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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about her mental health...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about her mental health after struggling to adjust to the birth of her first child a week ago. She reports feeling disorganised, experiencing auditory hallucinations, and having a low mood. She also mentions a previous miscarriage two years ago that was a difficult time for her. Is there an increased risk for this patient to develop this mental health condition again in a future pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 25-50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      85.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the most probable outcome of using allopurinol as the sole treatment...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable outcome of using allopurinol as the sole treatment for an acute gout attack?

      Your Answer: Exacerbation and/or prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol: A Drug for Gout Treatment

      Allopurinol is a medication used for the treatment of gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. It works by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is responsible for the production of uric acid. Allopurinol is typically prescribed after two or more gout attacks within a year or for individuals at higher risk with certain medical conditions. The drug should be started after the inflammation has settled and the dose should be titrated until the serum uric acid level is below 300 micromol/L. However, an abrupt lowering of urate levels can trigger an acute gout attack, so prophylactic treatment with a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug or colchicine is recommended. Allopurinol is not a uricosuric drug, so it can be used in people with poor kidney function, but lower doses are advisable. Febuxostat is an alternative for individuals who are intolerant to allopurinol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He denies alcohol excess and has a body mass index of 36 kg/m2. He is also noted to be a diet-controlled type II diabetic and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.
      Investigations Results Normal value
      Cholesterol 7.7 mmol/l <5 mmol/l
      Fasting triglyceride 2.5 mmol/l <1.7 mmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/l <40 IU/l
      Which of the following is the single most likely explanation regarding the significance of his raised liver enzyme?

      Your Answer: Probably has non alcoholic steatohepatitis, which can include fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Liver Function Test Results in a Patient with Metabolic Risk Factors

      Liver function tests are an important tool for assessing liver health. In a patient with metabolic risk factors such as obesity, dyslipidaemia, and abnormal glucose tolerance, elevated liver transaminases may indicate non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), a condition that can lead to fibrosis and eventually cirrhosis if left untreated. Weight loss and control of comorbidities are the mainstay of management for NASH. While autoimmune hepatitis is a rarer possibility, it may be considered if the patient has a history of other autoimmune disorders and a normal body mass index and lipid profile. Regardless of the specific diagnosis, abnormal liver function test results in a patient with metabolic risk factors require further investigation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      75.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old girl with Down's syndrome who has a congenital heart defect has...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl with Down's syndrome who has a congenital heart defect has been prescribed furosemide by the paediatric cardiologists. Her parents have come to get a refill. Looking at the prescription, she has been prescribed furosemide at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg twice daily. Her current weight is 16 kg. Furosemide oral solution is available at a concentration of 20 mg/5 ml. What is the appropriate amount in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 12 ml BD

      Correct Answer: 2 ml BD

      Explanation:

      Dosage Calculation for Furosemide Oral Solution

      To calculate the correct dosage for furosemide oral solution, the patient’s weight and prescribed dose must be taken into account. For example, if the patient weighs 16 kg and the prescribed dose is 0.5 mg/kg BD, then the total daily dose would be 8 mg BD (16 kg x 0.5 mg/kg).

      The furosemide oral solution comes in a concentration of 20 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 4 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, we can use the conversion factor of 8 mg = 2 ml. Therefore, the patient should take 2 ml of the furosemide oral solution twice a day. Proper dosage calculation is crucial to ensure the patient receives the correct amount of medication for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      191.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in adolescents? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      22.9
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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of a right red eye, difficulty looking at lights and a sensation of something being stuck in his eye. He has worn contact lenses since he was 18 and occasionally sleeps with them in if he forgets, after a night out. He is urgently referred for same-day ophthalmological casualty.

