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Question 1
Correct
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A 58-year-old man is seen in the geriatric clinic for review. He has developed a symmetrical tremor and bradykinesia. His general practitioner is concerned that he may have developed Parkinson’s disease. He has a long medical history and is on various medications. You are concerned that his presentation may be related to a drug-induced effect, rather than a primary neurological disease.
Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Drug-Induced Parkinsonism: Understanding the Effects of Common Medications
Drug-induced parkinsonism is a condition that can be caused by certain medications. One such medication is metoclopramide, which acts as a dopamine antagonist and can prevent dopamine from binding to receptors in the basal ganglia, leading to Parkinsonian-like symptoms. Other medications that can cause this condition include typical and atypical anti-psychotics, as well as certain antiemetics.
However, not all medications have this effect. Cyclizine, for example, is a H1-histamine receptor blocker and is not implicated in the development of drug-induced parkinsonism. Similarly, gabapentin, simvastatin, and tramadol are not known to cause this condition.
It is important to understand the potential side effects of medications and to differentiate between drug-induced parkinsonism and Parkinson’s disease, as the former can present with bilateral symptoms. By being aware of the effects of common medications, healthcare professionals can better manage their patients’ conditions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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A new vaccine is being tested in healthy volunteers with normal immune function. It is distributed in the lymphatic system only and has limited renal excretion.
A subcutaneous injection of the vaccine is given at 9:00 am and a peak antibody response is reached at 10:00 am. The levels of antibodies in the blood serum at various time points are given below:
Time Antibody concentration
10:00 200 IU/mL
12:00 100 IU/mL
14:00 50 IU/mL
What is the half life of this vaccine?Your Answer: 2 hours
Explanation:Metabolism, Excretion, and Clearance of Drugs
Metabolism and excretion play a crucial role in eliminating active drugs from the body. Metabolism converts drugs into inactive metabolites, while excretion removes the drug or its metabolite from the body. Renal excretion is the most common method of drug elimination, but some drugs may also be excreted through bile or feces. Clearance refers to the rate at which active drug is removed from the circulation, and it involves both renal excretion and hepatic metabolism. However, hepatic metabolism can be difficult to measure, so clearance is typically used to measure renal excretion only.
Most drugs follow first order kinetics, which means that the drug concentration in plasma will decrease by half at a constant interval of time. For example, if the drug concentration in plasma is 120 mg/L, it will drop to 60 mg/L in two hours. After another two hours, the concentration will halve again to 30 mg/L. This pattern continues until the drug is completely eliminated from the body. The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the drug concentration to halve, and it is typically around two hours for most drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 72-year-old retired head teacher undergoes a right hemicolectomy for a colonic carcinoma. The neuromuscular blocking agent used during intubation and surgery acts by competitive inhibition at the receptor site. Which of the following drugs is a neuromuscular blocking agent that works through competitive inhibition?
Your Answer: Pancuronium
Explanation:Understanding Neuromuscular Blockers: Types and Actions
Neuromuscular blockers are drugs that are commonly used during surgical procedures to induce muscle relaxation. There are two types of neuromuscular blockers: non-depolarising and depolarising blockers.
Non-depolarising blockers, such as pancuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, and tubocurarine, act as competitive inhibitors by competing with acetylcholine for the receptor site. Their action is reversible and can be terminated by the use of an anticholinesterase, such as neostigmine or edrophonium.
Neostigmine prolongs the action of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, without competition. It is sometimes used to treat acute attacks of myasthenia gravis.
Depolarising blockers, such as succinylcholine and suxamethonium, are irreversible. Their initial action is to cause stimulation, which may result in muscle fasciculation. Suxamethonium has a rapid onset and is short-acting, but its effects can be devastating in patients with a deficiency of the enzyme pseudocholinesterase.
Edrophonium prolongs the action of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, without competition. It was historically used to diagnose myasthenia during the Tensilon® test, but this test has a high risk for cardiac events.
