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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is experiencing constant fatigue, sadness, and tearfulness. She is also having trouble sleeping. These symptoms have been present for the past six months. The woman gave birth to her second child eight months ago and recently lost her mother, which has made things worse. Her older child is two years old. Despite having two healthy children, she has no interest in socializing, returning to work, or engaging in sexual activity. She feels guilty about not being able to snap out of it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: postpartum depression
Correct Answer: Baby blues
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Depression
Postpartum depression is a common condition that affects many new mothers. It typically occurs within a year of childbirth and is characterized by a range of symptoms, including feelings of sadness, anxiety, and hopelessness. While some women may experience a short-lived reaction known as the baby blues, postnatal depression typically begins within two to three months of giving birth and can last for several months or even longer.
If you are experiencing symptoms of postpartum depression, it is important to seek help from a healthcare professional. Treatment options may include therapy, medication, or a combination of both. With the right support and treatment, it is possible to overcome postpartum depression and enjoy a healthy, happy life with your new baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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During a ward round consultation, the Psychiatrist was assessing a 12-year-old patient's current mental state. The patient's reply to most of the questions consisted of sentences which did not make any sense such as - 'painting pizza prince bus brush'. This is a good example of which of the following thought disorder?
Your Answer: Echolalia
Correct Answer: Word salad
Explanation:Disordered speech, such as word salad, neologisms, perseveration, and echolalia, is commonly linked to psychosis and mania.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Correct
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You receive the blood results of an 80-year-old man who takes warfarin following a pulmonary embolism three months ago. He recently completed a course of antibiotics.
INR 8.4
After reviewing the patient, you find that he is in good health with no signs of bleeding or bruising. What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Oral vitamin K 5mg + stop warfarin + repeat INR after 24 hours
Explanation:Managing High INR Levels in Patients Taking Warfarin
When a patient taking warfarin experiences high INR levels, the management approach depends on the severity of the situation. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped immediately and intravenous vitamin K should be administered along with prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma if available. For minor bleeding, warfarin should also be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be administered. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.
In cases where there is no bleeding but the INR is above 8.0, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K (1-5mg) can be given orally using the intravenous preparation. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.
If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0. If there is no bleeding, warfarin can be withheld for 1 or 2 doses and the subsequent maintenance dose can be reduced.
It is important to note that in cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered instead of fresh frozen plasma as it can take time to defrost. These guidelines are based on the recommendations of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology and the British National Formulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Correct
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As a registrar in General Practice for the past 8 months, you encounter a 55-year-old female patient who visits your clinic at least once a week, sometimes more frequently. The patient has a history of depression and fibromyalgia but no other significant chronic illness. Her usual complaints include persistent arthralgia, myalgia, low mood, and pruritus. Despite extensive investigations, no underlying organic cause has been identified for her symptoms. The patient is always courteous and prompt. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Have a conversation with the patient about her frequent attendance and suggest booking a regular appointment every two weeks initially
Explanation:The patient in question seems to have become overly reliant on their doctor, which could be seen as doctor dependence. To address this issue, it is important to have an open and honest conversation with the patient and suggest a solution. One effective approach is to schedule regular appointments, gradually increasing the time between them.
It is important to remember that some patients hold doctors in high regard and may feel hurt if advised to see another doctor. Limiting consultations to once every two weeks could also be risky if the patient experiences an urgent medical issue.
Removing the patient from the practice list is not a suitable solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her interpersonal relationships at work and in her personal life. She reports that this has been an ongoing issue since her teenage years. The patient finds it challenging to collaborate with others and describes herself as a perfectionist. Additionally, others have described her as rigid. What personality disorder is indicated by these symptoms?
Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for individuals who exhibit rigidity in their morals, ethics, and values and are hesitant to delegate work to others is obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals are often described as perfectionists who adhere to strict rules and have difficulty adapting to different ways of doing things. Avoidant personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, paranoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder are incorrect diagnoses as they present with different symptoms such as low self-esteem, unstable relationships, paranoia, and eccentric behavior.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner during the summer. She has suffered from mild asthma for many years, controlled with an inhaled short-acting beta-agonist (SABA). She has started working at a construction site and has noticed that her asthma is much worse, with daily symptoms. She has to use her current inhaler several times a day.
