00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - In which scenario would the heritability score be expected to be the least?...

    Incorrect

    • In which scenario would the heritability score be expected to be the least?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Heritability Scores of Different Disorders

      Mumps, a contagious viral infection, has the lowest heritability score among the disorders mentioned. This means that the risk of developing mumps is primarily due to exposure to the infective agent rather than genetic factors. On the other hand, the other disorders listed have a genetic component in their development. For instance, cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in a specific gene and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. Understanding the heritability scores of different disorders can help in identifying the underlying causes and developing appropriate treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      57.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the definition of a Child Protection Plan? ...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of a Child Protection Plan?

      Your Answer: A plan to assess the likelihood of the child suffering harm and decide goals to reduce the risk of harm and how to best protect the child while clarifying the responsibilities of the people involved

      Explanation:

      Child Protection Plans

      At an initial Child Protection conference, the decision to make a child subject to a Protection Plan is made. This plan is created if a child is at continuing risk of significant harm. The purpose of the Child Protection Plan is to assess the likelihood of the child suffering harm and to decide on goals to reduce the risk of harm and protect the child. It should also clarify the responsibilities of the people involved and actions to be taken. Additionally, the plan should outline how the processes will be monitored and evaluated.

      Overall, the Child Protection Plan is a crucial tool in ensuring the safety and well-being of vulnerable children. It provides a framework for all parties involved to work together towards a common goal of protecting the child from harm. By setting clear goals and responsibilities, the plan helps to ensure that everyone is on the same page and working towards the same objectives. Regular monitoring and evaluation of the plan also help to ensure that it remains effective and relevant over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine a skin lesion on their shoulder. The patient reports having noticed the lesion for a few years and that it has slowly been increasing in size. They mention having worked as a builder and property developer, resulting in significant sun exposure. On examination, you note an irregular pale red patch on the right shoulder measuring 6x4mm. The lesion has a slightly raised 'rolled' pearly edge and a small eroded area in the center. There is no surrounding inflammation, and the lesion doesn't feel indurated.

      What is your plan for managing this patient's skin lesion?

      Your Answer: 2 week wait referral to dermatology

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to dermatology

      Explanation:

      When a superficial basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is suspected, it is recommended to make a standard referral. This presentation is typical of BCC, which usually grows slowly and hardly ever spreads to other parts of the body. Dermatology referral is necessary in such cases. While Efudix and cryotherapy may be used as substitutes for excision in treating superficial BCC, it is important to seek the guidance of a dermatologist.

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma

      Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.

      If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      195.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of blurred vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of blurred vision in her right eye and pain on eye movement for the past 6 days. Upon examination, the doctor finds that her acuity is reduced to 6/36, she has impaired colour vision, a relatively afferent pupillary defect, and a swollen, pale optic disc. The doctor diagnoses her with optic neuritis. The patient mentions that she has heard about a connection between optic neuritis and multiple sclerosis (MS) and asks for more information. What is the best advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Most patients will typically develop additional features of MS within two years of diagnosis of optic neuritis

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a useful tool for predicting the risk of developing MS

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Demyelinating Optic Neuritis and its Relationship to Multiple Sclerosis

      Acute demyelinating optic neuritis (ADON) is a condition that can be associated with multiple sclerosis (MS). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a useful tool for predicting the risk of developing MS, as the presence of white matter abnormalities on MRI of the brain increases the risk of MS. The Optic Neuritis Treatment Trial (ONTT) revealed that the risk of developing MS at 15-year follow-up was approximately 25% for patients with no white matter lesions on MRI compared to 75% for those with lesions.

      Interferon-beta treatment can increase the time interval to relapse in MS, particularly in patients with ADON and white matter lesions on MRI. However, it is important to remember that many patients with ADON will not develop MS. Information about their prognosis can help patients to decide whether to undergo MRI scanning and whether to use interferon-beta or other immunomodulators in their treatment.

      While the risk of recurrence of ADON is approximately 35% over ten years, the prognosis for vision retainment in patients with ADON is usually good. The ONTT found that one year after onset, 93% of individuals had visual acuity greater than 6/12 in the affected eye. However, many patients may continue to experience subjective reductions in vision and other visual impairments.

      In summary, understanding the relationship between ADON and MS, as well as the potential benefits and risks of treatment options, can help patients make informed decisions about their care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for two weeks to a...