      On examination, a mucopurulent discharge is present and examination with a penlight reveals a round white spot of infiltrate, enhanced with the application of fluorescein, approximately 0.7mm in size. Examination of the left eye is normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial keratitis

      Explanation:

      If a person who wears contact lenses experiences a painful, red eye, they should be referred to an eye casualty to rule out microbial keratitis. Bacterial keratitis is characterized by a foreign body sensation, difficulty keeping the eye open, redness, photophobia, and a round white spot visible on penlight examination that will also stain with fluorescein. Viral keratitis presents with redness, photophobia, foreign body sensation, and watery discharge, and may show a faint branching opacity on penlight examination with fluorescein. Iritis causes a red eye and photophobia, but no foreign body sensation, and examination of the unaffected eye with a penlight will result in photophobia. There is typically no discharge or tearing, and fluorescein staining will reveal nothing. Scleritis causes severe pain that worsens overnight and radiates to the face and periorbital region, and may be accompanied by a headache, watering of the eyes, ocular redness, and photophobia. Fluorescein staining will reveal nothing. A subconjunctival hemorrhage is usually asymptomatic, with the only symptom being eye redness, and can be diagnosed by normal acuity and the absence of discharge, photophobia, or foreign body sensation.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea, which is the clear, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye. While there are various causes of keratitis, microbial keratitis is a particularly serious form of the condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Bacterial keratitis is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic keratitis are also possible, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections, environmental factors like photokeratitis, and contact lens-related issues like contact lens acute red eye (CLARE).

      Symptoms of keratitis typically include a painful, red eye, photophobia, and a gritty sensation or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. In some cases, hypopyon may be seen. If a person is a contact lens wearer and presents with a painful red eye, an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis.

      Management of keratitis typically involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics like quinolones and cycloplegic agents for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. It is important to seek urgent evaluation and treatment for microbial keratitis to prevent these potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which condition is most closely linked to supravalvular aortic stenosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is most closely linked to supravalvular aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Patau syndrome

      Correct Answer: William's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The boy diagnosed with William’s syndrome, who is also short for his age and has learning difficulties, is known for his exceptionally outgoing and sociable personality.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that presents with microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, or trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is a condition that causes learning difficulties, macrocephaly, a long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome presents with a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome presents with hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, a friendly and extroverted personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Finally, Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, presents with a characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly, micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Pierre-Robin syndrome has many similarities with Treacher-Collins syndrome, but the latter is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      23.7
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  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain. He has been...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain. He has been experiencing the pain for the past two months and has come in for an emergency appointment today because he has not had a bowel movement in a week. He cannot recall the last time he passed gas.

      He mentions that his stools have been significantly looser over the past few months and that he has noticed blood in his feces on occasion. Upon examination, it is discovered that he has lost over two stone in weight since his last visit to the practice six months ago. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a soft but distended abdomen with a mass in the left lower quadrant. A rectal examination shows an empty rectum with no abnormalities.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colonic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Likely Diagnosis for a 69-Year-Old with Weight Loss and Constipation

      A 69-year-old man with a history of weight loss, blood in his stool, and a palpable abdominal mass is likely suffering from bowel carcinoma. His symptoms have now progressed to absolute constipation due to an obstructing tumor. Other potential diagnoses, such as diverticular abscess, faecal impaction, and inflammatory bowel disease, are less likely based on his history and examination.

      A diverticular abscess typically presents with a tender mass and fever, while faecal impaction may cause a palpable mass but doesn’t typically result in weight loss or blood in the stool. Inflammatory bowel disease is rare in patients of this age and would not typically cause such significant weight loss. Overall, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with a diagnosis of bowel carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      67.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The practice nurse seeks your guidance on how to manage 23-year-old Sarah, who...

    Incorrect

    • The practice nurse seeks your guidance on how to manage 23-year-old Sarah, who is 29 weeks pregnant and has come for routine vaccinations. She reports experiencing ankle swelling and her blood pressure has increased from 117/74 mmHg at booking to 143/91 mmHg today. A urine dipstick test has revealed 1+ protein, - leukocytes, and - nitrites. What would be the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Send an MSU (mid-stream urine) and prescribe amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Urgent admission to obstetric unit

      Explanation:

      Meera’s condition has progressed to pre-eclampsia, indicated by her blood pressure exceeding 140/90 mmHg and the presence of proteinuria at a level of 1+ or higher. As per NICE guidelines, it is imperative that she is promptly admitted to an obstetric unit for close observation and potential intervention.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old woman seeks guidance regarding her worsening menstrual migraines over the past...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman seeks guidance regarding her worsening menstrual migraines over the past few months. She is currently experiencing a migraine that has persisted for 24 hours despite taking paracetamol and aspirin. What would be the most suitable course of action to alleviate her headache?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan

      Explanation:

      An appropriate substitute would be mefenamic acid in oral form.

      Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.

      When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.

      In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - At what age do girls typically start showing the initial signs of puberty?...

    Incorrect

    • At what age do girls typically start showing the initial signs of puberty?

      Your Answer: 9 years

      Correct Answer: 11.5 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females

      Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. Testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for boys occurs at the age of 14. On the other hand, in females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which usually occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for girls reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, or the first menstrual period, typically occurs at the age of 13, with a range of 11-15 years. Following menarche, there is only a slight increase of about 4% in height.

      During puberty, it is normal for boys to experience gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue. Girls may also experience asymmetrical breast growth. Additionally, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland may be seen in both males and females. These changes are all part of the normal process of puberty and should not be a cause for concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      7.5
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  • Question 12 - A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s...

    Correct

    • A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s is prescribed metformin. What is the most probable severe complication that may arise from using this medication?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metformin and Renal Failure: Understanding the Risks

      Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with type 2 diabetes. However, it is important to understand the risks associated with its use in patients with renal failure. Metformin can accumulate in the body and lead to life-threatening acidosis if not properly monitored. Therefore, it is recommended that the dose be adjusted or the drug avoided in patients with reduced kidney function. Additionally, treatment should be interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. Despite these risks, metformin remains a first-line choice for most patients with type 2 diabetes, particularly those who are overweight. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the risks and benefits of metformin use in patients with renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is in their 60s. The patient is currently taking simvastatin 20 mg, metformin 1g twice daily, and gliclazide 80 mg twice daily. The patient's latest renal function results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 141 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 3.9 mmol/l
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 115 ”mol/l

      What is the creatinine threshold at which NICE recommends considering a change in metformin dosage?

      Your Answer: > 200 ”mol/l

      Correct Answer: > 130 ”mol/l

      Explanation:

      If the creatinine level is above 130 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 45 ml/min), NICE suggests that the dosage of metformin should be reevaluated. Additionally, if the creatinine level is above 150 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 30 ml/min), NICE recommends that metformin should be discontinued.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      45.4
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  • Question 14 - You are reviewing a 4-year-old boy who is under the paediatric cardiologists with...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a 4-year-old boy who is under the paediatric cardiologists with a congenital heart condition. He is prescribed propranolol.

      The latest hospital letter following a recent appointment has advised an increase in his dosage from 0.25 mg/kg three times daily to a dose of 0.5 mg/kg three times daily.

      His current weight is 15 kg. Propranolol oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 5 mg/5 ml.

      What is the correct dosage in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 6 ml TDS

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Propranolol Dose

      When calculating the dose of propranolol, it is important to consider the patient’s weight and the daily dose required. For example, if the patient weighs 12 kg and requires a daily dose of 0.5 mg/kg, the total daily dose would be 6 mg TDS.

      To determine the amount of propranolol needed, it is important to know the concentration of the medication. In this case, the concentration is 5 mg/5 ml, which can be simplified to 1 mg/1 ml. Therefore, the total daily dose of 6 mg would be equivalent to 6 ml TDS.

      It is important to accurately calculate the dose of propranolol to ensure the patient receives the appropriate amount of medication for their condition. By considering the patient’s weight and the medication concentration, healthcare professionals can determine the correct dosage for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      91.9
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  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old female is referred with a six month history of amenorrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female is referred with a six month history of amenorrhoea and weight loss, for which no organic cause can be found.

      Which of the following features would support a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa (AN)?

      Your Answer: Delusion of being overweight

      Correct Answer: Hypotrichosis

      Explanation:

      Features of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia Nervosa (AN) is a serious eating disorder that is characterized by a phobic avoidance of normal weight, relentless dieting, self-induced vomiting, laxative use, excessive exercise, amenorrhoea, lanugo hair, hypotension, denial, concealment, over-perception of body image, and enmeshed families. Individuals with AN have an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, which leads to severe weight loss and malnutrition. They often engage in extreme behaviors to control their weight, such as restricting their food intake, purging, and over-exercising. AN can have serious physical and psychological consequences, including organ damage, osteoporosis, depression, and anxiety. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is struggling with AN.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21.3
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  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up due to concerns about...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up due to concerns about his friend's recent diagnosis of type two diabetes mellitus. He has no symptoms, medical history, or smoking history. His mother has open-angle glaucoma and his father was diagnosed with prostate cancer at age 75. During the examination, his BMI is 24 kg/mÂČ and blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg. What is the recommended health screening for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intraocular pressure screening for glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Individuals with a family history of glaucoma should undergo annual screening from the age of 40. As this patient is over 40 and has a mother with glaucoma, this is the most appropriate health screening to initiate.

