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  • Question 1 - A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s...

    Correct

    • A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s is prescribed metformin. What is the most probable severe complication that may arise from using this medication?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metformin and Renal Failure: Understanding the Risks

      Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with type 2 diabetes. However, it is important to understand the risks associated with its use in patients with renal failure. Metformin can accumulate in the body and lead to life-threatening acidosis if not properly monitored. Therefore, it is recommended that the dose be adjusted or the drug avoided in patients with reduced kidney function. Additionally, treatment should be interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. Despite these risks, metformin remains a first-line choice for most patients with type 2 diabetes, particularly those who are overweight. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the risks and benefits of metformin use in patients with renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - John is a 55-year-old man who is currently experiencing severe hot flashes which...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 55-year-old man who is currently experiencing severe hot flashes which are causing him significant distress sleeping and going to work. He is adamant he doesn't want hormonal replacement therapy. What are some possible non-hormonal treatments for hot flashes?

      Your Answer: Danazol

      Correct Answer: Clonidine

      Explanation:

      Clonidine is the only option listed above that is recognized as a non-hormonal treatment for hot flashes during menopause. Amitriptyline is an antidepressant, Tibolone is a synthetic compound with estrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, Danazol is a synthetic steroid that suppresses gonadotropin production, and Clomiphene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used in fertility treatments. According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries article on treating menopause symptoms, non-hormonal therapies for hot flashes include lifestyle changes, a trial of certain medications such as paroxetine, fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine, a 24-week trial of clonidine, or a progestogen like norethisterone or megestrol (with specialist advice).

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.

      HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.

      Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter...

    Incorrect

    • You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter at a dose of 800 units. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the equivalent dose in micrograms since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.

      Which of the following is equal to 800 units of vitamin D?

      Your Answer: 20 mcg

      Correct Answer: 5 mcg

      Explanation:

      Converting Vitamin D Units to Micrograms

      Many CCG pathways recommend taking vitamin D supplements in units, but the packaging of many vitamin D suppliers lists the dose in micrograms. To convert units to micrograms for vitamin D, simply divide by 40. For example, 400 units of vitamin D is equivalent to 10 micrograms. Remember to check the packaging for the correct dosage and always consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new supplement regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old female presents with similar symptoms as the previous case, including irritability,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female presents with similar symptoms as the previous case, including irritability, tremors, unexplained weight loss, diarrhoea, palpitations and fatigue. On examination, her pulse rate is 120/min and regular. Her thyroid gland is also noted to be symmetrically enlarged but non-tender.

      Blood tests reveal the following:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.1 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 26 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb) 16 IU/L (<1.7)

      What medication can be prescribed to manage the patient's symptoms quickly while she awaits her appointment with the endocrinologist?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is an effective non-selective beta-blocker that can be used to control the symptoms of hyperthyroidism in new cases of Graves’ disease. While carbimazole is also an anti-thyroid medication that can improve thyroid levels in the long-term, it may not provide rapid symptom relief compared to beta-blockers. Metoprolol, a selective beta-blocker for beta-1 adrenergic receptors, is not as effective as propranolol in this situation. Propylthiouracil is another anti-thyroid medication that can be used instead of carbimazole, but may not provide quick symptom relief. Radioactive iodine is a specialist treatment option used by endocrinologists for patients who do not respond to anti-thyroid medications, but it doesn’t provide short-term symptom relief.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      60.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - One morning you go to see a 20-year-old female patient on the ward...