Understanding the types and actions of neuromuscular blockers is important for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective use during surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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You receive a discharge summary for Ms Chen, a 65-year-old lady, who has had an acute surgical admission with pancreatitis. The summary notes that it was thought to be drug-related. Her past medical history includes atrial fibrillation and type 2 diabetes. Her regular medications are ramipril, warfarin, gliclazide, sitagliptin, and simvastatin. She also takes an over-the-counter vitamin C supplement.
Which of her medications might have caused this presentation and should be reported by Yellow Card?Your Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation:Pancreatitis is a rare but significant side effect of DPP 4-inhibitors, while Bisoprolol, apixaban, and vitamin D do not have this adverse effect. Metformin does not cause pancreatitis, but it can increase the risk of lactic acidosis, which is why it should be discontinued in cases where there is a risk of this condition, such as in serious illnesses like pancreatitis. The correct answer is Sitagliptin, as DPP 4-inhibitors have been linked to acute pancreatitis and should be discontinued if suspected and reported through the Yellow Card system.
The following table provides a summary of the typical side-effects associated with drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus. Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal side-effects and lactic acidosis. Sulfonylureas can lead to hypoglycaemic episodes, increased appetite and weight gain, as well as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion and liver dysfunction (cholestatic). Glitazones are associated with weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, and fractures. Finally, gliptins have been linked to pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 21-year-old presents to the emergency department after taking an overdose of paracetamol and half a bottle of rum following a recent breakup. Their medical history includes epilepsy treated with carbamazepine and depression treated with citalopram. They smoke 10 cigarettes a day and typically consume 4 units of alcohol per week. What aspect of their medical history places them at the greatest risk for liver damage?
Your Answer: Epilepsy treatment
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is influenced by various factors such as liver function, medication use, and nutrition. Carbamazepine, a liver enzyme-inducing drug, is known to increase the risk of hepatotoxicity following an overdose. Contrary to popular belief, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity and may even have a protective effect. Citalopram treatment does not affect the hepatotoxicity of paracetamol overdose. Smoking history does not have any long-term impact on liver damage. The impulsive nature of the overdose is more of a psychiatric concern than a medical one related to hepatotoxicity.
Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old diabetic male patient arrives at the clinic with worries about his erectile dysfunction. Can you explain the mechanism of action of sildenafil?
Your Answer: Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor
Explanation:A phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor is what sildenafil is.
Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.
Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.
Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.
Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 67-year-old male complains of swelling in both ankles. He reports no difficulty in breathing. Upon examining his chest, no abnormalities were found. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and angina. Which medication is the most probable culprit for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Verapamil is less likely to cause ankle swelling compared to dihydropyridines such as amlodipine.
Ankle swelling is a known side effect of amlodipine, which belongs to the dihydropyridine class of calcium channel blockers. On the other hand, verapamil is less likely to cause this side effect.
Metformin and empagliflozin, commonly used in diabetes management, are not associated with ankle oedema. However, thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone are known to cause fluid retention.
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is often prescribed to treat ankle oedema caused by fluid overload.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is suspected of having ingested a substance with anticholinesterase effects. What combination of signs, if present, would most likely confirm this effect?
Your Answer: Bradycardia and urinary retention
Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis
Explanation:Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitors and Muscarinic Effects
An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, also known as an anticholinesterase, is a chemical that prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine (ACh) by inhibiting the cholinesterase enzyme. This leads to an increase in both the level and duration of action of ACh, a neurotransmitter that stimulates postganglionic receptors to produce various effects such as salivation, lacrimation, defecation, micturition, sweating, miosis, bradycardia, and bronchospasm. These effects are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarinic receptors since muscarine produces these effects.