On examination, her chest is clear. Her best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is 480 l/min. Today, her PEFR is 430 l/min.
What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?Your Answer: Start an inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Managing Worsening Asthma Symptoms: Starting Inhaled Corticosteroids
This patient’s asthma symptoms have worsened, likely due to exposure to allergens at the stable. While her chest is clear and her PEFR has only mildly dropped, her daily symptoms and use of SABA indicate poorly controlled asthma. The first step in managing her symptoms is to start an inhaled corticosteroid as part of the stepwise approach to asthma management. Urgent allergy testing or a home allergy testing kit are not necessary at this stage, and oral steroids are not yet indicated. Instead, allergen avoidance measures can be discussed. It is not necessary for the patient to stop working at the stable at this time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents with acne affecting his face. On examination, there are multiple comedones on his face and a handful of papules and pustules. There are no nodules or scarring. The treating doctor decides to start him on topical benzoyl peroxide combined with an antibiotic.
Which of the following is the single most appropriate topical antibiotic to use?Your Answer: Lymecycline
Correct Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Mild to Moderate Acne: Clindamycin, Lymecycline, Flucloxacillin, Minocycline, and Trimethoprim
Acne is classified as mild to moderate if there are less than 35 inflammatory lesions and less than 2 nodules. For this type of acne, topical clindamycin is recommended as a first-line treatment, which can be combined with benzoyl peroxide, adapalene, or tretinoin. On the other hand, oral lymecycline is not recommended for mild to moderate acne but is effective for moderate to severe acne. Flucloxacillin is not used in acne treatment, while minocycline is effective but can cause liver problems and a lupus-like syndrome. Lastly, trimethoprim is used for people with moderate to severe acne who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to oral lymecycline or doxycycline. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment option for each individual case of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl with a barking cough is diagnosed with croup. However, she is feeding well and has only a low-grade fever of 37.9ºC. No intercostal recession is observed during examination. The decision is made to manage her in primary care. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg single dose
Explanation:Regardless of severity, a one-time oral dose of dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately for croup.
Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the target blood pressure for a 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and no end-organ damage, based on a clinic blood pressure reading?
Your Answer: < 130/80 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should aim for the same blood pressure targets as those without diabetes, as long as they are under 80 years old. This means keeping clinic readings below 140/90 and ABPM/HBPM readings below 135/85. It is important to note that these targets apply regardless of whether the patient has any end-organ damage.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy who suffers with partial seizures has been started on levetiracetam by the paediatricians following a recent outpatient appointment.
Following initiation in secondary care the paediatricians have advised he continue taking the levetiracetam at a maintenance dose of 20 mg/kg twice daily.
His current weight is 30 kg. Levetiracetam oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 100 mg/ml.
What is the correct dosage of levetiracetam in millilitres to prescribe?Your Answer: 2 ml BD
Correct Answer: 3 ml BD
Explanation:Calculating Levetiracetam Dose
When calculating the dose of Levetiracetam oral solution, it is important to consider the patient’s weight and the recommended dosage of 25 mg/kg BD. For example, if the patient weighs 24 kg, the total daily dose would be 600 mg BD. Since the oral solution is 100 mg/ml, this would equate to 6 ml BD. It is crucial to accurately calculate the dose to ensure the patient receives the appropriate amount of medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue and itching. She denies any alcohol abuse and is not on any medications. She has xanthelasmas and her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Pruritus and Xanthelasmas
The patient’s symptoms of pruritus and xanthelasmas suggest a possible diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), a chronic liver disease that primarily affects women between the ages of 30 and 65. Fatigue is often the first symptom, and pruritus is also common. Elevated alkaline phosphatase levels and increased lipid and cholesterol levels are typical of PBC. Xanthelasmas may be present in late-stage disease.
Familial hypercholesterolaemia may also cause xanthelasmas, but pruritus and elevated alkaline phosphatase levels would not be expected. Asteatotic eczema may cause pruritus, but it is more common in elderly patients and would not explain the elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas may cause painless jaundice and pruritus, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas. Paget’s disease of bone may cause elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas or pruritus.
Overall, the combination of symptoms suggests PBC as the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Correct
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You are working in the urgent care centre, where John, a 44-year-old man comes to see you with a laceration to his right lower leg. He explains that 2 hours ago he was using a sharp tool to cut wood when it slipped and hit deep into his foot.
On examination, there is a 6 cm laceration on the lateral aspect of John's right lower leg which is 4 cm deep. There is a lot of sawdust visible inside the wound.
John is unsure about his tetanus immunisation history and there is no further information about this in his records.
What is the most appropriate option to manage John's wound with regards to tetanus prophylaxis?Your Answer: Booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin should be given
Explanation:If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin, unless the wound is minor and less than six hours old. In the case of Sarah, who has a tetanus-prone wound contaminated with soil, she requires treatment with human tetanus immunoglobulin. According to NICE guidelines, if a person’s immunisation status is unknown or uncertain, an immediate dose of vaccine should be given, followed by a full five-dose course if necessary to ensure future immunity. Therefore, the correct course of action is to administer both a booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin. Waiting to confirm the tetanus immunisation history is not recommended, as tetanus prophylaxis needs to be given urgently. Advising that no tetanus prophylaxis is required is also incorrect, especially in the case of a tetanus-prone wound, which requires both a booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin.
Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses. This is considered to provide long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and non-penetrating with negligible tissue damage. Tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment, wounds containing foreign bodies, and compound fractures. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns that show extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman suffered a whiplash injury to her neck six weeks ago when her car was struck from behind by another vehicle. She has just had a private assessment by an orthopaedic surgeon because she is pursuing a compensation claim. He has told her to come to see you to get some better treatment for her persisting neck pain. She says that until now she has been self-medicating with paracetamol with only limited benefit. She denies any symptoms of anxiety or depression.
Which of the following is the most appropriate INITIAL management?Your Answer: Keep a pain diary
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations
Whiplash is a common injury that can cause pain and discomfort in the neck and shoulders. If a patient has already been taking paracetamol for their symptoms, the addition of Ibuprofen or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be the next logical step. In some cases, patients may need to take both drugs regularly. Codeine is another alternative that can be added to paracetamol or ibuprofen.
It’s important to encourage patients to return to their normal activities as soon as possible. Physiotherapy can be helpful, but it’s most effective when started soon after the injury occurs. For those with late whiplash syndrome who don’t respond well to full-dose analgesics, a trial of amitriptyline, pregabalin, or gabapentin for one month may be helpful.
Keeping a pain diary can be useful, but it’s important to focus on function and abilities rather than pain and disability. Referral to a pain clinic is recommended at an early stage for chronic symptoms. Finally, behaviors that promote disability and enhance expectations of a poor outcome and chronic disability (such as wearing a collar) should be discouraged.
Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The cardiology department is attempting to establish the most effective medication for treating hypertension in patients over the age of 60. They conduct a study to compare the rate of blood pressure reduction in a group of patients (Group A) given medication A versus a group (Group B) given medication B. The systolic blood pressure readings of patients in both groups are recorded.
What is the most appropriate statistical test to determine if there is a significant difference in the effectiveness of the two medications?Your Answer: Mann-Whitney U test
Correct Answer: Chi-squared test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test to compare the percentage of wound infections developing in groups A and B is the Chi-squared test. This test is used to compare proportions or percentages and is non-parametric. The Mann-Whitney U test, Student’s t-test (paired and unpaired), and Wilcoxon signed-rank test are not appropriate for this scenario as they either measure different types of data or require normally distributed data.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is discharged after suffering a fractured neck of femur. Upon follow-up, his progress is satisfactory, but there is a need to consider secondary prevention of future fractures. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is seen for review with her mother. She has been seen on several occasions over the last 2-3 months, feeling increasingly tired and weak.
The last occasion was about two weeks ago when she was diagnosed with gastroenteritis. Her mother says this seems to have settle but she still complains of feeling generally weak and tired. She thinks she has lost weight.
A colleague of yours had requested some blood tests and you can see there is a normal full blood count, liver function, thyroid function, and anti-TTG results on the computer system. Her renal function is normal with a low sodium being the only result outside of normal range.
On examination: the child looks thin and a little pale. There is no fever, or rashes. She is not breathless or in pain. Her blood glucose is 4.1 mmol/L. Her heart sounds are normal and her chest is clear. There is no lymphadenopathy or organomegaly.
Which of the following clinical features is most likely be present on further examination of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperpigmentation of mucous membranes
Explanation:Understanding Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a rare condition that occurs due to adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Symptoms can range from sudden acute crises triggered by concurrent illness or stress to chronic nonspecific symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.
In this case, a child with chronic vague symptoms was examined, and blood results revealed hyponatremia and low glucose levels, which are common in Addison’s disease. Other symptoms such as postural hypotension, jaundice, peripheral edema, and inflammatory arthropathy were ruled out. Hyperpigmentation is a common feature of Addison’s disease, which develops due to increased ACTH production and usually affects sun-exposed areas, recent scar sites, pressure points, palmar creases, and mucous membranes. It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease due to its rarity and vague symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In your morning clinic, a 13-month-old girl is brought in by her father. She has been unwell for 2 days with a fever that has been over 39ºC. She has a cough and has been refusing to eat. Although she has been drinking normal amounts of milk, her urine output is less than usual. Her nose has been very runny, and she keeps rubbing her left ear. Her father is most worried about her cough and breathing and is wondering if she needs antibiotics.
During the examination, she appears alert but coryzal. Her temperature is 39.2ºC. Her heart rate is 150 beats per minute. Her respiratory rate is 60 breaths per minute. Her capillary refill time is < 2 seconds, and her mucous membranes are moist. You can hear transmitted sounds from her upper airway throughout her chest, but nothing focal. She has no visible rashes. Her throat is red with enlarged tonsils, and her left ear has a red, bulging tympanic membrane.
You consult the NICE traffic light system for feverish children. What observation is considered a red symptom, requiring admission to the hospital for further evaluation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >60 per minute
Explanation:The NICE paediatric traffic light system identifies a respiratory rate of over 60 per minute as a red flag, regardless of age. Other symptoms that are considered amber or red flags include decreased urine output, dry mucous membranes, and a heart rate of over 150 beats per minute in 12-24-month-olds. A fever of over 39ºC is not an amber or red symptom, but it is considered an amber symptom in 3-6-month-olds and a red flag in children under 3 months.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man who recently began taking simvastatin is experiencing muscle pain and fatigue. He is an avid runner and takes aspirin as his only other medication. His creatine kinase level is 305 iu/l (normal range 0-160 iu/l), but his renal function is normal. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce to a lower dose of statin
Explanation:Managing Myalgia in Statin Therapy: CK and TSH Testing and Treatment Options
Myalgia, or muscle pain, is a common side effect of statin therapy, particularly in patients who exercise. If a patient presents with suspected statin myopathy, healthcare providers should measure their creatine kinase (CK) and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and provide appropriate advice based on the results.
If the CK level is greater than five times the upper limit of normal, other potential causes (such as drug interactions) should be ruled out, and the statin should be discontinued. If the CK level is less than five times the upper limit of normal, the myalgia is typically not significant and may be related to exercise.
However, if the patient is symptomatic despite a non-significant elevation in CK levels, alternative statins or a lower dose should be considered. If these options are not effective, ezetimibe may be prescribed.
In summary, managing myalgia in statin therapy involves careful monitoring of CK and TSH levels and adjusting treatment accordingly to minimize discomfort and ensure patient safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and his HbA1c remains high at 56 mmol/mol despite attempts to modify his lifestyle. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.
Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A preschool teacher arranges an educational session at the Preschool assembly where they talk about healthy eating. This could be best described as an example of which of the following concepts?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Health promotion
Explanation:The RCGP curriculum includes Public Health as part of the statement on ‘Healthy People: promoting health and preventing disease,’ which are commonly encountered in Primary Care.
The nurse in this scenario is practicing health promotion, which is defined by the World Health Organisation as ‘the process of enabling people to increase control over, and to improve, their health.’
Health surveillance, as defined by WHO, involves the continuous and systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data for public health practice. An example of this is the National Child Measurement Program, which collects data on childhood obesity.
Screening is the process of testing a population or selected subgroup for a disease in its early or pre-symptomatic stage to provide earlier treatment and improve outcomes. In the UK, examples of screening programs include breast screening, cervical screening, and bowel cancer screening. It is linked to the concept of secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a disease at an earlier stage to reduce morbidity and mortality.
Understanding Health Promotion and Surveillance
Health promotion refers to the process of empowering individuals to take control of their health and improve it. This is achieved through various means such as education, awareness campaigns, and access to healthcare services. The World Health Organisation defines health promotion as a continuous process that enables people to increase their control over their health.
On the other hand, health surveillance is the systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data. This data is used to plan, implement, and evaluate public health practices. Health surveillance is crucial in identifying health trends and patterns, which can help in the prevention and control of diseases. An example of health surveillance is the National Child Measurement Program, which collects data on childhood obesity.
In summary, health promotion and surveillance are essential components of public health. Health promotion empowers individuals to take control of their health, while health surveillance provides valuable data that can be used to plan and implement effective public health interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You assess a new admission to the residential home you manage. Mary is an 84-year-old woman with moderate dementia. She appears to be pleasantly confused but tends to wander around and occasionally shouts that she wants to go home. The nursing staff have informed you that they have locked the entry door to the floor of the residential home to prevent her from leaving and getting lost. What would be the legally appropriate advice in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You should suggest the residential home should apply for a DOLS (Deprivation of Liberty Safeguard) for Roger.
Explanation:It is evident from the given details that Roger’s freedom is being curtailed as the nurses have locked the door to prevent him from leaving, citing concerns about his conduct. This constitutes a deprivation of liberty.
The website of the Social Care Institute for Excellence offers a comprehensive explanation of the DOLS (Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards) law. It cites instances that would qualify as a ‘deprivation of liberty,’ such as ’employing locks or keypads that restrict a person’s movement in and out of various sections of a structure.’
Understanding the Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards
The Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards (DOLS) are a set of regulations that were introduced as an amendment to the Mental Capacity Act 2005. These safeguards apply only in England and Wales and are designed to ensure that individuals are not deprived of their liberty without proper justification. While the Mental Capacity Act allows for the use of restraint and restrictions, these can only be used if they are deemed to be in the best interests of the person in question. However, if these measures are likely to result in the deprivation of an individual’s liberty, additional safeguards must be put in place.
The DOLS can only be used in care homes or hospitals, and in other settings, the Court of Protection must be consulted to determine whether an individual can be deprived of their liberty. Before a standard authorisation can be given, six assessments must be carried out to ensure that the individual’s rights are being protected. If a standard authorisation is granted, the person must have a relevant person’s representative appointed to represent them legally. This representative is usually a family member or friend.
Other safeguards include the right to challenge authorisations in the Court of Protection without cost and access to independent mental capacity advocates (IMCAs). These measures are in place to ensure that individuals are not deprived of their liberty without proper justification and that their rights are protected at all times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In what instances is it appropriate to use abbreviations for causes of death on a death certificate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MI
Explanation:Avoid Abbreviations on Death Certificates
Abbreviations should be avoided on death certificates as they may not be easily understood by others and could lead to confusion in interpreting the certificate. This could result in errors in medical research or legal proceedings. The only exceptions to this rule are HIV for human immunodeficiency virus infection and AIDS for acquired immune deficiency syndrome, which the registrar can accept. It is important to ensure that death certificates are clear and concise to accurately reflect the cause of death and provide important information for public health purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use full words instead of abbreviations on death certificates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment regarding her treatment. She visited two weeks ago and was diagnosed with moderate depression and a few symptoms of anxiety. You prescribed Citalopram 20 mg to treat her condition.
During the review, she reports feeling terrible. She experiences muscle twitches, tremors, and constant stomach gurgling. She used to feel sluggish and lethargic, but now she can't sit still and paces around the room. These symptoms worsened after a recent migraine attack.
Upon examination, she appears agitated, and her pulse is 90 bpm sinus rhythm with a BP of 160/90. Abdominal examination is unremarkable, and a brief neurological examination of the limbs is normal, except for brisk reflexes all around. Recent thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and full blood count were normal.