    Incorrect

    • One morning you go to see a 20-year-old female patient on the ward who has a painful eye. She was admitted yesterday with a broken arm, for which she had a successful surgery and is due to be discharged today, past medical history is unremarkable except for being nearsighted and wearing contact lenses. The patient explains her right eye has been sore since she woke up. She cannot recall if she removed her contact lenses the night before. An examination reveals diffuse redness of her right eye with both contact lenses in place but is otherwise unremarkable. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Remove contact lenses and advise her to wear glasses instead

      Correct Answer: Refer immediately to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      If the patient is using contact lenses, there is a possibility that she has a corneal ulcer. This is a serious eye condition that requires urgent attention from an ophthalmologist. Therefore, the other options are not appropriate. Removing the contact lenses could aggravate the situation, and asking her to visit an optician would only delay the diagnosis.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. Some causes of red eye require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some key distinguishing features of different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and a semi-dilated pupil. The patient may also see haloes and have a hazy cornea.

      Anterior uveitis has an acute onset and is accompanied by pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may be worse on movement. It may be associated with an underlying autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by purulent discharge, while viral conjunctivitis has a clear discharge.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and is characterized by a red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Under what conditions is MMR (measles, mumps and rubella) vaccination not recommended? ...

    Incorrect

    • Under what conditions is MMR (measles, mumps and rubella) vaccination not recommended?

      Your Answer: Patient is pregnant

      Correct Answer: HIV positive individual who is not immunosuppressed

      Explanation:

      MMR Vaccination Contraindications

      There are only a few individuals who cannot receive the MMR vaccination. The vaccine should not be given to those who are immunosuppressed, have had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of a measles, mumps, or rubella-containing vaccination, or have a previous confirmed anaphylactic reaction to neomycin or gelatin. Pregnant women should also avoid the vaccine due to a theoretical risk of fetal infection. However, true anaphylaxis following the MMR vaccination is rare, occurring at a rate of 3.5 to 14.4 per million doses. If a minor allergic reaction occurs, it is not a contraindication to future vaccination. Inactivated vaccines are safe for pregnant women, but should only be used if protection is needed without delay. It is recommended to consult with a specialist or local immunisation coordinator for further advice if there is any doubt.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 12-year-old boy attends his General Practice Surgery for his annual learning disability...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy attends his General Practice Surgery for his annual learning disability health check with his father. He reports feeling low in mood for several weeks, along with a poor appetite and sleep. He admits to occasionally self-harming but currently denies any suicidal thoughts, plans or intent.
      Which of the following management steps would be most appropriate in primary care?

      Your Answer: Refer for counselling

      Correct Answer: Refer to local learning disability team

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management of Depression in People with Learning Disabilities

      When a person with a learning disability is suspected of having a mental health condition, it is recommended that they are assessed by a Mental Health Practitioner (MHP) with expertise in learning disability. This assessment can be arranged through the local learning disability team or, in some cases, the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service.

      If a person with a learning disability is displaying signs of depression, it is important to arrange follow-up in primary care and refer them to an MHP with expertise in managing learning disability. While counselling is not recommended for the treatment of mental health conditions in people with a learning disability, adapted cognitive behavioural therapy, relaxation therapy, graded exposure therapy, or parent training may be effective treatments.

      It is not appropriate for GPs to prescribe psychotropic medication for patients with a learning disability, and prescribing such drugs in children is discouraged in primary care. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as imipramine, are not commonly used as first-line treatment for depression, especially in children, due to the potential for a fatal overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of red discolouration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of red discolouration of his urine. He was diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis two months ago and has been taking warfarin since then. His most recent INR test, done two days ago, shows a reading of 2.7. During the examination, no abnormalities are found, but his dipstick urine test shows +++ of blood and + protein. A MSU test shows no growth. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Suggest discontinuing warfarin

      Correct Answer: Reassure and monitor INR and warfarin dose closely

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Unexplained Haematuria and Previous DVT

      This patient presents with unexplained haematuria and a history of previous DVT. It is important to consider the possibility of underlying occult neoplasia of the renal tract. Therefore, an urgent referral to the urologists is the most appropriate course of action.

      It is important to note that in cases where the patient is on therapeutic INR with warfarin, the haematuria should not be attributed to the medication. Warfarin may unmask a potential neoplasm, and it is crucial to investigate the underlying cause of the haematuria. Early detection and treatment of neoplasia can significantly improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      89.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The guidance produced by the General Medical Council (GMC) pertains to the treatment...