    Correct

    • What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for two weeks to a teenager with eczema on the front and back of both hands?

      Your Answer: 100 g

      Explanation:

      How to Measure and Apply Topical Corticosteroids

      Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply them correctly to ensure maximum effectiveness and minimize side effects.

      To apply topical corticosteroids, spread a thin layer over the affected area, making sure to cover it completely. The amount of cream or ointment needed can be measured using a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube from the tip of an adult index finger to the first crease. One ftu is approximately 0.5 g and is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand (palm and fingers together).

      For example, to treat both hands for two weeks, 14 g of cream or ointment is needed. If the hands are frequently immersed in water, it may be necessary to apply the cream or ointment twice daily, in which case 15-30 g should be prescribed.

      By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using the correct amount of topical corticosteroids and achieving the best possible results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A cardiologist has requested you to initiate oral amiodarone for a young patient...

    Incorrect

    • A cardiologist has requested you to initiate oral amiodarone for a young patient who has previously been hospitalized with ventricular tachycardia. What examinations are crucial to confirm that the patient has undergone before commencing the therapy?

      Your Answer: TFT + LFT + U&E

      Correct Answer: TFT + LFT + U&E + chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old female patient attends a medication review at the clinic. Upon reviewing...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient attends a medication review at the clinic. Upon reviewing her medical history, it is noted that she had a Mirena coil inserted due to menorrhagia. She was previously diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia, which was believed to be caused by heavy periods. She has been taking ferrous sulfate for the past four weeks, and her hemoglobin levels have improved from 110 g/L to 130 g/L. She reports that her heavy periods have significantly improved. The patient inquires whether she should continue taking her iron tablets. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop iron tablets and recheck full blood count in 3 months

      Correct Answer: Continue iron tablets and recheck full blood count in 3 months, and if normal then stop and monitor full blood count every 3 months for one year

      Explanation:

      As per the current NICE CKS guidance, it is recommended to continue iron replacement for 3 months after correcting iron deficiency anaemia, and then discontinue it.

      However, in the case of this patient, it is too early to stop the iron tablets as it takes at least 3 months for iron stores to replenish. Once the replacement is adequate, prophylactic iron is not necessary as the patient’s menorrhagia has resolved.

      It is important to check haemoglobin levels 2-4 weeks after starting iron tablets, and a rise of approximately 2 g/100 mL over 3-4 weeks is expected. If there is insufficient improvement despite adherence to treatment, specialist referral should be considered. In this patient’s case, the haemoglobin levels have risen adequately, and there is no need for referral.

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a prevalent condition worldwide, with preschool-age children being the most affected. The lack of iron in the body leads to a decrease in red blood cells and haemoglobin, resulting in anaemia. The primary causes of iron deficiency anaemia are excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Menorrhagia is the most common cause of blood loss in pre-menopausal women, while gastrointestinal bleeding is the most common cause in men and postmenopausal women. Vegans and vegetarians are more likely to develop iron deficiency anaemia due to the lack of meat in their diet. Coeliac disease and other conditions affecting the small intestine can prevent sufficient iron absorption. Children and pregnant women have increased iron demands, and the latter may experience dilution due to an increase in plasma volume.

      The symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia include fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, palpitations, pallor, nail changes, hair loss, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. To diagnose iron deficiency anaemia, a full blood count, serum ferritin, total iron-binding capacity, transferrin, and blood film tests are performed. Endoscopy may be necessary to rule out malignancy, especially in males and postmenopausal females with unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia.

      The management of iron deficiency anaemia involves identifying and treating the underlying cause. Oral ferrous sulfate is commonly prescribed, and patients should continue taking iron supplements for three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to replenish iron stores. Iron-rich foods such as dark-green leafy vegetables, meat, and iron-fortified bread can also help. It is crucial to exclude malignancy by taking an adequate history and appropriate investigations if warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      61.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are discussing coronary heart disease risk with a patient who has a...

    Correct

    • You are discussing coronary heart disease risk with a patient who has a 15% 10-year risk of cardiovascular disease. The patient wants to know if he should take a statin.

      Using the NICE patient decision aid on lipid modification you explain to him that if there were 100 people like him and none of them took a statin, on average 15 of these people would develop coronary heart disease (CHD) or have stroke over a 10 year period. If all 100 took a statin then over the same time period, on average nine people would develop CHD or have a stroke.