One pathological syndrome associated with excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system is SLUD, which stands for Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, and emesis. SLUD is not likely to occur naturally and is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. Nerve gases irreversibly inhibit the acetylcholinesterase enzyme, leading to a chronically high level of ACh at cholinergic synapses throughout the body. This, in turn, chronically stimulates ACh receptors throughout the body, resulting in SLUD and other muscarinic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 16-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with her friend. The friend reports that they had an argument and the patient took 'lots of tablets'. The patient denies this but agrees to further investigations. Her ABG results show:
Normal range
pH: 7.47 (7.35 - 7.45)
pO2: 12 (10 - 14)kPa
pCO2: 3.6 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
HCO3: 22 (22 - 26)mmol/l
BE: +1 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
After two hours, the patient complains of feeling very unwell and experiencing ringing in her ears. A repeat ABG is performed and shows:
Normal range
pH: 7.16 (7.35 - 7.45)
pO2: 11 (10 - 14)kPa
pCO2: 3.1 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
HCO3: 8 (22 - 26)mmol/l
BE: -19 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Aspirin overdose
Explanation:The typical image of an aspirin overdose is characterized by an initial respiratory alkalosis caused by heightened respiratory effort due to stimulation of the central respiratory center. Subsequently, a metabolic acidosis develops in conjunction with the respiratory alkalosis, which is attributed to the direct impact of the salicylic acid metabolite.
Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.
It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who presents with skin changes on her left lower leg. Upon examination, Samantha has a low-grade fever and the left lower leg is erythematosus, mildly swollen, and warm to the touch. The diagnosis is cellulitis, and due to Samantha's penicillin allergy, a course of oral clarithromycin is prescribed.
One week later, Samantha returns with new palpitations. What potential ECG side effect can be associated with this antibiotic?Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval
Explanation:Macrolides have the potential to cause QT interval prolongation, which is a known side effect. Additionally, palpitations may occur as an uncommon side effect of macrolides. A shortened PR interval may indicate pre-excitation or an AV nodal (junctional) rhythm, while a prolonged PR interval suggests first-degree AV block. Prominent P waves are typically caused by right atrial enlargement, which can be due to various conditions such as chronic lung disease, tricuspid stenosis, congenital heart disease, or primary pulmonary hypertension.
Macrolides: Antibiotics that Inhibit Bacterial Protein Synthesis
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation, which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated.
Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA. Adverse effects of macrolides include prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, with nausea being less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin. Cholestatic jaundice is also a potential risk, although using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which can cause interactions with other medications. For example, taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, macrolides are a useful class of antibiotics that can effectively treat bacterial infections. However, it is important to be aware of their potential adverse effects and interactions with other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents for a medication review after being discharged from the hospital three months ago following a cholecystectomy. He was started on new medications for hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Despite feeling well, he has noticed ankle swelling and suspects it may be a side effect of one of the new medications. During examination, his blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg, and his heart rate is 68/min irregularly irregular. Which medication is most likely causing this side effect?
Your Answer: Felodipine
Explanation:Felodipine is the correct answer as it is a calcium channel blocker commonly used as a first-line treatment for hypertension in patients over 55. One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is peripheral edema. Dihydropyridines, such as amlodipine, are more likely to cause ankle swelling as they work on calcium receptors located on the vascular smooth muscle, causing muscle relaxation and vasodilation. This leads to increased capillary pressure, fluid leakage, and ankle edema. On the other hand, non-dihydropyridines, such as verapamil, are more selective for myocardial calcium receptors, resulting in reduced cardiac contraction and heart rate.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of chest pain, breathlessness, and palpitations. An admission ECG reveals ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a ventricular rate of 170 bpm. His blood pressure is 100/66 mmHg, and his oxygen saturations are 95% on air and 100% on high flow oxygen (15 L/min). His blood sugar level is 8.3 mmol/L. Despite his condition, he remains alert and able to communicate. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and asthma. The medical team administers intravenous amiodarone to attempt to stop the arrhythmia. What is the mandatory intervention while giving intravenous amiodarone?