      Routine chest X-ray screening for lung cancer is not recommended for asymptomatic individuals, and as this patient is a non-smoker with no symptoms, it is not the most appropriate option.

      Faecal immunochemical screening for bowel cancer is typically initiated at age 60 unless there are concerning symptoms or a family history. As this patient has neither, this is not the most appropriate screening to commence.

      While PSA screening for prostate cancer is controversial, the patient’s father’s diagnosis at age 75 would not significantly increase his risk. It could be discussed with the patient and initiated at age 50, but it is not necessary at this time.

      Although blood tests to check HbA1c could be considered, the patient has no symptoms, no family history of diabetes, and is at a healthy weight. Therefore, this is not the most important health screening to initiate.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris doesn’t cover the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals, with up to 10% of those over 80 years of age affected. Genetics, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, myopia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and corticosteroid use are all risk factors for POAG. POAG may present with peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping, which can be detected during routine optometry appointments.

      Fundoscopy signs of POAG include optic disc cupping, optic disc pallor, bayonetting of vessels, and cup notching. Optic disc cupping occurs when the cup-to-disc ratio is greater than 0.7, indicating a loss of disc substance. Optic disc pallor indicates optic atrophy, while bayonetting of vessels occurs when vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and reappear at the base. Cup notching usually occurs inferiorly where vessels enter the disc, and disc haemorrhages may also be present.

      The diagnosis of POAG is made through a series of investigations, including automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy. If POAG is suspected, referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for further evaluation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      43.2
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  • Question 17 - At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus?

      Your Answer: A 43-year-old man with asthma who uses a salbutamol, beclomethasone and salmeterol inhaler

      Correct Answer: A 67-year-old man who has no significant medical history of note other than gout

      Explanation:

      The pneumococcal vaccine is only necessary for asthmatics who use oral steroids at a level that significantly weakens their immune system. Having multiple sclerosis doesn’t warrant the pneumococcal vaccine. The 67-year-old man is eligible for the vaccine based on his age, not his medical background.

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      43.9
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  • Question 18 - A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity that has been going on for two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. On examination, there are no abnormalities, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What is the most useful test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spirometry before and after administration of bronchodilators

      Correct Answer: Refer for arterial blood studies before and after exercise

      Explanation:

      Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma

      This patient is showing signs of exercise-induced asthma. To confirm this diagnosis, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This is because exercise is the trigger for his asthma symptoms, and spirometry can measure any changes in lung function before and after physical activity. By comparing the results, doctors can determine if the patient has exercise-induced asthma and develop an appropriate treatment plan. It is important to confirm the diagnosis to ensure the patient receives the correct treatment and can continue to participate in physical activity safely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      32.9
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and his HbA1c remains high at 56 mmol/mol despite attempts to modify his lifestyle. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.

      Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      4442
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  • Question 20 - You plan to study whether a simple intervention sheet for elderly patients telling...

    Incorrect

    • You plan to study whether a simple intervention sheet for elderly patients telling them why they are not receiving antibiotics for throat infections impacts on returns to the surgery and burden of illness with respect to complications.

      Which of the following statements is correct concerning this study?

      Your Answer: If such a study has already been published then the investigators must obtain consent from the original authors to replicate their work

      Correct Answer: Approval for the study must be obtained from the local ethics committee

      Explanation:

      Ethical Considerations for a Retrospective Research Study

      This is not an audit, but rather a retrospective research study aimed at examining the impact of an intervention on both the burden of illness and local resource use. As such, it is necessary to obtain approval from the local ethical committee before proceeding with the study. While the study appears reasonable, it is important to note that the outcomes may differ from those of other studies, even if published elsewhere. Therefore, it may be beneficial to include a few more surgeries to increase the sample size.