      Which of the following is correct with regards the use of a statin for cardiovascular disease prevention in this patient population?

      Your Answer: The number needed to treat is 25

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statistical Concepts in Medical Practice

      Having a solid understanding of statistical concepts and terminology is crucial when informing patients about the risks and benefits of treatment. One important concept is the absolute risk (AR), which is the number of events in a group of patients divided by the total number of patients in that group. Another important concept is the absolute risk reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the AR in a control group (ARC) and in a treatment group (ART).

      To calculate the ARR, we subtract the ART from the ARC. For example, if the ARC is 10/100 and the ART is 6/100, then the ARR is 0.04 or 4%. The relative risk (RR) is another important concept, which is calculated by dividing the ART by the ARC. In this example, the RR is 0.6. The relative risk reduction (RRR) is calculated by subtracting the RR from 1. In this case, the RRR is 0.4. Finally, the number needed to treat (NNT) is calculated by dividing 1 by the ARR. In this example, the NNT is 25.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      180.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one side. She reports feeling generally healthy with no changes to her vision or fever. The patient wears contact lenses but has not had an optician appointment recently.

      During the examination, the patient displays injected conjunctiva in the affected eye, but there is no apparent redness or swelling around the eye. The application of topical fluorescein doesn't reveal any corneal staining.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Topical antihistamine eye drops are the treatment of choice

      Correct Answer: Advise she should not wear contact lenses for the duration of her symptoms

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to wear contact lenses when experiencing conjunctivitis, which is likely the case for this 15-year-old with viral conjunctivitis. While it is possible that her prescription may not be up to date, this doesn’t affect her susceptibility to infection or more severe conditions. Warm compresses are more effective for treating styes or chalazion, which present as lumps on the eyelid, rather than viral conjunctivitis. Since the fluorescein test did not show any corneal stains, there is no need for ophthalmology referral. However, if a contact lens wearer with these symptoms had staining, they would require a visit to eye casualty as this would indicate a corneal injury. While topical antihistamine eye drops may be used for allergic conjunctivitis, the unilateral nature of the presentation makes this diagnosis less likely. Topical chloramphenicol is the preferred treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, but the watery discharge suggests viral conjunctivitis instead.

      Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      305.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are contemplating recommending a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for a middle-aged patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating recommending a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for a middle-aged patient with depression. What category of medication is most prone to interact with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Tetracycline

      Correct Answer: Triptan

      Explanation:

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      175.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 22 year old man is being investigated by a cardiologist for prolonged...

    Correct

    • A 22 year old man is being investigated by a cardiologist for prolonged QT-syndrome. He visits your clinic with a 4 day history of cough with thick, green sputum, fever, and fatigue. During examination, his temperature is found to be 39ºC, oxygen saturation is 96% on air, and crackles are heard at the base of his left lung. Which medication should be avoided in treating his condition?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      The normal corrected QT interval for males is below 430 ms and for females it is below 450 ms. Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a rare condition that can be inherited or acquired, causing delayed repolarisation of the ventricles and increasing the risk of ventricular tachyarrhythmias. This can result in syncope, cardiac arrest, or sudden death. LQTS can be detected incidentally on an ECG, after a cardiac event such as syncope or cardiac arrest, or following the sudden death of a family member.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 62-year-old woman has been visiting the practice nurse for a few weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman has been visiting the practice nurse for a few weeks for blood pressure (BP) checks. Her results have shown significant variability. She presents you with a diary of home readings that the nurse has instructed her to take twice daily over the past two weeks. Her average BP based on these readings is 135/80 mmHg. Her BP today in the clinic is 162/102 mmHg, and the nurse has recorded similar levels on the last two visits. She doesn't want to take medication for her BP. She has no other medical conditions.
      What is the most suitable course of action? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Carry out ambulatory BP monitoring

      Correct Answer: Accept the home blood pressure (BP) readings and diagnose white-coat hypertension

      Explanation:

      Managing White-Coat Hypertension with Home Blood Pressure Monitoring

      According to current NICE guidance, hypertension should be diagnosed in patients with a clinic BP of 140/90 mmHg or greater and either average daily ambulatory BP monitoring (ABPM) or home BP monitoring (HBPM) readings of greater than 135/85. However, if a patient’s home readings are within normal range, their elevated clinic BP is likely due to white-coat hypertension. In such cases, further assessment with ABPM is unnecessary. Monthly BP reviews with the practice nurse are also unnecessary if HBPM readings are normal. Treatment is not recommended based on clinic readings alone, and specialist referral is not needed if HBPM readings are within normal range. Home blood pressure monitoring can effectively manage white-coat hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      311.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and frequent vomiting while taking oral modified-release morphine sulphate 60mg bd. It has been decided to switch to subcutaneous administration. What is the appropriate dosage of morphine for a continuous subcutaneous infusion over a 24-hour period?