Her medical history includes endometriosis and migraines. She takes co-codamol 8/500 tablets and Sumatriptan tablets as needed. She has also been taking St John's wort for the past three months. She used to drink two units of alcohol per week.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Withdraw the Citalopram completely
Explanation:Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a condition that is often overlooked in primary care. It occurs when there is an excessive amount of serotonergic activity in the body, which can be caused by the initiation of medication affecting serotonin activity or an interaction between medicines that affect serotonin activity. Patients who take medications such as codeine, triptans, and St. John’s wort are at a higher risk of developing serotonin syndrome when co-prescribed with an SSRI.
If a patient presents with symptoms of serotonin syndrome, it is important to withdraw the offending medicine, such as Citalopram. However, it is also important to consider other factors that may have contributed to the onset of symptoms, such as the use of a triptan for a migraine. Prescribing pizotifen or referring the patient for counseling may not alleviate their symptoms.
It is important to note that some authorities caution against the use of propranolol, as it can result in hypotension and mask the response to treatment by slowing the pulse. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms of serotonin syndrome, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer after a lesion was detected during a routine mammogram as part of the NHS Breast Screening program. What are the optimal features of a screening test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High sensitivity and high specificity
Explanation:An optimal screening test would possess both high sensitivity and high specificity.
Sensitivity refers to the proportion of individuals with a particular disease who are correctly identified as having the disease by the test. In an ideal screening program, a high sensitivity would ensure that the majority of affected individuals are detected. The positive predictive value, which indicates the proportion of people with the disease among those who test positive, is less important than sensitivity in a screening test. A high positive predictive value doesn’t necessarily mean that most individuals with the disease would test positive, but rather that most of those who test positive have the disease.
Specificity, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of individuals without the disease who are correctly identified as not having the disease by the test. A screening program with high specificity would produce negative test results for those who do not have the disease, reducing the need for further, more invasive tests. It is crucial for a screening program to have few false positive results. The negative predictive value, which indicates the proportion of people without the disease among those who test negative, is not relevant to a screening program’s goals.
Screening for a particular condition should meet certain criteria, known as the Wilson and Jungner criteria. Firstly, the condition being screened for should be a significant public health concern. Secondly, there should be an effective treatment available for those who are diagnosed with the disease. Thirdly, facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be accessible. Fourthly, there should be a recognizable early stage of the disease. Fifthly, the natural progression of the disease should be well understood. Sixthly, there should be a suitable test or examination available. Seventhly, the test or examination should be acceptable to the population being screened. Eighthly, there should be a clear policy on who should be treated. Ninthly, the cost of screening and subsequent treatment should be economically balanced. Finally, screening should be an ongoing process rather than a one-time event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father, who has concerns about her behaviour. For the last four years, she has been getting into trouble at school, being aggressive with other children, and has 'meltdowns' if her routine must be changed. This is frequently leading to her needing a “time-out” in school and is impacting on her education. Her behaviour is better at home, where a strict routine is maintained. She is very interested in animals and has an extraordinary amount of knowledge about them.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
Explanation:Understanding Autism Spectrum Disorder in Children: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a condition that affects around 1% of children in the UK, with symptoms typically developing before the age of three. Boys are more commonly affected than girls, with a ratio of 4:1. Children with ASD exhibit a range of symptoms, including a lack of social awareness, a preference for rules and strict routines, difficulty coping with change, and specific interests about which they have extraordinary knowledge.
In school-age children, additional symptoms may include communication impairments, social impairments, and impairment of interests or behaviours. These symptoms can impact a child’s ability to function in a classroom setting and may lead to disruptive behaviour.
ADHD is another condition that can impact a child’s behaviour in the classroom. Symptoms of ADHD include poor attention span, motor overactivity, and impulsiveness. However, ADHD is not associated with a preference for specific interests or hobbies.
Conduct Disorder is a pattern of behaviour in which the basic rights of others or societal norms are broken. While some features of Conduct Disorder may be present in a child with ASD, the lack of additional symptoms makes it an unlikely diagnosis.
Oppositional Defiance Disorder (ODD) is a pattern of angry and defiant behaviour that impacts a child’s social, educational, or occupational functioning. While aggression with other children may be a symptom of ODD, the absence of additional symptoms makes it an unlikely diagnosis in a child with ASD.