      It is justifiable to use the same methods as another study to validate the original publication. However, it is not necessary to obtain consent from the original authors if a similar study has already been published. Overall, it is important to consider the ethical implications of conducting a retrospective research study and to ensure that all necessary approvals are obtained before proceeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      82.7
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following patients is eligible for AAA screening? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following patients is eligible for AAA screening?

      Your Answer: 45-year-old male with a longstanding history of alcohol and substance misuse

      Correct Answer: 65-year-old male with no significant past medical history or family history

      Explanation:

      AAA screening is available for men who are 65 years of age or older, as well as for men and women who have a significant family history of AAA. None of the other options meet the criteria for AAA screening eligibility.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      25.7
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  • Question 22 - A middle-aged male with type 2 diabetes comes in for a check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged male with type 2 diabetes comes in for a check-up. He is currently on metformin and has a HbA1c of 52. He has experienced multiple episodes of hypoglycemia in the past. The healthcare team decides to prescribe canagliflozin as an additional treatment.

      What information should be conveyed to the patient regarding his new medication?

      Your Answer: The new tablet has a metallic taste

      Correct Answer: Regularly check your legs for signs of ulcers

      Explanation:

      Patients taking canagliflozin should be closely monitored for any ulcers or infections on their legs and feet, as there is a potential increased risk of amputation. Canagliflozin is a medication that blocks the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased urinary glucose excretion. However, this can also increase the risk of urogenital infections and dehydration. Patients should seek medical attention if they notice any skin discoloration or ulcers.

      Before starting treatment with canagliflozin, it is important to monitor renal function and continue to do so annually. While there has been some debate about a potential association between dapagliflozin and bladder cancer, canagliflozin has been deemed safe and effective by NICE as a recommended therapy.

      Canagliflozin is generally well-tolerated and doesn’t pose any significant swallowing difficulties. However, some patients may experience a metallic taste disturbance when taking metformin, another commonly prescribed medication for diabetes.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - You see a 62-year-old man with severe lower back pain on a home...

    Correct

    • You see a 62-year-old man with severe lower back pain on a home visit. He has had lumbar back pain on and off for 3 years but it got much worse yesterday when he bent over. His back is in severe spasm and he has taken to his bed, he was unable to get to the practice today in the car due to the pain. He has no bladder or bowel symptoms and no symptoms in his legs. He is taking regular co-codamol and ibuprofen.

      What statement below regarding this patient is true?

      Your Answer: A short course of benzodiazepine can be used to relieve the muscle spasms

      Explanation:

      For patients experiencing muscle spasms and back pain, a benzodiazepine like diazepam may be prescribed for a brief period. Additionally, self-help measures such as using warm compresses (with proper skin protection) can be helpful. NSAIDs are the first line of pain relief. It is not recommended to remain in bed for an extended period, as gradually resuming normal activities and movements should not cause harm, even if some pain is present. It is not necessary for the patient to be completely pain-free before returning to work or regular activities, and adjustments can be made to facilitate an early return to work, which may be arranged through an Occupational Health department if available.

      Management of Lower Back Pain: NICE Guidelines

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of lower back pain. These guidelines apply to patients with nonspecific lower back pain, which means it is not caused by malignancy, infection, trauma, or other specific conditions.

      According to the updated guidelines, NSAIDs are now recommended as the first-line treatment for back pain. Paracetamol monotherapy is relatively ineffective for back pain, so NSAIDs are a better option. Proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs.

      Lumbar spine x-ray should not be offered as an investigation for nonspecific back pain. MRI should only be offered to patients with nonspecific back pain if the result is likely to change management, or if malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina, or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected. MRI is the most useful imaging modality as it can see neurological and soft tissue structures.

      Patients with low back pain should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. A group exercise program within the NHS is recommended for people with back pain. Manual therapy, such as spinal manipulation, mobilization, or soft tissue techniques like massage, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid can also be used for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the updated NICE guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for nonspecific back pain. Patients should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. MRI is the most useful imaging modality for investigating nonspecific back pain. Other treatments, such as manual therapy, radiofrequency denervation, and epidural injections, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      59.2
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man presents with a brief history of painless diplopia that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a brief history of painless diplopia that he first noticed while reading. The images are horizontally and vertically separated, although he notes that the degree of separation varies. During examination, the visual acuities are 6/6 in either eye. There is no pupil abnormality. There is a left ptosis, partially covering the pupil, and reduced abduction and depression of the left eye, both in abduction and adduction, with other ocular movements appearing normal. There is no other abnormality on examination. He reports that his right upper eyelid sometimes droops as well.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Horner syndrome

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Myasthenia Gravis and other eye conditions

      When a patient presents with signs of reduced function in certain eye muscles, it is important to differentiate between various conditions that could be causing the symptoms. In this case, the patient has normal function of the inferior oblique and superior rectus, but reduced function of the lateral rectus, levator palpebrae superioris, inferior rectus, and superior oblique. Additionally, there is a history of ptosis on both sides.

      Third nerve palsy, fourth nerve palsy, sixth nerve palsy, and Horner syndrome are all potential diagnoses that must be ruled out. However, each of these conditions presents with different symptoms than what the patient is experiencing.

      Based on the symptoms and history, it is likely that the patient has myasthenia gravis. This condition causes muscle weakness and fatigue, which can affect various muscles in the body, including the eye muscles. It is important to accurately diagnose myasthenia gravis in order to provide appropriate treatment and management for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      118.1
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  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner complaining of syncope without any prodromal features....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner complaining of syncope without any prodromal features. He has noticed increased dyspnea on exertion in the past few weeks. He denies any chest pain and has no known history of cardiac issues. Upon examination, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed which reveals complete heart block.
      Which of the following physical findings is most indicative of the diagnosis?
      Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Irregular cannon ‘A’ waves on jugular venous pressure

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Clinical Signs of Complete Heart Block

      Complete heart block is a condition where there is a complete failure of conduction through the atrioventricular node, resulting in bradycardia and potential symptoms such as dizziness, fatigue, dyspnea, and chest pain. Here are some clinical signs to look out for when assessing a patient with complete heart block:

      Irregular Cannon ‘A’ Waves on Jugular Venous Pressure: Cannon waves are large A waves that occur irregularly when the right atrium contracts against a closed tricuspid valve. In complete heart block, these waves occur randomly due to atrioventricular dissociation.

      Low-Volume Pulse: Complete heart block doesn’t necessarily create a low-volume pulse. This is typically found in other conditions such as shock, left ventricular dysfunction, or mitral stenosis.

      Irregularly Irregular Pulse: The ‘escape rhythms’ in third-degree heart block usually produce a slow, regular pulse that doesn’t vary with exercise. Unless found in combination with another condition such as atrial fibrillation, the pulse should be regular.

      Collapsing Pulse: A collapsing pulse is typically associated with aortic regurgitation and would not be expected with complete heart block alone.

      Loud Second Heart Sound: In complete heart block, the intensity of the first and second heart sound varies due to the loss of atrioventricular synchrony. A consistently loud second heart sound may be found in conditions such as pulmonary hypertension.

      By understanding these clinical signs, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage patients with complete heart block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 26 - Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions...

    Incorrect

    • Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions are they most likely to be effective in treating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Skin Conditions: Causes and Mechanisms

      Skin conditions can have various causes and mechanisms. Urticaria, for instance, is triggered by the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells in the skin. While IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity reactions are a common cause of urticaria, other immunological and non-immunological factors can also play a role.

      In atopic eczema, antihistamines are not recommended as a routine treatment. However, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed for a month to children with severe atopic eczema or those with mild or moderate eczema who experience severe itching or urticaria. It’s worth noting that allergies to food or environmental allergens may not be responsible for the symptoms of atopic eczema.

      Contact allergic dermatitis and erythema multiforme are examples of cell-mediated immunity, and their symptoms are not caused by histamine release. On the other hand, bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system attacks a protein that forms the junction between the epidermis and the basement membrane of the dermis.

      Understanding the causes and mechanisms of different skin conditions can help in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
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  • Question 27 - Mrs Patel is a 75-year-old woman who presents with a burning pain in...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Patel is a 75-year-old woman who presents with a burning pain in her buttock when walking. The pain radiates down her leg. She doesn't complain of any back pain. She finds that sitting helps ease the pain. In addition, she did find that leaning forwards on the shopping trolley at the supermarket made it easier to walk. On examination of her lower legs, there was no focal neurology and foot pulses were palpable.

      What investigation is most likely to be useful in diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      When spinal stenosis is suspected in a patient, the preferred imaging method is an MRI. It is important to differentiate between spinal stenosis and peripheral vascular disease, such as intermittent claudication. The absence of normal foot pulses suggests that peripheral vascular disease is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. The fact that the patient experiences relief when leaning forward is a characteristic symptom of spinal stenosis. Nerve conduction studies are not used to diagnose spinal stenosis, but rather peripheral neuropathy. To diagnose peripheral vascular disease, possible investigations include an arterial duplex scan, ankle brachial pressure index, and angiogram.

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 28 - In people with epilepsy and learning disability, which feature is not recognized compared...

    Incorrect

    • In people with epilepsy and learning disability, which feature is not recognized compared to those with epilepsy but without learning disability?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fewer therapeutic options

      Explanation:

      Challenges in Managing Epilepsy in People with Learning Disabilities

      Managing epilepsy in people with learning disabilities can be challenging due to several factors. Firstly, there are limited therapeutic options available, and antiepileptic drugs can cause adverse effects on behavior. Secondly, diagnosing epilepsy in people with learning disabilities is more difficult as it can be hard to differentiate between behavioral features and seizure activity. Additionally, people with learning disabilities are more susceptible to behavioral changes caused by antiepileptic drugs. Moreover, they have a higher risk of death than people with either epilepsy or learning disabilities alone. Therefore, risk assessment is particularly important for people with epilepsy and learning disabilities. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises paying special attention to risks in this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old male with diabetes is diagnosed with hypertension.

    You discuss starting treatment and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with diabetes is diagnosed with hypertension.

      You discuss starting treatment and initiate ramipril at a dose of 1.25 mg daily. His recent blood test results show normal full blood count, renal function, liver function, thyroid function and fasting glucose.

      His other medications are: metformin 500 mg TDS, gliclazide 80 mg OD and simvastatin 40 mg ON.

      What blood test monitoring should next be performed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat renal function in 7-14 days

      Explanation:

      Renal Function Monitoring for ACE Inhibitor Treatment

      Renal function monitoring is crucial before initiating treatment with an ACE inhibitor and one to two weeks after initiation or any subsequent dose increase, according to NICE recommendations. Although ACE inhibitors have a role in managing chronic kidney disease, they can also cause impairment of renal function that may be progressive. The concomitant use of NSAIDs and potassium-sparing diuretics increases the risks of renal side effects and hyperkalaemia, respectively.

      In patients with bilateral renal stenosis who are given ACE inhibitors, marked renal failure can occur. Therefore, if there is a significant deterioration in renal function as a result of ACE inhibition, a specialist should be involved. It is important to monitor renal function regularly to ensure the safe and effective use of ACE inhibitors in the management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for a telephone consultation seeking...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for a telephone consultation seeking advice on febrile convulsions. Her son was recently hospitalized due to his first febrile seizure, which was believed to be caused by a viral upper respiratory tract infection. She describes the convulsion as a typical, simple febrile seizure that lasted for 2-3 minutes, with complete recovery in approximately 30 minutes.

      The mother recalls being informed that there is a possibility of a recurrence, but she was unsure about what to do if it happens again. She mentions that they were not given any treatment during their hospital stay and were discharged home.

      She seeks your guidance on when to call an ambulance if her son experiences another febrile convulsion.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion lasting > 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Parents should be informed that if their child experiences a febrile convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes, they should immediately call for an ambulance. While some children may have recurrent febrile convulsions, simple ones typically last up to 15 minutes and result in complete recovery within an hour. In these cases, parents can manage their child at home with clear guidance on when to seek medical help and the use of medications like buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam. However, any febrile convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes requires immediate medical attention, and if a second convulsion occurs within 30 minutes of the first, parents should also call for an ambulance.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ÂșC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Children And Young People (1/4) 25%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (2/3) 67%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
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