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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
      His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
      On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
      A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
      Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol

      Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.

      For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.

      Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.

      Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.

      High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.

      Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      97.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerning symptoms that...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerning symptoms that have been occurring on and off for the past few months. She reports experiencing episodes of weakness accompanied by rapid, involuntary movements of her arms. Additionally, she has been experiencing persistent tingling sensations, occasional double vision, electric shocks down her arms and trunk when she flexes her neck, and constipation. Based on these symptoms, what would be the most appropriate initial test to diagnose her condition?

      Your Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Multiple Sclerosis: The Importance of MRI

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a debilitating disease that affects many individuals, particularly women. Symptoms can range from spastic weakness to loss of vision, making it difficult to diagnose. However, the first line investigation for somebody with MS is an MRI of the brain and spinal cord. This is because MRI is much more sensitive for picking up inflammation and demyelination than a CT scan, and it does not involve irradiation. Additionally, lumbar puncture can be used to detect IgG oligoclonal bands, which are not present in the serum. While other tests such as antibody testing and slit-lamp examination of the eyes may be useful, they are not first line investigations. It is important to diagnose MS early to prevent further damage to myelin sheaths and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of progressive distal sensory loss and weakness of both legs and arms. The weakness and numbness had extended to the elbows and knees.

      On examination, cranial nerves and fundoscopy were normal. Examination of the upper limb revealed bilaterally reduced tone and 3/5 power.

      Lower limb examination revealed some mild weakness of hip flexion and extension with marked weakness of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Both knee and ankle jerks were absent and both plantar responses were mute. There was absent sensation to all modalities affecting both feet extending to the knees.

      A lumbar puncture was performed and yielded the following data:

      Opening pressure 14 cm H2O (5-18)

      CSF protein 0.75 g/L (0.15-0.45)

      CSF white cell count 10 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      CSF white cell differential 90% lymphocytes -

      CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      Nerve conduction studies showed multifocal motor and sensory conduction block with prolonged distal latencies.

      What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (CIDP)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history is consistent with a subacute sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy, which could be caused by inflammatory neuropathies such as CIDP or paraproteinaemic neuropathies. CIDP is characterized by progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the limbs, and treatment includes corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, and physiotherapy. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute post-infectious neuropathy that is closely linked to CIDP. Cervical spondylosis would cause upper motor neuron signs, while HMSN is a chronic neuropathy with a family history. Multifocal motor neuropathy is a treatable neuropathy affecting motor conduction only.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What impact would a voltage-gated calcium channel inhibitor have on action potentials in...

    Incorrect

    • What impact would a voltage-gated calcium channel inhibitor have on action potentials in the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of presynaptic potentials

      Correct Answer: Decrease of postsynaptic potentials

      Explanation:

      Effects of Inhibition of Voltage-Gated Channels in the Central Nervous System

      In the central nervous system, voltage-gated calcium channels play a crucial role in the release of neurotransmitters. On the other hand, action potentials involve sodium and potassium voltage-gated channels. If these channels are inhibited, the amount of neurotransmitter released would decrease, leading to a subsequent decrease in the postsynaptic potentials, both graded and action. It is important to note that the decrease in postsynaptic potentials is the only correct option from the given choices.

      It is incorrect to assume that the inhibition of voltage-gated channels would lead to a decrease in action potential amplitude. This is because the amplitude of an action potential is an all-or-none event, and it is the frequency of action potentials that determines the strength of a stimulus. Similarly, the decrease in action potential conduction speed is also incorrect as it depends on the myelination of the axon. Moreover, it is incorrect to assume that inhibiting voltage-gated channels would increase the speed and amplitude of action potentials.

      Lastly, inhibiting presynaptic potentials is also incorrect as they depend on sodium/potassium voltage-gated ion channels. Therefore, it is essential to understand the effects of inhibiting voltage-gated channels in the central nervous system to avoid any misconceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.6
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  • Question 5 - The on-call consultant is testing the junior members of the team on how...