It is important to note that some behaviours, such as getting in trouble at school or having specific interests, can be a normal part of development. However, persistent behavioural problems and aggression that impact a child’s education and daily life warrant a specialist assessment for ASD. Early diagnosis and intervention can help maximise a child’s potential and provide support for parents and caregivers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male is being seen at the heart failure clinic by a nurse. Despite being treated with furosemide, bisoprolol, enalapril, and spironolactone, he experiences breathlessness with minimal exertion. Upon examination, there is minimal ankle edema and clear chest auscultation. Recent test results show sinus rhythm with a rate of 84 bpm on ECG, cardiomegaly with clear lung fields on chest x-ray, and an ejection fraction of 35% on echo. Isosorbide dinitrate with hydralazine was attempted but had to be discontinued due to side effects. What additional medication would be most effective in alleviating his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents with an episode of diarrhoea followed by jaundice.
Select the single most likely pathogen.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A virus
Explanation:Hepatitis A: A Self-Limiting Liver Infection
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that causes acute and self-limiting hepatitis. It is often preceded by flu-like symptoms and a brief diarrheal illness, especially in children. Unlike other forms of hepatitis, there is no chronic viral carriage or long-term liver damage associated with hepatitis A. The virus is transmitted orally and has an incubation period of 2 to 6 weeks. The most common mode of transmission is through the ingestion of contaminated food or water that has been contaminated with fecal matter from an infected person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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For elderly patients who fast during Ramadan, what is the correct approach to managing type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around 4 out of 5 patients Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan
Explanation:Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.
To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.
Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy has a one-year history of progressive weakness, finding it more difficult to stand from a sitting position and climb stairs. His maternal grandfather suffered from a similar condition but died in a motorboat accident at the age of 32. He has normal tone and reflexes in his limbs but weakness proximally in his arms and legs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Becker muscular dystrophy
Explanation:Differentiating between types of muscular dystrophy
Muscular dystrophies are a group of inherited disorders that cause progressive muscle wasting and weakness. There are several types of muscular dystrophy, each with its own unique characteristics. It is important to differentiate between these types in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
Becker muscular dystrophy is a less severe form of the disorder, with a later onset and longer life expectancy. It mainly affects the proximal muscles of the limbs and is inherited in an X-linked-recessive pattern.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy, on the other hand, is a more severe form that presents in early childhood and leads to wheelchair dependence and early death. It is also inherited in an X-linked-recessive pattern and affects the proximal muscles of the limbs, as well as the heart and intellect.
Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is an autosomal dominant or recessive disorder that affects the face and shoulder muscles in early adulthood, but doesn’t affect life expectancy.
Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy is an autosomal dominant or recessive disorder that presents in the teenage years with weakness in the pelvic girdle and shoulders, but doesn’t affect life expectancy or intellect.
Myasthenia gravis is an acquired, autoimmune disorder that causes fluctuating muscle weakness, particularly in the extraocular, bulbar, or proximal limb muscles. It typically occurs in adulthood.
Understanding the differences between these types of muscular dystrophy can aid in diagnosis and management of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You see a 13-year-old boy who has burns on his hands. Three months ago he had a fractured radius.
You talk to him and he reveals that his father has been causing the injuries. You inform him that you will be referring him to child protection services, but he pleads with you not to. He comprehends the situation and the role of the child protection team, but he expresses his love for his family and doesn't want to be separated from them. You are familiar with his father and his grandfather, as they are all patients of yours.
What course of action should you take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her to the child protection team
Explanation:Referring Child Abuse Cases: A Doctor’s Responsibility
As a doctor, it is your responsibility to protect children and young people from abuse. In cases where there is ongoing risk of serious abuse, it is important to refer the child in a timely manner, even if it goes against their wishes. This is because the safety of the child should always be the top priority.
According to the General Medical Council (UK), doctors have a duty to protect children and young people from harm. Referring cases of abuse is a crucial step in ensuring their safety. It is important to act quickly and make the necessary referrals to safeguard the child’s well-being. Even if the child expresses reluctance or resistance to the referral, it is important to prioritize their safety and take appropriate action. By doing so, doctors can fulfill their responsibility to protect vulnerable children and young people from harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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