    Incorrect

    • The guidance produced by the General Medical Council (GMC) pertains to the treatment and care provided during the end of life. Which of the following options aligns best with this guidance?

      Your Answer: A doctor cannot withdraw from providing care because religious beliefs conflict with a patient’s refusal of treatment

      Correct Answer: Patients can make advanced requests for treatment that they feel may be denied them

      Explanation:

      Ethical Considerations in End-of-Life Care

      End-of-life care can present complex ethical dilemmas for healthcare professionals. Here are some important considerations:

      – Advanced Requests: Patients can make advanced requests for treatments they fear may be denied to them. While these requests cannot bind future decisions, they must be given weight by decision-makers if the patient has lost capacity.
      – Religious Beliefs: A doctor cannot withdraw from providing care because their religious beliefs conflict with a patient’s refusal of treatment. However, if their beliefs conflict with a decision about overall benefit, arrangements must be made for another doctor to take over.
      – Decision-Making: Patients with capacity may devolve decision-making to their doctor if they find it distressing. However, they still need basic information to give consent to any proposed treatment.
      – Starting and Withdrawing Treatment: Emotional distress should not override clinical judgement when deciding whether to start or withdraw treatment.
      – Withholding Information: Information about a terminal prognosis should not be withheld unless giving it would likely cause the patient serious harm. Serious harm means more than just upsetting the patient or causing them to refuse treatment.

      Overall, ethical considerations in end-of-life care require a delicate balance between respecting patient autonomy and ensuring that decisions are made in the patient’s best interests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy experiences urinary retention and an acute kidney injury. Which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Due to the risk of lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued as the patient has developed an acute kidney injury. Additionally, in the future, it may be necessary to discontinue paroxetine as SSRIs can exacerbate urinary retention.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man with advanced lung cancer is an inpatient in his local...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with advanced lung cancer is an inpatient in his local hospice for symptom control. He is currently unable to swallow medication. A General Practitioner (GP) who works at the hospice one day a week is on call when the patient has his first seizure. It has not resolved after five minutes. Resuscitation equipment is available and the GP is aware that the patient wants active treatment should a seizure occur at home or in the hospice but is not for admission to hospital.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Seizures in Palliative Care Patients

      Seizures are a common occurrence in palliative care patients, often caused by brain tumors or biochemical imbalances. Advance care planning is crucial to prevent unwanted hospital admissions. Here are some treatment options:

      1. Intravenous Lorazepam: Administer 4 mg by slow injection if resuscitation equipment is available.

      2. Midazolam or Diazepam: Buccal or subcutaneous administration of 10 mg midazolam or 10 mg rectal solution or per stoma of diazepam is recommended as first-line treatment. If seizure activity persists, the dose can be repeated once after 10-20 minutes.

      3. Intravenous Phenytoin: 15 mg/kg (maximum total dose 1 g) can be used for refractory seizures, but requires a filter and cardiac monitoring.

      4. Intramuscular Diamorphine: This is not a suitable treatment for seizure activity.

      5. Intramuscular Diazepam: Diazepam is a reasonable first-line treatment, but the 10 mg dose should be administered per rectum (or via a stoma if appropriate), and not intramuscularly.

      6. Intramuscular Phenobarbital: Phenobarbital 100-200 mg intramuscularly would only be used for a protracted seizure not responding to first-line treatment, under specialist supervision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old man presents with elbow pain.
    Which physical examination finding would be most...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with elbow pain.
      Which physical examination finding would be most indicative of a diagnosis of tennis elbow? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Pain on resisted wrist extension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tennis Elbow: Symptoms and Causes

      Tennis elbow, also known as lateral epicondylitis, is a common condition that causes pain and tenderness in the lateral elbow and upper forearm. It is caused by repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle, specifically at the muscle-tendon junction at the lateral epicondyle. This article will discuss the symptoms and causes of tennis elbow.