Your Answer: Continuous ECG recording should be done via cardiac monitoring
Explanation:Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic drug that prolongs the repolarisation phase of the action potential by modulating calcium and potassium permeability. It is useful in various cardiac arrhythmias but requires continuous ECG monitoring due to its negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects. Amiodarone is metabolised via the cytochrome P450 enzyme system and is contraindicated in bradycardia and second or third degree heart block. Rapid infusion can cause a significant drop in blood pressure and should be avoided. Amiodarone can cause pulmonary complications, so routine chest x-rays and follow-up radiographs are recommended. It does not affect glucose metabolism but can cause hypoglycaemia when used with some oral antidiabetic drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 21-year-old male student from Egypt presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of increasing lethargy and reduced exercise tolerance. He also reports dark urine. These symptoms started 2 days after he finished a course of antibiotics for a lower respiratory tract infection.
On examination, you notice yellow sclerae bilaterally. His abdomen is soft and non-tender, respiratory and neurological examinations are unremarkable, cardiac examination shows sinus tachycardia of 110 beats/min.
His blood test results are as follows:
Hb 89 g/L (135-180)
Platelets 450* 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Bilirubin 65 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 90 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 33 u/L (3 - 40)
Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)
Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Reticulocytes 4 % (0.5 - 1.5)
Blood film Heinz bodies
Which antibiotic is responsible for the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in individuals from the Mediterranean and Africa. Ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in individuals with G6PD deficiency as it can cause haemolytic anaemia. This condition is characterized by the presence of Heinz bodies, which are small round inclusions composed of denatured haemoglobin, in red blood cells. Other antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, and tetracyclines are safe to use in individuals with G6PD deficiency.
Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis
Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.
While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for patients with heart conditions.
Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with increasing shortness of breath and a productive cough. He is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia and is commenced on cefuroxime and clarithromycin. He has a past medical history significant for atrial fibrillation, type II diabetes, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), haemorrhoids and hypertension. His medications include warfarin, metformin, gliclazide and ramipril.
Four days into his admission, he suffers an episode of epistaxis, which resolves with simple first aid measures. An international normalised ratio (INR) is measured and is found to be 8.2. He is haemodynamically stable and a full ABCDE assessment reveals a small amount of PR bleeding. He weighs 75 kg.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take?Your Answer: Stop warfarin immediately and administer 5 mg phytomenadione by slow IV injection
Explanation:Management of Overcoagulation in a Patient on Warfarin Therapy
When a patient on warfarin therapy presents with an INR of 8.2 and minor bleeding, the most appropriate action is to stop warfarin immediately and administer 5 mg phytomenadione by slow IV injection. This is because the recent administration of clarithromycin may have reduced the metabolism of warfarin, leading to overcoagulation. Warfarin inhibits vitamin-K-dependent clotting factors, and the administration of vitamin K replenishes these factors, increasing the clotting ability of plasma. Continuing warfarin, even at a lower dose, is not appropriate and the INR should be re-checked regularly until it falls below 5.0. While fresh frozen plasma is not specifically indicated in the absence of major bleeding, stopping warfarin immediately and administering vitamin K is necessary for the management of overcoagulation in a patient on warfarin therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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A new drug, Dangerex, is being tested as an antidepressant with a lower risk of overdose and suicide. In phase 1 and 2 trials, 500 mg of the drug was administered intravenously to elderly volunteers. Shortly after, the plasma concentration was measured at 3 mg/L. What is the volume of distribution of Dangerex in litres?
Your Answer: 200
Explanation:The causes of anaemia vary and can be attributed to different factors. One possible cause is hereditary elliptocytosis (HE) heterozygote, which is usually asymptomatic and does not cause haemolysis. Thalassaemia and sickle cell anaemia, on the other hand, can lead to gallstones and have specific blood film changes that can aid in diagnosis. For instance, thalassaemia is characterized by microcytic hypochromic red cells, while sickle cell anaemia is characterized by sickle cells.
Autoimmune haemolysis, meanwhile, would show a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). If a patient has a family history of anaemia, numerous spherocytes, and a negative DAT, it is likely that they have hereditary spherocytosis. It is also important to ask about a history of neonatal jaundice.