    Correct

    • The on-call consultant is testing the junior members of the team on how to distinguish between the various types of dementia based on symptoms during the medical post-take ward round. What is a typical clinical characteristic of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Agnosia

      Explanation:

      Common Symptoms of Different Types of Dementia

      Dementia is a group of disorders that affect cognitive abilities, including memory, thinking, and communication. While Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, there are other types that have distinct symptoms. Here are some common symptoms of different types of dementia:

      Agnosia: The inability to perceive and utilize information correctly despite retaining the necessary, correct sensory inputs. It is a common feature of Alzheimer’s disease and leads to patients being unable to recognize friends and family or to use everyday objects, e.g. coins or keys.

      Pseudobulbar palsy: This is where people are unable to control their facial movements. This does not typically occur in Alzheimer’s disease and is seen in conditions such as progressive supranuclear palsy, Parkinson’s disease, and multiple sclerosis.

      Emotional lability: This is a common feature of fronto-temporal dementia (otherwise known as Pick’s dementia).

      Apathetic mood: This is typically a feature of Lewy body disease, but it can also present in other forms of dementia.

      Marche à petits pas: It is a short, stepping (often rapid) gait, characteristic of diffuse cerebrovascular disease. It is common to patients with vascular dementia, as is pseudobulbar palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What are the possible reasons for having a small pupil? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the possible reasons for having a small pupil?

      Your Answer: Holmes-Adie pupil

      Correct Answer: Pontine haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Causes of Small and Dilated Pupils

      Small pupils can be caused by various factors such as Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, drugs, and poisons like opiates and organophosphates. Horner’s syndrome is a condition that affects the nerves in the face and eyes, resulting in a small pupil. Aging can also cause the pupils to become smaller due to changes in the muscles that control the size of the pupils. Pontine hemorrhage, a type of stroke, can also lead to small pupils. Argyll Robertson pupil is a rare condition where the pupils do not respond to light but do constrict when focusing on a near object. Lastly, drugs and poisons like opiates and organophosphates can cause small pupils.

      On the other hand, dilated pupils can also be caused by various factors such as Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, drugs, and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition where one pupil is larger than the other and reacts slowly to light. Third nerve palsy is a condition where the nerve that controls the movement of the eye is damaged, resulting in a dilated pupil. Drugs and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol can also cause dilated pupils. It is important to identify the cause of small or dilated pupils as it can be a sign of an underlying medical condition or poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man has been referred to a neurologist by his GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has been referred to a neurologist by his GP due to recent concerns with his speech. He has been experiencing difficulty verbalising his thoughts and finds this frustrating. However, there is no evidence to suggest a reduced comprehension of speech.
      He struggles to repeat sentences and well-rehearsed lists (such as months of the year and numbers from one to ten). He is also unable to name common household objects presented to him. Additionally, he constructs sentences using the incorrect tense and his grammar is poor.
      Imaging studies reveal that the issue is located in the frontotemporal region of the brain.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Semantic dementia

      Correct Answer: Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PNFA)

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Aphasia and Their Characteristics

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of characteristics. Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PNFA) primarily affects speech and language, causing poor fluency, repetition, grammar, and anomia. Wernicke’s aphasia, on the other hand, is a fluent aphasia that causes impaired comprehension and repetition, nonsensical speech, and neologisms. Broca’s aphasia is a non-fluent aphasia that affects the ability to communicate fluently, but does not affect comprehension. Semantic dementia affects semantic memory, primarily affecting naming of objects, single-word comprehension, and understanding the uses of particular objects. Finally, conductive dysphasia is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, resulting in anomia and poor repetition but preserved comprehension and fluency of speech. Understanding the characteristics of each type of aphasia can help in the diagnosis and treatment of individuals with language disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      127.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 59-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of experiencing ‘tingling’ in his wrists and hands at night, with the right side being more affected than the left. Upon examination, you observe atrophy of the thenar eminence of his right hand. He displays slight weakness in thumb opposition and reduced sensation to light touch on the palmar surface of his right hand on the lateral three digits and the lateral half of the fourth digit. Reproduction of his symptoms occurs when you tap immediately distal to the wrist joint of his right hand for about 30 s.
      Which nerve is implicated in this man’s condition?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries in the Upper Limb

      Nerve injuries in the upper limb can cause a range of symptoms, including pain, weakness, and sensory loss. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries and their associated symptoms:

      1. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (Median Nerve): Compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel can cause pain and loss of sensation in the lateral three-and-a-half digits. Symptoms are often worse at night and are more common in people who use their hands repetitively throughout the day.