      Symptoms of Tennis Elbow:
      – Lateral elbow and upper forearm pain and tenderness
      – Pain exacerbated by active and resisted movements of the extensor muscles of the forearm
      – Pain on resisted extension of the wrist or middle finger

      Causes of Tennis Elbow:
      – Repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle
      – Overuse of the forearm muscles during activities such as tennis, painting, or typing
      – Poor technique or equipment during physical activities
      – Age-related degeneration of the tendons

      It is important to note that decreased sensation in the 4th and 5th fingers is not a symptom of tennis elbow, but rather a feature of ulnar neuropathy that may be associated with medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s elbow). Severe restriction of passive movement and swelling of the elbow joint are also not typical symptoms of tennis elbow. Tenderness over the medial epicondyle of the humerus is a symptom of Golfer’s elbow, which is inflammation of the tendon at the origin of the flexor forearm muscles causing medial elbow pain.

      If you are experiencing symptoms of tennis elbow, it is important to seek medical attention and rest the affected arm to prevent further injury. Treatment options may include physical therapy, pain management, and in severe cases, surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old mother brings her 8-month-old son to the emergency surgery, concerned about...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old mother brings her 8-month-old son to the emergency surgery, concerned about his breathing pattern. She thinks he may have asthma as he seems to be breathing faster than her 5-year-old nephew.

      The mother reports no cough or wheeze, and the child has no fever or rash. He is happily playing in the clinic room, and there are no developmental issues or family history of atopy.

      Upon clinical examination, there is no respiratory distress, and the chest is clear bilaterally. All other systems appear normal. The following are the child's observations:
      Heart Rate 125 beats per minute
      Respiratory Rate 32 breaths per minute
      Saturations 98% on air
      Temperature 37.2ºC

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Reassure the mother findings are normal

      Explanation:

      A child under 1 typically has a normal respiratory rate of 30-40 breaths per minute. The AKT may test knowledge of normal ranges, and sometimes the best course of action is to do nothing.

      If a mother expresses concern about her child’s respiratory rate being higher than an older child’s, but the child’s rate is within the normal range for their age group (such as 34 breaths per minute), referral or medication would not be necessary and would be a misuse of resources.

      During a physical examination of a child, certain vital signs are checked to ensure that they fall within normal ranges. These ranges vary depending on the age of the child. For example, a heart rate of 110-160 beats per minute is considered normal for a child under the age of one, while a heart rate of 80-100 beats per minute is normal for a child over the age of 12. Similarly, systolic blood pressure, which measures the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats, and respiratory rate, which measures the number of breaths per minute, also have different normal ranges depending on the child’s age. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these normal ranges in order to identify any potential health concerns in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a painful, persistent erection...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a painful, persistent erection that has lasted for six hours and doesn't subside. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Priapism: Causes and Types

      Priapism is a medical condition characterized by prolonged and painful erections that can last for several hours. There are two types of priapism: low-flow (ischaemic) and high-flow (arterial). Low-flow priapism is the most common type and is often associated with sickle cell disease, leukaemia, thalassemia, and other medical conditions. It is caused by the inadequate return of blood from the penis, resulting in a rigid erection. High-flow priapism, on the other hand, is less common and is usually caused by a ruptured artery from a blunt injury to the penis or perineum.

      Stuttering priapism is a distinct condition that is characterized by repetitive and painful episodes of prolonged erections. It is a type of low-flow priapism and is often associated with sickle cell disease. The duration of the erectile episodes in stuttering priapism is generally shorter than in the low-flow ischaemic type.

      Other medical conditions that can cause priapism include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, Fabry’s disease, neurologic disorders, such as spinal cord lesions and spinal cord trauma, and neoplastic diseases, such as prostate, bladder, testicular, and renal cancer and myeloma. Many drugs can also cause priapism, but nearly 50% of cases are idiopathic.