      Your Answer: 20 mg

      Correct Answer: 60mg

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, the BNF suggests administering half the usual oral dose of morphine.

      When morphine is given through injection (subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous), the recommended dose is approximately half of the oral dose. If the patient is no longer able to swallow, a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine is typically used.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      328
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 57-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with pneumonia...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with pneumonia six weeks ago after experiencing flu-like symptoms and a productive cough. Despite having no history of asthma, she quit smoking three years ago due to hypertension. A chest x-ray was performed and showed consolidation in the left lower zone, but no pleural effusion or abnormal heart size. She was treated with amoxicillin for a week and her symptoms improved. Now, six weeks later, a follow-up x-ray shows that the consolidation has improved but not completely resolved. Her cough is mostly gone and is no longer productive, and she has not experienced any coughing up of blood or weight loss. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Repeat the chest x-ray in 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to the chest clinic

      Explanation:

      As an ex-smoker, this woman is experiencing a gradual improvement in her consolidation, but she still has a persistent cough. It is recommended that she be referred for further evaluation under the 2 week wait rule to rule out the possibility of lung cancer.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.

      In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      222
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old female patient complains of intermittent episodes of white fingers that turn...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female patient complains of intermittent episodes of white fingers that turn blue and then red, accompanied by pain. The symptoms are more severe during winter but persist throughout the year, and wearing gloves doesn't alleviate them. Physical examination of her hands, skin, and other joints reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following treatments might be helpful?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You see a 55-year-old lady with shortness of breath on exertion and a...

    Correct

    • You see a 55-year-old lady with shortness of breath on exertion and a chronic non-productive cough. She quit smoking 5 years ago and reports no weight loss. On examination, you note clubbing and fine bilateral crackles.

      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Consider Pulmonary Fibrosis in Patients with Persistent Breathlessness and Clubbing

      It is crucial to consider a diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis in patients who present with persistent breathlessness, dry cough, bilateral inspiratory crackles, and clubbing of the fingers. While COPD may be a possibility, it would not explain the presence of clubbing. Heart failure typically presents with other features such as orthopnoea, peripheral oedema, and a raised JVP. Bronchiectasis usually has a productive cough, and a pulmonary embolism typically presents more acutely with chest pain and without clubbing or bi-basal crackles. Therefore, it is essential to consider pulmonary fibrosis as a potential diagnosis in patients with these symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You come across a 16-year-old student who has been experiencing vertigo for the...

    Correct

    • You come across a 16-year-old student who has been experiencing vertigo for the past 2 days. She complains of feeling like the room is spinning and experiencing nausea. She has been suffering from a severe cold for the last 10 days but denies any other symptoms. Upon examination and hearing tests, you suspect that she has vestibular neuronitis.

      What is a correct statement about vestibular neuronitis?

      Your Answer: Hearing is normal in vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.

      It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.

      Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.

      Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman with two children visits your clinic seeking contraception. You have...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with two children visits your clinic seeking contraception. You have ruled out pregnancy or the risk of it. She is in a committed relationship and is going on vacation with her partner tomorrow. Neither of them wants to use condoms, and abstinence will be challenging while on vacation. She had her last period ten days ago and has not had sex since then. If there are no contraindications and she finds the method acceptable, what is the most appropriate contraception for her?

