00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old man has suffered a stab wound to his left upper abdomen,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has suffered a stab wound to his left upper abdomen, directly below the costal margin in the mid-axillary line. Which organ is the most probable to have been harmed?

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Correct Answer: Colon

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of Abdominal Organs and Stab Wound Location

      The location of a stab wound in the mid-axillary line, immediately inferior to the costal margin, is likely to affect the colon, specifically the splenic flexure of the colon. The spleen can also be affected if the wound is deep enough. Other structures may also be affected depending on the depth and direction of the wound. However, the small intestine, left kidney, spleen, and stomach are unlikely to be affected in this scenario due to their respective locations in the abdomen. It is important to understand the anatomy of abdominal organs to determine potential injuries in cases of trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department after a low-speed road...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department after a low-speed road traffic collision. He removed himself from the vehicle and was standing in the layby upon arrival of the ambulance. Since he was complaining of neck pain, he was immobilised at the scene as a precaution. All observation en route and on arrival to the Emergency Department are within the normal range, but he is complaining of ongoing pain in the ‘middle’ of his neck. There are no neurological symptoms of note. When you examine him, there are no other injuries apparent, but he is complaining of pain when you press over his upper cervical spine.
      What is the next step in the investigation and management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Request an urgent computed tomography (CT) scan of the cervical spine

      Correct Answer: Keep the patient immobilised and request plain films of the cervical spine

      Explanation:

      Management of Traumatic Neck Pain

      Traumatic neck pain is a serious condition that requires immediate attention, especially in cases of high-risk mechanisms such as road traffic collisions. Missed cervical spine injuries can lead to ongoing morbidity and even mortality. In such cases, decision support rules like the NEXUS criteria can guide emergency physicians in clearing the cervical spine.

      If the patient presents with central neck tenderness, it is inappropriate to mobilize them or re-examine them after analgesia. Instead, the patient should be immobilized, and plain films of the cervical spine should be requested. If any abnormalities are seen on the plain films, orthopaedic consultation may be required for further management.

      It is important to note that CT of the cervical spine should only be used when absolutely necessary due to the significant dose of radiation to the thyroid area. Therefore, immobilization and plain films are the first line of management for traumatic neck pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at work. He...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at work. He is brought to the Emergency Department where he is found to have superficial abrasions to the left side of chest and upper abdomen together with an obvious deformity of the left humerus. Radiograph of the left arm shows a displaced, midshaft humerus fracture. Neurovascular examination reveals radial nerve palsy together with absent peripheral pulses and a cool, clammy distal arm. He was given oral paracetamol at work while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. Pain score remains 9/10. Parameters are as follows:
      Patient Normal
      Temperature 36.8°C 36.1–37.2°C
      Pulse 115 beats/min 60–100 beats/min
      Blood pressure 145/93 mmHg <120/80 mmHg
      Oxygen saturations 99% on room air 94–98%
      Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Which of the following is the most appropriate form of pain relief?

      Your Answer: iv morphine

      Explanation:

      Analgesic Options for Long Bone Fractures: Choosing the Right Treatment

      When it comes to managing pain in long bone fractures, the traditional analgesia ladder may not always be sufficient. While step 1 recommends non-opioid options like aspirin or paracetamol, and step 2 suggests weak opioids like codeine, a step 3 approach may be necessary for moderate to severe pain. In this case, the two most viable options are pethidine and morphine.

      While pethidine may be an option, morphine is often preferred due to its safer side-effect profile and lower risk of toxicity. IV morphine also acts quicker than SC pethidine and can be titrated more readily. However, it’s important to note that both options have depressive effects on the cardiovascular system and should not be used in shocked patients. Even in stable patients, caution is advised due to the risk of respiratory depression and dependency.

      Other options, such as NSAIDs like diclofenac, may be effective for musculoskeletal pain but are contraindicated in emergency situations where the patient must be kept nil by mouth. Similarly, inhaled options like Entonox may not be strong enough for a pain score of 9/10.

      In summary, choosing the right analgesic option for long bone fractures requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and the potential risks and benefits of each treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      69.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 36-year-old head trauma patient who is in Critical Care is having difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old head trauma patient who is in Critical Care is having difficulty consuming enough calories due to bilateral limb fractures that are non-weight-bearing and previous blunt trauma to the chest causing multiple rib fractures. The medical team decides to administer supplemental feeding through a nasogastric (NG) tube. The junior doctor successfully inserts the NG tube but seeks guidance from their senior on the most effective way to verify its correct placement.
      What is the appropriate method for confirming the proper positioning of the NG tube?