      In conclusion, priapism is a serious medical condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the causes and types of priapism can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      115.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision. Upon examination, she displays exophthalmos and conjunctival oedema, leading to a suspicion of thyroid eye disease. What can be inferred about her thyroid condition?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroid

      Correct Answer: Eu-, hypo- or hyperthyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is often linked to hyperthyroidism from Graves’ disease, but it can also occur in euthyroid or hypothyroid patients. The severity of the eye disease is not necessarily related to the level of thyrotoxicosis.

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has just been diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 and has developed a rash that is consistent with erythema multiforme.
      What is the most probable finding in this patient?

      Your Answer: Target lesions with a central blister

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Erythema multiforme is a self-limiting skin condition that is characterized by sharply demarcated, round, red or pink macules that evolve into papular plaques. The lesions typically develop a central blister or crust and a surrounding paler pink ring that is raised due to oedema, creating the classic target appearance. However, atypical targets may also occur, with just two zones and/or an indistinct border. Mucous membranes may also be involved.

      The most common cause of erythema multiforme is Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1, followed by Mycoplasma, although many other viruses have been reported to cause the eruption. Drugs are an infrequent cause, and conditions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are now considered distinct from erythema multiforme.

      Unlike monomorphic eruptions, the lesions in erythema multiforme are polymorphous, meaning they take on many forms. The rash may also involve the palms and soles, although this is not always the case. While there may be a mild itch associated with the condition, intense itching is more commonly seen in Chickenpox in children.

      Lesions in erythema multiforme typically start on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet and spread along the limbs towards the trunk. The condition usually resolves without complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Can you rephrase the question to ask for the correct incubation periods for...

    Correct

    • Can you rephrase the question to ask for the correct incubation periods for the given diseases?

      Your Answer: Rubella seven to 10 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding Incubation Periods of Disorders

      It is crucial to have knowledge about the incubation periods of various disorders as it can help in providing treatments to prevent or reduce the severity of the condition. For instance, pregnant women can be offered treatment for Chickenpox to avoid any complications. The incubation periods of some common disorders are as follows:

      – Chickenpox: 7-21 days
      – Whooping cough: average 10-14 days (range 6-20)
      – Hand, foot and mouth disease: 2-6 days
      – German measles: 14-21 days
      – Mumps: 14-21 days

      By understanding the incubation periods of these disorders, individuals can take necessary precautions and seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms. Proper management during the incubation period can help in preventing the spread of the disease and reducing its impact on the affected individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child...

    Correct

    • Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child after three rounds of IVF. She is now contemplating adoption and fostering as alternatives. Anna adores children and desires to have a big family.

      What is the highest number of children that Anna can foster simultaneously?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      As per the Children Act 1989, families are restricted to fostering a maximum of three children.

      Foster care is a system in which children who cannot live with their birth families are placed with foster families who provide them with a safe and nurturing environment. According to Schedule 7 of the Children Act 1989, there is a limit of three foster children per family. Additionally, all children in long-term foster care require a medical examination every six months to ensure their physical and emotional well-being. This system aims to provide children with stability and support while their birth families work towards resolving any issues that led to their placement in foster care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old smoker has been experiencing a persistent cough and chest pain. A...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old smoker has been experiencing a persistent cough and chest pain. A plain chest x-ray examination suggests a diagnosis of bronchial carcinoma. However, before a tissue diagnosis can be made, the patient unexpectedly dies in the hospital due to a massive haemoptysis. The relatives consent to a post mortem examination, which reveals that the patient actually had tuberculosis and not carcinoma. Is there a requirement to report this to a specific authority, and if so, which one?

      Your Answer: Consultant in Communicable Diseases Control

      Explanation:

      Reporting Notifiable Diseases in England and Wales

      Doctors in England and Wales have a legal obligation to report suspected cases of certain infectious diseases to the appropriate authorities. The purpose of reporting is to help control the spread of diseases. The local Consultant in Communicable Disease Control is usually the Proper Officer to whom doctors should report. However, if in doubt, doctors can find details of the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) on the Public Health England website.