      2. Radial Neuropathy (Radial Nerve): Compression of the radial nerve at the spiral groove of the humerus can cause weakness of wrist and finger extension, as well as elbow flexion. There may also be sensory loss on the dorsum of the hand.

      3. Ulnar Neuropathy (Ulnar Nerve): The ulnar nerve supplies sensation to the fifth digit and the medial aspect of the fourth digit, as well as the interosseous muscles of the hand. It is the second most commonly affected nerve in the upper limb after the median nerve.

      4. Musculocutaneous Nerve: Weakness of elbow flexion and sensory loss over the lateral forearm can occur with musculocutaneous nerve palsy.

      5. Long Thoracic Nerve: Injury to the long thoracic nerve affects the serratus anterior muscle, causing a winged scapula. This nerve is purely motor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44.3
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye and visual loss. Upon examination, the doctor observes visual loss to counting fingers on the right, right eye proptosis, conjunctival injection, and acute tenderness on palpation. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 12 mm/hour. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carotid cavernous fistula

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Acute Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Management

      Carotid Cavernous Fistula: This condition presents with sudden painful visual loss, proptosis, conjunctival injection, and a firm, tender, and pulsatile eyeball. It is caused by an abnormal communication between the carotid artery and venous system within the cavernous sinus. Endovascular surgery is the recommended management to obliterate the fistula.

      Giant Cell arthritis: This is a medical emergency that is uncommon in individuals under 50 years old. Symptoms include acute visual loss, tenderness over the temporal artery, jaw claudication, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of >50 mm/hour. Diagnosis is confirmed through a temporal artery biopsy.

      Optic Neuritis: This condition presents as painful visual loss but is not associated with proptosis or changes to the conjunctiva. Optic disc pallor is a common symptom.

      Keratoconus: This is a degenerative disorder that causes distortion of vision, which may be painful, due to structural changes within the cornea. It does not present acutely.

      Acute Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis: Symptoms include retro-orbital pain, ophthalmoplegia (often complete, with involvement of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), and loss of sensation over the ophthalmic division on the trigeminal nerve ipsilateral. Horner’s syndrome may also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      312
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department having been picked up...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department having been picked up by a patrolling police car. He was found wandering around a roundabout in his nightgown, and when stopped, had no recollection of where he lived or of his own name. A mini-mental assessment reveals that he is disorientated to time and place and has poor memory. Physical examination is unremarkable. A full history is taken following contact with his wife and she reports that her husband has been suffering from worsening memory and cognition. A differential diagnosis includes dementia. Investigations are requested.
      What is the most common cause of dementia in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Types of Dementia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Dementia is a progressive loss of cognitive function that affects millions of people worldwide. There are several types of dementia, each with its own causes, symptoms, and management strategies. In this article, we will discuss the most common types of dementia, including Alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s disease, vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia.

      Alzheimer’s Disease
      Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for approximately 60% of cases in the UK. It is a progressive brain disorder that causes memory loss, disorientation, altered personality, and altered cognition. While there is no cure for Alzheimer’s disease, treatment with antioxidants and certain drugs, such as anticholinesterases, can slow or reduce cognitive decline.

      Huntington’s Disease
      Huntington’s disease is a rare autosomal dominant condition that affects approximately 12 per 100,000 of the UK population. It can cause dementia at any stage of the illness.

      Vascular Dementia
      Vascular dementia is the second most common cause of dementia, accounting for approximately 17% of cases in the UK. It is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, which can result from conditions such as stroke or high blood pressure.

      Dementia with Lewy Bodies
      Dementia with Lewy bodies is a type of dementia that accounts for approximately 4% of cases. It is characterized by abnormal protein deposits in the brain, which can cause hallucinations, movement disorders, and cognitive decline.

      Frontotemporal Dementia
      Frontotemporal dementia is a rare form of dementia that accounts for around 2% of cases in the UK. It typically causes personality and behavioral changes, such as apathy, disinhibition, and loss of empathy.

      In conclusion, dementia is a complex and challenging condition that can have a significant impact on individuals and their families. While there is no cure for most types of dementia, early diagnosis and management can help to slow the progression of symptoms and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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Neurology (5/9) 56%
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