      Your Answer: Aspirate and if the aspirate looks like stomach contents, then it is confirmed

      Correct Answer: Perform a CXR and look for midline descent to below the diaphragm before crossing to the patient’s left-hand side in the stomach.

      Explanation:

      Confirming Correct Placement of Nasogastric (NG) Tube

      To ensure correct placement of an NG tube, a chest X-ray (CXR) should be performed to confirm midline descent below the diaphragm before crossing to the left-hand side in the stomach. Misplacement of an NG tube is a never event due to the high mortality rate associated with feeding through a misplaced tube. Seeking radiological support to confirm placement is recommended, and the tip of the NG tube should be visualized ideally. Monitoring oxygen saturations or aspirating and checking the aspirate’s appearance or pH level are not reliable methods for confirming placement. The minimum requirement for confirming placement is ensuring the NG tube progresses below the diaphragm and moves to the left-hand side to sit in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after a car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after a car accident. He is breathing irregularly, with a respiratory rate of five breaths/minute, and has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of three. The trauma team decides to intubate him in the department, but due to oropharyngeal swelling caused by the trauma, they are unable to do so. His condition rapidly deteriorates, and he is now hypoxic, with an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 70%, despite receiving mechanical ventilation with a bag-valve-mask and basic airway manoeuvres. What is the most appropriate intervention to restore his oxygenation?

      Your Answer: Oropharyngeal airway insertion

      Correct Answer: Emergency cricothyroidotomy

      Explanation:

      Airway Interventions: Emergency Cricothyroidotomy, Laryngectomy, and More

      Emergency cricothyroidotomy is a procedure that creates a secure airway below the level of obstruction in a timely manner. It involves making an incision in the cricothyroid membrane and introducing an airway tube to restore ventilation. This technique is quick and requires minimal dissection. There are three types of cricothyroidotomy techniques: surgical, needle, and percutaneous.

      On the other hand, a laryngectomy is an elective surgical procedure that removes the larynx and is used to treat laryngeal cancers. It does not play a role in restoring ventilation.

      Inserting an oropharyngeal airway is not effective in improving oxygenation when the level of obstruction is below or at the level of the airway. Similarly, nasopharyngeal airway insertion is not appropriate in this situation.

      While a tracheostomy creates a secure airway below the level of obstruction, it is not the optimal intervention in emergency situations. It is typically an elective procedure used for patients weaning off prolonged mechanical ventilation or those with difficulty controlling secretions. A tracheostomy tube is inserted approximately 2 cm below the cricoid cartilage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      58.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old victim of a high-speed car collision had a right sided pneumothorax,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old victim of a high-speed car collision had a right sided pneumothorax, along with fracture of the pelvis and right humerus. A chest drain was inserted, which kept on bubbling over the next few days. The air leak got worse when the drain was connected to low-grade suction and the lung failed to expand fully.
      What is the most likely cause of this complication?

      Your Answer: Injury to a major bronchus

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of persistent air leak after chest trauma

      Injury to a major bronchus: a possible cause of persistent air leak after chest trauma

      When a patient presents with a history of chest trauma and a persistent air leak from a chest drain, one possible explanation is injury to a major bronchus. This type of injury can occur when a forceful blow to the chest happens while the glottis is closed, leading to a tear or rupture of the bronchial wall. The presence of surgical emphysema, which is the abnormal accumulation of air in the tissues due to a communication between the airways and the pleural space, can be a clue to this diagnosis. However, if the injury is not recognized initially, the air leak may worsen or persist despite suction applied to the chest drain, and the affected lung may fail to re-expand.

      The management of major air leaks from bronchial injuries typically involves pleurodesis, which is a procedure that aims to create adhesions between the two layers of the pleura, thus obliterating the pleural space and preventing further air leakage. This can be achieved by different methods, such as video-assisted thoracoscopy or the application of blood and fibrin patches.