      Doctors should fill out a notification certificate immediately upon diagnosing a suspected notifiable disease, without waiting for laboratory confirmation. The certificate should be sent to the Proper Officer within three days or verbally within 24 hours if the case is considered urgent.

      The following diseases are notifiable under the Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010: Acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman says she is currently struggling to cope at work and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman says she is currently struggling to cope at work and feels she needs some time off work. She has become depressed but denies any suicidal thoughts or intent. She feels anxious, shaky and nauseous most mornings. She admits to drinking about 40 - 50 units of alcohol per week. She is aware that this is too much but has not connected it to her current problems.
      What is the most appropriate response to this patient’s situation?

      Your Answer: Provide him with information about specialist alcohol services

      Explanation:

      Providing Support for Alcohol Dependence: A Patient-Centered Approach

      When working with a patient who displays signs of alcohol dependence, it is important to approach the situation with empathy and understanding. Referral to specialist alcohol services is recommended for those with moderate or severe dependence, and screening with an AUDIT or AUDIT-C questionnaire can help quantify the level of dependence. It is not helpful to use the threat of job loss as a means of motivating the patient to stop drinking, and offering a Statement of Fitness for Work should not be conditional on immediate cessation of alcohol use. Prescribing fluoxetine may not be effective while alcohol use is ongoing, and making judgemental statements about the patient’s behavior is not productive. Instead, a patient-centered approach that focuses on support and understanding can help the patient address their underlying issues with alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old Caucasian lady comes to the clinic with a complaint of left...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old Caucasian lady comes to the clinic with a complaint of left vision becoming wavy and blurry for the past week. She reports that her venetian blinds appear distorted with her left eye. She has no other medical issues. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Urgent ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      Macular Degeneration: A Common Cause of Distorted Vision in Elderly Patients

      An elderly patient complaining of wavy distorted vision should raise suspicion of macular degeneration, a common age-related eye condition. There are two types of macular degeneration: dry and wet. Unfortunately, there is no treatment for the dry type, but patients can be advised on good lighting and the use of magnifying glasses to aid their vision. However, patients should be aware that there is a 10% chance of the dry type converting into the more aggressive wet type.

      The wet type of macular degeneration can be treated with anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) injections, which are given directly into the eye. This treatment aims to stabilize the condition and prevent further loss of central vision. While it is not a cure, a large minority of patients may experience some improvement in their vision. Therefore, it is crucial to refer patients with suspected macular degeneration to an ophthalmologist urgently, as delays may impact the prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old man with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is being seen in...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is being seen in clinic. His most recent MMSE score is 18 out of 30, indicating 'moderate' dementia. As per NICE guidelines, what additional steps should be taken?

      Your Answer: Supportive care + donepezil

      Explanation:

      Management of Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.

      Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 56-year-old man presents with a persistent cough. He reports no other health...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a persistent cough. He reports no other health concerns and is not taking any regular medications. During the consultation, he requests a brief examination of his toenail, which has recently changed in appearance without any known cause. Specifically, the nail on his right big toe is thickened and yellowed at the outer edge. Although he experiences no discomfort or other symptoms, he is curious about the cause of this change.

      What initial management approach would you recommend in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment necessary if he is happy to leave it; give self-care advice