      Your Answer: Mirena coil

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Methods and Timing

      The timing of contraceptive methods is crucial to their effectiveness. The copper-bearing intrauterine device can be used at any time during the menstrual cycle, as long as pregnancy has been reasonably excluded. It doesn’t require any additional contraception. However, if a woman starts taking the combined oral contraceptive pill on day six or later of her menstrual cycle, she needs to use additional contraception or avoid sexual intercourse for seven days. The same applies to the Mirena coil if it is inserted from day eight onwards of the menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and implant also require additional contraception or avoidance of sexual intercourse if started from day six onwards of the menstrual cycle. It is important to understand the timing requirements of each contraceptive method to ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      114.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old man presents with a fasting lipid profile that shows a triglyceride...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a fasting lipid profile that shows a triglyceride level of 22 mmol/L. He denies excessive alcohol consumption and all other blood tests, including HbA1c, renal function, liver function, and thyroid function, are within normal limits. There is no clear explanation for the elevated triglyceride level, and there are no prior lipid profiles available for comparison. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. He reports no symptoms or feelings of illness.
      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer routinely for specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypertriglyceridaemia

      Hypertriglyceridaemia is a condition that increases the risk of pancreatitis, making prompt management crucial. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided specific guidance on how to manage this condition.

      If the triglyceride level is above 20 mmol/L and not due to alcohol excess or poor glycaemic control, urgent referral to a lipid clinic is necessary. For levels between 10 mmol/L and 20 mmol/L, a fasting sample should be repeated no sooner than 5 days and no longer than 2 weeks later. If the level remains above 10 mmol/L, secondary causes of hypertriglyceridaemia should be considered, and specialist advice should be sought.

      For those with a triglyceride level between 4.5 and 9.9 mmol/L, clinicians should consider that cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk may be underestimated using risk assessment tools such as QRISK. They should optimize the management of other CVD risk factors, and specialist advice should be sought if the non-HDL cholesterol level is above 7.5 mmol/L.

      In summary, the management of hypertriglyceridaemia requires careful consideration of the triglyceride level and other risk factors. Early referral to a lipid clinic and specialist advice can help prevent complications such as pancreatitis and reduce the risk of CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old teacher complains of low mood and poor sleep for ten days....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher complains of low mood and poor sleep for ten days. She has been working very hard in preparation for a school inspection due next week. She got married eight months ago and denies any problems at home. She is looking forward to a planned trip to Italy in two months time.

      She has been fit and well up to this point with no personal or family history of mental health problems. Her only medication is Microgynon 30. She has several good friends who have noticed that she is not herself and who wonder if she is depressed. She has taken to drinking half a bottle of wine every night while working late.

      After fully assessing her, what is likely to be the best way to approach her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: General advice and active monitoring

      Explanation:

      Management of Subthreshold Depressive Symptoms

      This patient is currently experiencing subthreshold depressive symptoms that have lasted for less than two weeks. The cause of her symptoms is likely due to a stressful period at work, which is expected to end soon. Fortunately, she has a strong support network. According to NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90), medication is not recommended at this stage. Instead, CBT should be considered for persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms. St John’s wort is not recommended due to its interaction with the oral contraceptive pill and lack of evidence of effective dose and variation between preparations. NICE has suggested that short term dynamic psychotherapy be evaluated in a formal research setting. After a thorough assessment, the patient should be advised on sleep hygiene and reducing alcohol intake. She should also receive written information about depression and be scheduled for a follow-up appointment within two weeks at most.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old man walks into the General Practice Surgery without an appointment, complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man walks into the General Practice Surgery without an appointment, complaining of central chest pain radiating to his jaw.
      On examination, he is agitated. His respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute (normal range 12–20) and his pulse is 130 beats per minute (normal range 60–100).
      An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). An accompanying friend suspects that the patient took a drug around 30 minutes previously but is unsure what it was.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Risks Associated with Substance Abuse

      Substance abuse can have significant impacts on cardiovascular health. Chronic cocaine use, for example, is a major risk factor for acute myocardial ischaemia, which can cause central chest pain, tachycardia, and other symptoms. Alcohol consumption, particularly binge-drinking, is also considered a cardiovascular risk factor, although it is not as strongly correlated with immediate effects as cocaine. Amphetamine and ecstasy intoxication can cause symptoms such as tachycardia, hyperthermia, and hypertension, and there have been reports of myocardial infarction associated with chronic use. Cannabis use can also cause tachycardia and other symptoms, but is rarely associated with MI. Overall, substance abuse can have serious consequences for cardiovascular health, particularly in men who are more likely to engage in drug use and dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man complains of increasing stiffness and pain in his right knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man complains of increasing stiffness and pain in his right knee and seeks medical attention. He denies any history of trauma, locking, or giving way. Upon examination, an x-ray reveals the following findings:

      Plain film: right knee

      Moderate degenerative changes indicative of osteoarthritis. Intra-articular calcification, possibly a loose body.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue to manage as per osteoarthritis guidelines

      Explanation:

      According to the recent guidelines by NICE, there is no requirement to refer a patient with x-ray evidence of a loose body if they are asymptomatic and not experiencing locking.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Glucosamine is a natural component found in cartilage and synovial fluid. Several double-blind randomized controlled trials have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee osteoarthritis, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness. Despite this, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for osteoarthritis management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to the local vascular unit. Peripheral arterial disease is diagnosed and his blood pressure is measured at 130/80 mmHg with a fasting cholesterol level of 3.9 mmol/l. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should be prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel + statin

      Explanation:

      Managing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is closely associated with smoking, and patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit. Comorbidities such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity should also be treated. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with atorvastatin 80 mg currently recommended. In 2010, NICE recommended clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients over aspirin.

      Exercise training has been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. Severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia may be treated with endovascular or surgical revascularization, with endovascular techniques typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. Surgical techniques are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should be reserved for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      Drugs licensed for use in PAD include naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life, and cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, which is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You see a 50-year-old gentleman with an acutely red, painful and swollen first...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old gentleman with an acutely red, painful and swollen first MTP joint. He has had gout attacks in the past for which he is on allopurinol 100 mg daily. He has no other past medical history and is on no other medication.

      On examination, he is apyrexial and appears systemically well.

      What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naproxen

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Acute Gout Attack

      NSAIDs or colchicine are the primary treatments for an acute gout attack. If the patient is already taking allopurinol, it should be continued. Serum uric acid levels should only be checked four weeks after an acute attack as levels can be normal during an attack. If NSAIDs or colchicine are contraindicated, prednisolone should be considered.

      After treating the acute attack, a serum uric acid test should be done four weeks later. Based on the results, the allopurinol dosage can be adjusted to maintain serum uric acid levels below 300 µmol/L. It is important to follow the treatment plan to prevent future gout attacks and reduce the risk of complications. Proper management of gout can improve the patient’s quality of life and prevent long-term joint damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The practice health visitor informs you that a mother of a 6-month-old baby...

    Incorrect

    • The practice health visitor informs you that a mother of a 6-month-old baby is coming to seek advice. The mother was diagnosed with Hepatitis B during pregnancy, and the baby received a vaccination before being discharged. What is the recommended Hepatitis B vaccine schedule for the baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Further injections at 4,8,12 & 16 weeks of age plus one at 12 months

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Vaccination for Newborns

      Babies born to mothers with hepatitis B require immediate vaccination to prevent the transmission of the virus. Within 24 hours of birth, the newborn should receive the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine. Subsequent doses should be given at 4, 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age, with the final dose administered when the child is 1-year-old. This vaccination schedule is crucial in protecting the child from developing chronic hepatitis B infection, which can lead to liver damage and other serious health complications. By following this vaccination schedule, parents can ensure the health and well-being of their newborn.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman comes to discuss contraception with you.

    She had previously been...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to discuss contraception with you.

      She had previously been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She is considering long-acting reversible contraception and would like some further information regarding the risk of uterine perforation with an intrauterine device.

      Which of the following is an important risk factor for uterine perforation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion during lactation

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Uterine Perforation with Intrauterine Contraception

      The rate of uterine perforation associated with intrauterine contraception (IUC) is up to 2 per 1000 insertions, with a higher risk in breastfeeding women. According to a recent drug safety update from the medicines and healthcare products regulatory agency, the most significant risk factors for uterine perforation during IUC are insertion during lactation and insertion within 36 weeks after giving birth. Women should be informed of the risks and symptoms to recognize. Age is not a risk factor for uterine perforation. Intrauterine contraception can be inserted at any time during the menstrual cycle if it is reasonably certain that the woman is not pregnant. The Mirena intrauterine system is used to manage menorrhagia, while the copper coil can cause heavy vaginal bleeding, but menorrhagia itself is not a reported risk factor for perforation on insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of feeling constantly fatigued. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of feeling constantly fatigued. She denies any symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, blurred vision, abdominal pain, or vomiting, and has no known medical conditions. Her mother and maternal aunt were both diagnosed with diabetes around her age and manage it with tablets. On examination, her BMI is 23 kg/m2, and urinalysis is unremarkable. Blood tests reveal an HbA1c of 50 mmol/mol (normal range: 20-42 mmol/mol). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Hyperglycaemia: Understanding the Different Types of Diabetes

      Hyperglycaemia, or high blood sugar, can be caused by various types of diabetes. One uncommon form is maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), which typically occurs before the age of 25 and is characterised by a slow onset of symptoms, absence of obesity and ketosis, and autosomal-dominant inheritance with multiple possible genetic mutations responsible.