Knowing the different causes of anaemia and their specific symptoms can help in the diagnosis and treatment of the condition. Proper diagnosis is crucial in ensuring that the patient receives the appropriate treatment and care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man has been brought to the emergency department at 16:00 after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has disclosed that he attempted suicide due to feeling overwhelmed with his postgraduate studies and has been feeling particularly lonely since he moved to university. The patient has admitted to taking 25 paracetamol tablets throughout the day since waking up at 07:00, but cannot recall when he last took some of the tablets, except that it was before 14:00. What would be the most appropriate course of action now?
Your Answer: Measure plasma paracetamol concentration before administering IV acetylcysteine
Correct Answer: Immediately administer IV acetylcysteine
Explanation:Patients who have taken a staggered paracetamol overdose should be treated with acetylcysteine, regardless of their plasma paracetamol concentration. Therefore, the correct approach for this patient is to administer IV acetylcysteine immediately. This is based on the 2012 Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) review of paracetamol overdose management. Activated charcoal is not appropriate in this case, as it should only be given within 1 hour of ingestion. IV naloxone is also not suitable as there is no evidence of an opioid overdose.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 24-year-old female patient presents at the clinic with a complaint of intense menstrual cramps. Despite taking the maximum recommended doses of ibuprofen and paracetamol, she has not experienced much relief. As a healthcare provider, you opt to prescribe a course of hyoscine tablets. Can you explain the mechanism of action of hyoscine?
Your Answer: Antispasmodic
Explanation:Hyoscine Butylbromide and Other Pain Relievers
Hyoscine butylbromide is a medication that works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the gastrointestinal, biliary, and genito-urinary tracts. It does not enter the central nervous system, so it does not cause anticholinergic side effects in the brain. Instead, it blocks ganglia in the visceral wall and has antimuscarinic activity, which can help relieve menstrual cramps that have not responded to other pain relievers.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are another type of pain reliever that work by inhibiting COX-1 and COX-2. It was once believed that only COX-2 inhibitors would provide pain relief without the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. However, these drugs were withdrawn due to an increased risk of cardiovascular events in patients who used them.
Codeine is an example of an opiate receptor agonist that can be added to other pain relievers to enhance their effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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What term is used to describe reactions that can render a drug inactive?
Your Answer: Metabolism
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics: How Drugs are Processed by the Body
Pharmacokinetics refers to the processes involved in how drugs are processed by the body. It involves four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption refers to the uptake of the drug from the gut lumen and entry into the circulation. Distribution involves the spread of the drug throughout the body, which can affect its ability to interact with its target. Metabolism involves the body’s processes to change the drug molecule, usually by deactivating it during reactions in the liver. Excretion involves the removal of the drug from the body.
Drug metabolism typically takes place in the liver and involves two phases. Phase 1 involves an initial reaction, often oxidation, but drugs can also be modified by reduction or hydrolysis. Many drugs will maintain some therapeutic activity after this step. Phase 2 involves the drug being conjugated, often to a glutathione, methyl, or acetyl group. This conjugation step usually inactivates the drug by making it more soluble and suitable for excretion via the kidneys. pharmacokinetics is important in determining the effectiveness and safety of drugs in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his roommate after he saw him convulsing on the floor of the bathroom. On arrival, he is found unresponsive to sternal rub. His vitals are:
Temperature: 37.5°C
Pulse: 120/min
Blood pressure: 100/60 mmHg
Respiratory rate: 14/min
Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air
Physical examination reveals hot and dry skin. The patient’s pupils are dilated and minimally responsive to light. ECG shows a QRS duration of 130ms. His past medical history is significant for depression, alcohol dependence, marijuana use, and occasional IV drug use.
What is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?Your Answer: Sodium bicarbonate
Explanation:Sodium bicarbonate is the appropriate treatment for tricyclic antidepressant overdose, as it widens QRS and causes arrhythmia. Thiamine is used to treat Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in alcoholics. Flumazenil reverses the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, while naloxone treats opioid intoxication.
Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.
Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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You are working in the emergency department when a patient with gross swelling of the tongue and lips following a bee-sting is brought in. The patient is haemodynamically compromised and showing signs of airway compromise, and you diagnose them with anaphylaxis. What is the correct life-saving treatment?
Your Answer: Adrenaline 0.5mg IM
Explanation:Adrenaline Administration for Anaphylaxis: Dosage and Route
Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition that requires swift treatment with adrenaline. The recommended initial dose is 0.5mg injected intramuscularly in the upper outer thigh. If symptoms do not improve, additional 0.5mg doses can be given every 5 minutes as needed. It is important to seek senior support, including a specialist in airway management, for further management.
Supplementary treatment with IV hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine can be helpful, but they do not address the airway compromise associated with anaphylaxis. Patients with a history of anaphylaxis should carry an adrenaline auto-injector, such as the EpiPen, although two may be needed for optimal dosing.
Intravenous adrenaline at a dose of 1 mg is reserved for cardiac arrest. The dose of 0.1 mg IV is incorrect for anaphylaxis, and intravenous administration of 0.5mg may cause cardiac tachyarrhythmias and should only be given by a specialist. While a total dose of 1 mg may be needed, the starting dose for IM administration should be 0.5mg, repeated as necessary. Proper administration of adrenaline is crucial in the management of anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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What is the most appropriate description of how furosemide works?
Your Answer: Inhibition of NKCC2
Explanation:Loop Diuretics and their Mechanisms of Action
Loop diuretics are commonly used to treat fluid retention in patients with heart failure, liver cirrhosis, and kidney disease. The primary mechanism of action of loop diuretics is the inhibition of NKCC2, the luminal Na-K-2Cl symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This inhibition results in increased excretion of sodium, calcium, and magnesium, leading to a reduction in fluid volume. Furosemide is the first choice loop diuretic for the treatment of fluid retention.
Other diuretics, such as spironolactone, work by blocking aldosterone receptors, resulting in potassium retention and sodium excretion. Angiotensin receptor blockers, on the other hand, work by antagonizing angiotensin 1 receptors. Indapamide’s primary mode of action is by blocking net calcium inflow, while thiazides such as hydrochlorothiazide block the thiazide-sensitive Na Cl co-transporter.
In summary, loop diuretics are effective in treating fluid retention by inhibiting NKCC2, resulting in increased excretion of sodium, calcium, and magnesium. Other diuretics work through different mechanisms, such as blocking aldosterone receptors or angiotensin 1 receptors. the mechanisms of action of these diuretics is crucial in selecting the appropriate treatment for patients with fluid retention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward after undergoing a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction. She is currently on patient controlled analgesia with morphine. The nursing staff reports that she has a decreased level of consciousness and a respiratory rate of 5 breaths per minute. While attending to her, she experiences a respiratory arrest. What is the appropriate treatment for her?
Your Answer: Intubation and ventilation
Correct Answer: 400 microgram bolus of naloxone
Explanation:To treat the respiratory arrest caused by opioid toxicity, the patient should receive a 400 microgram bolus of naloxone. It is crucial to keep in mind that naloxone half-life is short, so additional doses may be necessary.
The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal is recommended if ingested within an hour, followed by N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation if necessary. Salicylate overdose can be managed with urinary alkalinization using IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose can be treated with flumazenil in severe cases. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, but class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics should be avoided. Lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis in severe cases. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose can be treated with protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be managed with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning can be treated with the same. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose can be treated with digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose can be managed with desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning can be treated with dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be managed with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning can be treated with hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following is a competitive antagonist of aldosterone?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Diuretics: A Closer Look at Spironolactone
Diuretics are medications that promote the excretion of excess fluids and salts from the body. Spironolactone is a type of diuretic that works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. By inhibiting aldosterone, spironolactone promotes the excretion of sodium and water, while retaining potassium.
However, when used in combination with other medications such as ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Therefore, it is important to monitor electrolyte levels when using spironolactone.