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a fungal nail infection that is asymptomatic and doesn’t bother them in terms of appearance, treatment may not be necessary according to NICE CKS guidelines. However, if treatment is desired, topical antifungal treatment for 9-12 months may be appropriate for minor involvement of a single nail. Liver function tests should be checked before prescribing oral antifungal medication such as terbinafine. Self-care advice can be given to the patient, including keeping feet clean and dry, wearing breathable socks and footwear, and avoiding going barefoot in changing rooms. Referral to podiatry is not necessary unless the patient is unable to perform their own foot-care. Swabbing the skin for microscopy and culture may not be useful in cases where the skin is not involved.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 16-year-old girl from the travelling community comes to you with a 4-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl from the travelling community comes to you with a 4-day history of fever, myalgia, malaise, and headache. She reports that her face has been swelling for the past two days and the pain has increased while chewing food. Upon examination, you notice that her parotid glands are tender and bilaterally swollen. Her temperature is 38.5ºC, heart rate 120 beats/minute, and blood pressure 110/70 mmHg. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supportive treatment- advise rest, fluids and simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is suffering from mumps, which may be more prevalent in travelling communities due to lower vaccination rates. Supportive care is the recommended treatment for mumps, as antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and steroids are not advised. While immediate vaccination is not necessary for this patient, it may be beneficial to assess their immunisation status for other diseases such as rubella and measles and administer appropriate vaccinations. Additionally, those who have been in contact with the patient should be offered the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine. Hospitalisation is not required. This information is sourced from NICE CKS Mumps.

      Understanding Mumps: Causes, Symptoms, Prevention, and Management

      Mumps is a viral infection caused by RNA paramyxovirus that typically occurs during the winter and spring seasons. The virus spreads through droplets and affects respiratory tract epithelial cells, parotid glands, and other tissues. The infection is contagious, and a person can be infectious seven days before and nine days after the onset of parotid swelling. The incubation period for mumps is usually 14-21 days.

      The clinical features of mumps include fever, malaise, and muscular pain. The most common symptom is parotitis, which causes earache and pain while eating. Initially, the swelling is unilateral, but it becomes bilateral in around 70% of cases.

      Prevention of mumps is possible through the MMR vaccine, which has an efficacy rate of around 80%. Management of mumps involves rest and the use of paracetamol to alleviate high fever and discomfort. Mumps is a notifiable disease, and healthcare professionals must report cases to the relevant authorities.

      Complications of mumps include orchitis, which is uncommon in pre-pubertal males but occurs in around 25-35% of post-pubertal males. It typically occurs four or five days after the onset of parotitis. Other complications include hearing loss, meningoencephalitis, and pancreatitis.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, prevention, and management of mumps is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection and minimizing its complications. Vaccination and early diagnosis are essential in controlling the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 25 - A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows a diffuse itchy dermatitis on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles. An older cousin is reported to have a similar itchy rash and he has been playing with him.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions in Infants and Children: A Comparison

      Scabies, Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Atopic Eczema, Tinea Pedis, and Viral Warts are some of the common dermatological conditions that affect infants and children. While they may share some similarities in symptoms, each condition has its unique characteristics that distinguish it from the others.

      Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is characterized by a widespread, eczematous eruption primarily on the trunk, with the scalp and neck also being affected. In infants, papules and pustules on the palms and soles are common, representing a hypersensitivity reaction to the mite.

      Palmoplantar Pustulosis, on the other hand, is a chronic pustular condition that affects the palms and soles. It presents as crops of sterile pustules that later turn brown, occurring on one or both hands and/or feet. Thickened, scaly, red skin that easily becomes fissured is also a characteristic feature. Smoking is strongly associated with this condition.

      Atopic Eczema is a chronic, itchy dermatitis that commonly presents with an itchy rash on the face in babies. It may become widespread or confined to the flexures. Papules on the soles are not a feature, and a history of contact with a similarly affected relative would not fit this diagnosis.

      Tinea Pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that affects the feet. It is uncommon in infants and doesn’t usually cause dermatitis on the trunk.

      Finally, Viral Warts are skin lesions associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). They are not characteristically itchy and would not cause the widespread dermatitis described in this case.

      In conclusion, while these dermatological conditions may share some similarities, a careful examination of the symptoms and history can help distinguish one from the other. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect your child has any of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old man comes to you with a bothersome skin rash. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to you with a bothersome skin rash. He has been experiencing this for a few weeks now and has not found relief with an emollient cream. The itching is described as 'severe' and has caused him difficulty sleeping. Upon examination, you observe a mixture of papules and vesicles on his buttocks and the extensor surface of his knees and elbows. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.

      To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is performed, and direct immunofluorescence is used to show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis.

      The management of dermatitis herpetiformis involves a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone. By adhering to a gluten-free diet, patients can reduce the severity of their symptoms and prevent further damage to their skin. Dapsone is a medication that can help to alleviate the symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system.

      In summary, dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is associated with coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions and can be managed through a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm nodule on the free border of the helix of his left ear. The nodule has been there for approximately six weeks and has a small amount of scale attached to its surface. He has trouble sleeping on that side of his head. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

      Explanation:

      Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Chronica Helicis: A Benign Tender Lump in the Ear Cartilage

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is a common condition characterized by a benign tender lump in the cartilaginous portion of the ear, specifically in the helix or antihelix. It is often caused by pressure between the head and pillow during sleep, particularly in individuals who predominantly sleep on one side. Minor trauma, exposure to cold, and tight headgear or telephone headsets can also trigger the condition.

      The lesion rarely resolves on its own and conservative measures such as using a soft pillow or sleeping on the opposite side may be attempted. Wearing a protective pressure-relieving device, using topical and intralesional steroids, or applying topical glyceryl trinitrate may also provide relief. Cryotherapy is sometimes used as well.

      Excision of the damaged cartilage area is often successful, but recurrence can occur at the edge of the excised area. The distinctive feature of chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is the associated pain and tenderness, which sets it apart from painless cutaneous tumors and non-tender actinic keratoses.

      It is important to note that tophi, which contain a white pasty material and are usually not painful or tender, typically develop around 10 years after the first attack of gout in untreated patients and are commonly found around the elbows, hands, and feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - Sarah is a 38-year-old woman with a body mass index of 35 kg/m2...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 38-year-old woman with a body mass index of 35 kg/m2 who has recently discovered she is expecting. She has a medical history of epilepsy, familial hypercholesterolaemia, type 2 diabetes, and sciatica.

      During her pregnancy, which medications should Sarah discontinue taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Statin therapy should not be used during pregnancy due to potential risks. However, paracetamol is considered safe for use during pregnancy. Lamotrigine is preferred over other anti-epileptics due to a lower risk of neurodevelopmental effects on the foetus, but all pregnant women on anti-epileptics should take 5mg folic acid before conception and during the first trimester. Metformin and insulin are commonly used to treat diabetes during pregnancy. It is important to note that all statins should be avoided during pregnancy as they have been associated with congenital anomalies.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with macular degeneration seeks guidance...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with macular degeneration seeks guidance on antioxidant dietary supplements. Is there any reason why such supplements should not be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Current smoker

      Explanation:

      Antioxidant dietary supplements are not recommended for smokers due to the increased risk of lung cancer associated with beta-carotene.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 30 - A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the general practice surgery for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the general practice surgery for his routine 4-week health check. He was born at full term and seems very well. His mother is anxious, as she has two other children with learning disabilities.
      Which of the following examination findings is most likely to help reassure the mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of a sacral dimple

      Explanation:

      A sacral dimple, which may be present from birth, is usually harmless but can sometimes indicate spina bifida, a neural tube defect that can cause mobility or continence issues and learning disabilities. A family history of spina bifida increases the risk. An absent red reflex in a baby’s pupil may indicate a congenital cataract or retinoblastoma, but neither condition is known to cause learning disabilities. A head circumference between the 25th and 50th centiles is within the normal range and is reassuring, but serial measurements may reveal issues such as hydrocephalus. A positive Moro reflex at the 6-week check is normal, but persistent primitive reflexes beyond their expected timescales could indicate neurological issues such as cerebral palsy. Positive Barlow and Ortolani manoeuvres indicate developmental dysplasia of the hip, which is not associated with learning disabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/4) 25%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Children And Young People (3/4) 75%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (2/3) 67%
End Of Life (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Passmed