      To rule out other types of diabetes, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Gestational diabetes, which occurs during pregnancy, is unlikely in this case as the patient is not known to be pregnant and typically affects those with a BMI of 30 or more. Steroid-induced diabetes, which can occur with prolonged steroid use for medical conditions such as Addison’s disease or asthma, is also unlikely as the patient has no pre-existing medical conditions for which she would be prescribed steroids.

      Type I diabetes mellitus (TIDM) commonly occurs in young, slim individuals with a family history of TIDM or other autoimmune conditions and is treated with insulin. However, in this case, the patient has very few symptoms of diabetes, a normal urinalysis, and a family history of diabetes treated with tablets rather than insulin. Type II diabetes mellitus (TIIDM), which commonly occurs in older individuals who are overweight but is increasingly more common in younger individuals due to childhood obesity, is also less likely as the patient is young, has a normal BMI, and has a family history of diabetes treated with tablets at a young age.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, the most likely diagnosis is MODY. Understanding the different types of diabetes and their characteristic features can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of pain in her right forefoot that has been bothering her for the past few months. She describes the pain as a burning sensation that is triggered by walking. The patient denies any history of injury and doesn't engage in regular physical activity. She reports consuming 28 units of alcohol per week. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the middle of her forefoot, and squeezing her metatarsals together reproduces her symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Morton's neuroma

      Explanation:

      Based on the examination results, it is unlikely that the patient is suffering from alcohol-induced peripheral neuropathy.

      Understanding Morton’s Neuroma

      Morton’s neuroma is a non-cancerous growth that affects the intermetatarsal plantar nerve, typically in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. It is more common in women than men, with a ratio of 4:1. The condition is characterized by pain in the forefoot, particularly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space, which worsens when walking. Patients may describe the pain as a shooting or burning sensation, and they may feel as though they have a pebble in their shoe. In addition, there may be a loss of sensation in the toes.

      To diagnose Morton’s neuroma, doctors typically rely on clinical examination, although ultrasound may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. One diagnostic technique involves attempting to hold the neuroma between the finger and thumb of one hand while squeezing the metatarsals together with the other hand. If a clicking sound is heard, it may indicate the presence of a neuroma.

      Management of Morton’s neuroma typically involves avoiding high-heels and using a metatarsal pad. If symptoms persist for more than three months despite these measures, referral to a specialist may be necessary. Orthotists may provide patients with a metatarsal dome orthotic, while secondary care options may include corticosteroid injection or neurectomy of the affected interdigital nerve and neuroma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with Chickenpox. Her father wants...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with Chickenpox. Her father wants to know if she should stay home from school. What is the best advice to give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Should be excluded until all lesions have crusted over

      Explanation:

      Students with Chickenpox must stay out of school until all their lesions have dried up and formed crusts, typically around 5 days after the rash first appears.

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.

      One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet which feel...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet which feel as though he is walking on pebbles. He has been generally very well and the only thing that he can recall was that he returned from holiday in Corfu about 3 weeks ago and had a diarrhoeal illness whilst there.

      He takes no medication but admits to taking ecstasy infrequently.

      On examination he has some painful limitation of movement at the sacroiliac joints and has painful soreness over the soles of the feet on deep palpation.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sacroiliitis and Plantar Fasciitis

      Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which connects the spine to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain in the heel and arch of the foot.

      After experiencing a diarrhoeal illness, the most likely diagnosis for these conditions is reactive arthritis. This is a type of arthritis that occurs as a reaction to an infection in another part of the body, such as the gut. It can cause joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, as well as other symptoms like fever and fatigue.

      It is important to note that reactive arthritis is less likely to be associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in this case, as the individual only experienced one acute episode of diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (2/4) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/2) 50%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed