut and spleen to the liver. In cases of alcoholic cirrhosis, this flow can become obstructed, leading to increased pressure and the development of porto-systemic collaterals. The most common site for these collaterals to form is at the gastro-oesophageal junction, resulting in the development of varices. These varices are prone to rupture, leading to acute and potentially life-threatening haematemesis.
To prevent rebleeding and reduce portal pressures, beta blockers such as propranolol are commonly used. Propranolol has been found to be the most effective treatment for portal hypertension and is licensed for this purpose. By understanding the underlying mechanisms of portal hypertension and variceal formation in alcoholic cirrhosis, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and prevent potentially fatal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of retrosternal burning after eating. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. He has never smoked, but drinks 80 units of alcohol per week. Based on these factors, which is the most likely indication that he is dependent on alcohol?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Feels he needs more alcohol to have the same effect as it would have had last year
Explanation:Identifying Problem Drinking: Symptoms and Screening Tools
Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and daily life. Here are some common symptoms of alcohol dependence and screening tools that can help identify problem drinking:
– Tolerance: Needing more alcohol to achieve the same effect as before.
– Craving: Strong desire to drink.
– Loss of control: Inability to stop drinking once started.
– Withdrawal symptoms: Physical symptoms when not drinking.
– AUDIT questionnaire: Comprehensive screening tool for problem drinking.
– AUDIT-C: Shortened form of AUDIT questionnaire consisting of three questions.
– CAGE questionnaire: Screening tool for problem drinking with a score of 2 or more indicating high likelihood of problem drinking.
– Excessive alcohol consumption linked to over 200 medical conditions.
– Types of alcohol consumed do not impact dependence.
– Inability to fulfill responsibilities due to alcohol consumption is a feature of problem drinking.It is important to recognize the symptoms of problem drinking and utilize screening tools to identify and address the issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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