Other types of diuretics include amiloride, which inhibits epithelial sodium channels, bendroflumethiazide, which inhibits the thiazide-sensitive sodium chloride symporter, and furosemide, which promotes the loss of sodium via inhibition of the sodium-potassium-chloride symporter. Lithium, on the other hand, blocks the action of vasopressin, which can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus in some patients.
In summary, spironolactone is a diuretic that works by blocking aldosterone and promoting the excretion of sodium and water while retaining potassium. However, it should be used with caution in combination with other medications and electrolyte levels should be monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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An 83-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of increased pain from his metastatic prostate cancer. He has been taking morphine sulphate modified release tablets orally at a dose of 60 mg twice a day, but the registrar has recommended switching to subcutaneous administration due to his inability to tolerate oral tablets and vomiting.
What is the appropriate dosage of morphine for a continuous subcutaneous infusion over a 24-hour period?Your Answer: 60 mg
Explanation:Converting Oral Morphine to Subcutaneous Morphine
When converting a patient from oral morphine to subcutaneous morphine, it is important to calculate the total dose of oral morphine taken in 24 hours and divide it by two. This will give you the correct dosage for subcutaneous morphine. For example, if a patient is taking 60 mg of oral morphine twice a day, the total daily dose would be 120 mg. Dividing this by two would give you a subcutaneous morphine dosage of 60 mg. It is important to note that if the patient were to be converted to subcutaneous diamorphine, the dosage would be different. Underdosing or overdosing the patient can have serious consequences, so it is crucial to calculate the correct dosage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with known depression is brought in to the Emergency Department with tachycardia, hypotension and decreased salivation. Her current prescribed medications include tricyclic antidepressants. Her partner thinks she may have taken a large amount of her tablets earlier on in the day following an argument.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial investigation?Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:Investigations for Tricyclic Antidepressant Overdose: Importance of ECG
Tricyclic antidepressant overdose can lead to a range of symptoms, including sinus tachycardia, hypotension, and acidosis. However, the most serious effect is the inhibition of sodium channels, which can lead to ventricular arrhythmias. Therefore, the first essential investigation in a patient presenting with symptoms of tricyclic overdose should be an electrocardiogram (ECG) to evaluate the cardiac rhythm. A normal ECG can rule out significant toxicity, while QRS duration can measure the severity of exposure and predict the risk of seizures and arrhythmia. Other investigations, such as a sepsis screen or chest X-ray, may be performed to rule out other causes of symptoms, but an ECG is the priority in cases of tricyclic antidepressant overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with stage 4 chronic kidney disease comes in for evaluation. What is the most crucial medication to steer clear of?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Correct Answer: Tetracycline
Explanation:Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure
When it comes to prescribing medication for patients with renal failure, it is important to be aware of which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin should be avoided, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin. These drugs can potentially harm the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.
On the other hand, some drugs can be used with dose adjustment. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as medications like digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, furosemide, and opioids, may require a lower dose in patients with chronic kidney disease. It is important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose as needed.
Finally, there are some drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics like erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as medications like diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease. However, it is still important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose if necessary.
In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of each drug. By avoiding certain drugs, adjusting doses of others, and monitoring patients closely, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presented for a medication review at the GP surgery after being recently prescribed Ramipril for hypertension. He has a medical history of chronic pain and peripheral arterial disease and is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin and co-codamol. Despite treatment, his blood pressure remains poorly controlled. Upon examination of blood results, it was found that his creatinine level had increased from 114 µmol/l to 205 µmol/l in the past two weeks. What is the most likely explanation for this rise in creatinine level?