      Other possible causes of persistent air leak after chest trauma include tension pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate decompression of the pleural space, and fat embolism, which can occur in patients with multiple injuries and may cause respiratory and neurological symptoms as well as skin petechiae. However, these conditions can usually be distinguished from bronchial injury based on the clinical features and imaging findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department (ED) by the Helicopter...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department (ED) by the Helicopter Emergency Medical Service (HEMS) in severe hypovolaemic shock. She was involved in a multiple vehicle accident and has sustained injuries all over her body, including her head, chest, abdomen, and long bones. She is intubated with C-spine control and a large bore subclavian line is inserted for resuscitation. In the ambulance, she received 2 units of packed red cells (PRC) and 2 units of fresh frozen plasma (FFP), but she still has a very weak pulse.
      Her initial blood gas shows a pH of 6.9 and resuscitation efforts continue as she is given another 3 units of PRC and 3 units of FFP on the way to the operating theatre. Platelets and cryoprecipitate are also requested. Despite these interventions, her pulse remains weak and the anaesthetist is struggling to place an arterial line for blood pressure monitoring and continued blood sampling. During this time, you observe a change in her electrocardiogram (ECG): it was previously narrow and fast, but is now broad and slowing down.
      What is the most likely explanation for this change in the ECG?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion

      Differential diagnosis of ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion

      In a patient receiving massive transfusion, several factors can affect the electrolyte balance and lead to electrocardiogram (ECG) changes. One of the most critical complications is hyperkalaemia, which can cause tented T waves, widening of the PR and QRS intervals, and ventricular arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation. Regular blood gas measurements and monitoring of electrolytes such as calcium and potassium are essential to detect and treat hyperkalaemia promptly. Calcium gluconate/chloride and insulin/50% dextrose can be used to control potassium levels.

      Hypokalaemia is unlikely to occur in this scenario, as massive transfusion and acidaemia tend to raise potassium levels. Hypokalaemia typically causes ECG changes such as prolonged PR interval, prominent U waves, and ST depression, which can progress to supraventricular and ventricular tachycardias.

      Hypocalcaemia can result from chelation by the citrate in stored blood, but it is unlikely to cause the ECG signs described. The most common ECG change associated with hypocalcaemia is prolongation of the QTc interval due to lengthening of the ST segment.

      Coronary artery thrombosis is a possible cause of ECG changes, but it would typically manifest as ST elevation or depression, which is not the case here.

      A severe transfusion reaction can also occur, but it is unlikely to give rise to the ECG changes described. Signs of a transfusion reaction include pyrexia, shortness of breath, bronchospasm, and loss of consciousness, along with tachycardia and hypo- or hypertension.

      In summary, when evaluating ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion, hyperkalaemia should be the primary concern, followed by other electrolyte imbalances and potential complications. Regular monitoring and prompt intervention can prevent life-threatening arrhythmias and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      95.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 22-year-old student is hit by a bus while cycling to university at...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student is hit by a bus while cycling to university at moderate speed. He falls and lands on the curb, hitting his left ribs. There is no loss of consciousness. He is brought into the Emergency Department, complaining of left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain. On examination, his heart rate is 120 bpm after morphine analgesia; his blood pressure is 100/65 mmHg and he is peripherally cold; the respiratory rate is 25 and saturations are 99% on room air. Chest X-ray reveals displaced left lower rib fractures, without other thoracic pathology.
      What diagnosis would you be most concerned about?

      Your Answer: Occult pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Splenic rupture

      Explanation:

      Assessing a Patient with Blunt Force Trauma: Suspected Splenic Rupture and Differential Diagnoses

      When evaluating a patient with blunt force trauma, it is crucial to have a good understanding of regional anatomy to assess potential damage to underlying structures. In cases where there is blunt force trauma to the left upper quadrant (LUQ) and associated tachycardia and tachypnea, suspicion of splenic rupture arises. Despite significant trauma and suspected blood loss, compensatory mechanisms such as peripheral vasoconstriction (resulting in cold peripheries) and increased cardiac output (resulting in tachycardia) may maintain an adequate blood pressure.

      The patient should be managed according to the principles of Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), including an ABCDE assessment, wide-bore intravenous access, and blood sampling for hemoglobin level and cross-matching of blood. If stable, an urgent computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis is necessary. If unstable, an emergency laparotomy is required.

      Other potential diagnoses to consider include aspiration pneumonia, cardiac tamponade (less common with blunt force trauma), early chest infection (possible in the future due to fractured ribs), and occult pneumothorax (possible due to fractured ribs, but not likely to produce significant physiological changes).

      Evaluating a Patient with Blunt Force Trauma: Suspected Splenic Rupture and Differential Diagnoses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 19-year-old man playing rugby injures his right arm, resulting in swelling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man playing rugby injures his right arm, resulting in swelling and tenderness in the cubital fossa. Upon examination, it is found that the patient's ability to flex his elbow is reduced and his ability to supinate his right forearm is significantly impaired. However, sensation in the skin of his right forearm remains intact. What structure is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Brachialis muscle

      Correct Answer: Biceps brachii muscle

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Cause of Weakness in Elbow Flexion and Supination: Biceps Brachii Muscle Injury

      The biceps brachii muscle plays a crucial role in elbow flexion and supination of the forearm. When a patient presents with weakness in both of these movements, along without loss of skin sensation, a biceps brachii injury is the most likely cause. In contrast, damage to the brachialis muscle would only affect elbow flexion, while damage to the pronator teres muscle would only affect forearm pronation. The musculocutaneous nerve, which innervates the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles, as well as the coracobrachialis muscle, would also result in sensory loss if damaged. The supinator muscle, on the other hand, only plays a role in supination and would not cause weakness in elbow flexion. Therefore, identifying the specific muscle involved is crucial in determining the cause of weakness in elbow flexion and supination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Mrs Chen is a 55-year-old female involved in a high speed motor vehicle...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Chen is a 55-year-old female involved in a high speed motor vehicle accident. After controlling her cervical spine with tapes, blocks and a collar, you note that her breathing is laboured and there is significant stridor. She has multiple bruises over her face, bilateral periorbital ecchymosis and Battle's sign. She also has significant nose, mouth and jaw injuries and bleeding and when you attempt to intubate, you are unable to get a clear view of the cords due to the distorted anatomy.
      Which of the following is the next best step to ventilate the patient?

      Your Answer: Attempt a percutaneous tracheostomy

      Correct Answer: Perform an emergency cricothyroidotomy

      Explanation:

      Managing a Difficult Airway in a Trauma Scenario

      In a trauma scenario, managing a difficult airway is crucial and should follow the ATLS guidelines. If intubation fails, a cricothyroidotomy performed by an experienced person is often the best choice. A needle cricothyroidotomy with jet insufflation can be used as a temporizing measure, but it is not a viable mode of ventilation. An emergency cricothyroidotomy with the insertion of an endotracheal tube or a small cuffed tracheostomy tube is a better option.

      A percutaneous tracheostomy is only performed in an elective setting with a sterile field and prior airway control. A nasopharyngeal airway would be contraindicated in a suspected basal skull fracture case. Fibreoptic-guided intubation is only indicated in an elective setting for a difficult airway. Blind insertion of an endotracheal tube with a bougie should never be attempted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      52.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following a fall from a roof where he was repairing shingles. He is conscious and complains of back and neck pain. He is breathing spontaneously and has a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg and a pulse rate of 75 bpm. He has deformity in the right thigh, which he says does not hurt. He is managed as a multiple trauma and is noted to have priapism as a urinary catheter is inserted. Initially, he has no movement, reflexes or sensation in his lower limbs, but when examined several days later, he is found to have spastic paresis and hyperreflexia in the lower limbs affecting all muscle groups. The lower limbs remain insensate. The upper limbs move normally both proximally and distally, and reflexes are normal.
      What is the most likely level of his spinal cord injury?

      Your Answer: S5

      Correct Answer: T8

      Explanation:

      Determining the Level of Spinal Cord Injury

      When assessing a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury, it is important to determine the level of the injury in order to understand the extent of neurological deficits. The initial phase of injury is known as spinal shock, which refers to the loss of all neurological activity below the level of injury. This phase typically lasts up to 6 weeks post-injury. Once spinal shock passes, upper motor neuron signs become apparent.

      In the case of a patient with priapism and sensory loss in the lower limbs but unaffected upper limbs, the injury must be below T1. The lower limbs are innervated by the femoral, obturator, and sciatic nerves, which all arise above the fifth sacral segment of the cord. A lesion at L4 would spare some proximal lower limb muscle function and sensation over the anterior thigh, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. An injury at S5 would not cause additional neurological signs and symptoms in the lower limbs.