Your Answer: Underlying renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Understanding Acute Kidney Injury in Patients Taking Ramipril with Underlying Renal Artery Stenosis
Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to cause acute kidney injury in patients with renovascular disease, such as renal artery stenosis. Therefore, it is contraindicated in such patients. While some increase in serum creatinine is expected after starting ACE inhibitors, an acceptable range of creatinine rise is up to 30% from baseline. However, if the patient’s creatinine level was already high before starting Ramipril, it suggests underlying renovascular disease rather than the increase being purely caused by the new addition of Ramipril. There is insufficient information to suggest that dehydration or obstructive nephropathy (e.g., prostate enlargement) is the cause of acute kidney injury in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes for a follow-up appointment with her physician after undergoing investigations for a 6-month period of hot flashes and absence of menstruation. The patient was previously informed that the results of a series of hormone profile tests indicate that she is experiencing premature menopause. The purpose of this appointment is to discuss management options for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). After the discussion, the patient decides to choose a Mirena intrauterine system (IUS) with additional daily estrogen. What is the recommended duration for the patient to continue with HRT?
Your Answer: Life-long
Correct Answer: Until the age of 50
Explanation:For women who undergo premature menopause, it is recommended to continue taking HRT until they reach the age of 50. Premature menopause refers to ovarian failure before the age of 40, with causes including idiopathic factors, pelvic radiotherapy, or oophorectomy. The purpose of continuing HRT until the age of 50 is to reduce the risk of osteoporosis, which is more likely to occur in women who experience premature menopause. In the given scenario, the patient is taking oral estrogen for symptom relief and progesterone from an IUS to prevent endometrial malignancy. It is not advisable to prescribe HRT for life-long use in patients with premature menopause. Providing HRT for only one year or seven months would leave the patient at a higher risk of osteoporosis. Women who experience premature menopause are at a higher risk of osteoporosis compared to those who experience menopause at the age of 45 or over. Therefore, it is important to continue HRT until the age of 50 in these women.
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progesterone to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 67-year-old male patient visits their GP for a routine medication review. They are currently taking ramipril and amlodipine for hypertension, bisoprolol and digoxin for atrial fibrillation, atorvastatin for hypercholesterolemia, and PRN paracetamol for osteoarthritis. The GP decides to change one of their medications. One week after starting the new medication, the patient presents to the emergency department with symptoms of palpitations, nausea and vomiting, lethargy, and disturbances in their color vision. An ECG reveals an AV nodal block. Which of the following new medications is most likely responsible for this event?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:The use of thiazides can lead to the development of digoxin toxicity, as evidenced by the patient’s symptoms of palpitations, nausea & vomiting, and lethargy, along with the presence of AV nodal block on the ECG. Pravastatin does not have any known interactions with digoxin, while bendroflumethiazide and other diuretics may also contribute to the development of toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Losartan, on the other hand, is not associated with any interactions with digoxin.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old man has been diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome and is being treated by the cardiology department. He has declined catheter ablation therapy and has opted for medical therapy. The cardiologist has decided to initiate treatment with amiodarone. The patient has undergone baseline investigations and has been informed about the potential side effects and monitoring requirements of amiodarone. What are the six-monthly investigations that need to be performed in this individual?
Your Answer: TFT and LFT
Explanation:Regular monitoring of thyroid function is important for individuals taking amiodarone due to the risk of thyroid dysfunction as a side effect. Therefore, 6-monthly TFTs and LFTs are recommended. In addition, baseline investigations including TFT, U&E, LFT, and chest x-ray should be done before starting amiodarone treatment. While amiodarone can cause liver fibrosis and hepatitis, regular LFTs can help detect these side effects. ECGs are not required every 6 months, but NICE recommends monitoring every 12 months due to the potential cardiac side effects of amiodarone. 6-monthly U&Es may also be considered. It is important to investigate those presenting with pulmonary symptoms/signs of pulmonary toxicity, but chest x-rays are not routinely done every 6 months.
Amiodarone is a medication that can have several adverse effects on the body. One of the most common side effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Additionally, the use of amiodarone can lead to the formation of corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, and a ‘slate-grey’ appearance. Other potential adverse effects include thrombophlebitis and injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.
It is important to note that amiodarone can also interact with other medications, leading to potentially dangerous outcomes. For example, the medication can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, which can result in an increased INR. Additionally, amiodarone can increase digoxin levels, which can lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients who are taking amiodarone and to be aware of potential drug interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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