      Therefore, the most likely level of injury is T8. It is important to rule out higher-level injuries, such as C3 or C8, which would also affect the upper limbs and breathing. By determining the level of spinal cord injury, healthcare professionals can better understand the extent of neurological deficits and provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A man in his thirties receives a punch to the left side of...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his thirties receives a punch to the left side of his face resulting in a black eye. He reports experiencing numbness in his left cheek and upper teeth on that side.
      Which nerve is likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Zygomatic branch of the facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerves and their Functions in Facial Sensation and Movement

      The face is innervated by several nerves that serve different functions. The infraorbital nerve supplies sensation to the upper teeth and cheek, but is vulnerable to direct trauma and pressure. The supratrochlear nerve provides sensation to the upper eyelid, conjunctiva, and lower middle forehead. The mental nerve supplies sensation to the lower lip and chin, while the zygomatic branch of the facial nerve gives motor innervation to the orbicularis oculi. Lastly, the chorda tympani is responsible for taste sensation in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Understanding the functions of these nerves is crucial in diagnosing and treating facial injuries and disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old man has been assaulted with a baseball bat. He is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man has been assaulted with a baseball bat. He is brought to the Emergency Department as a major trauma ‘code red’ call. He has already had drug-assisted intubation at the scene and a thoracostomy to his left chest. He remained critical throughout the journey to hospital, receiving intravenous (IV) fluids and 2 units of O-negative red blood cells. On primary survey, he has equal chest expansion, but with crepitus and clear injuries to his left chest. He is tachycardic at 160 bpm, with an unrecordable blood pressure (BP). On further exposure, he has multiple marks over his abdomen and torso, and a distended, tense abdomen. A FAST scan is positive, with free fluid in the abdomen. A concurrent chest X-ray shows fractured ribs on the left, but otherwise clear lung fields, without haemothorax. He has now received 3 units of packed red cells and 2 units of fresh frozen plasma, along with 2 litres of crystalloid fluid. Following these interventions, his BP is recorded at 74 mmHg systolic, and he remains unstable.
      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Take to interventional radiology for an urgent angiogram and embolisation

      Correct Answer: Immediate laparotomy in theatre

      Explanation:

      Management Options for a Haemodynamically Unstable Trauma Patient with Intra-Abdominal Bleeding

      When faced with a haemodynamically unstable trauma patient with suspected intra-abdominal bleeding, there are several management options to consider.

      Immediate laparotomy in theatre is the most urgent and potentially life-saving option. This approach involves exploring the abdomen to identify and control any bleeding sources.

      Placing a left-sided intercostal drain is not necessary in this scenario, as the patient is ventilating normally with a thoracostomy.

      A trauma computed tomography (full-body CT) may be useful in stable patients to identify the source of bleeding and facilitate focused immediate surgery. However, in an unstable patient, taking the time to transport them to the scanner could delay definitive management and be fatal.

      Trauma laparoscopy is only appropriate for stable patients with a mechanism of injury consistent with injury of a single organ. In this case, the patient is too unstable and the intra-abdominal blood would obscure any view from the camera.

      Taking the patient to interventional radiology for an urgent angiogram and embolisation is only an option if the source of bleeding has already been identified on trauma CT. The source would have to be discrete enough to be amenable to embolisation.

      In summary, immediate laparotomy in theatre is the most appropriate management option for a haemodynamically unstable trauma patient with suspected intra-abdominal bleeding. Other options may be considered in stable patients with a clear source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      71.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of pain in the back of his ankle and difficulty walking. He reports hearing a loud snap while participating in a 5-km obstacle course. Upon examination, the physician observes swelling at the back of the ankle and a positive Simmonds test. The patient is diagnosed with a ruptured Achilles tendon. What is the best course of action to promote healing of the damaged tendon?

      Your Answer: Surgical repair

      Correct Answer: Below-knee plaster cast

      Explanation:

      Ramsey-Hunt Syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old man has been involved in a motorbike accident. Although he is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man has been involved in a motorbike accident. Although he is not seriously injured, he has sustained a skin flap on the dorsal surface of his wrist after hitting it against a wall. Upon examination, it is observed that the extensor pollicis longus tendon is exposed and can be seen changing direction around a bony projection. What is the name of this bony feature?

      Your Answer: Tubercle of scaphoid

      Correct Answer: Dorsal tubercle of the radius

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of Wrist Bones

      The wrist is a complex joint composed of eight small bones called carpal bones. Each bone has its own unique features and functions. Here are some of the notable bony prominences found in the wrist:

      1. Dorsal tubercle of the radius (Lister tubercle): This is a bump located on the back of the radius bone, which serves as an attachment site for the extensor pollicis longus muscle.

      2. Hook of the hamate: This is a curved projection on the hamate bone, which is one of the attachment points for the flexor retinaculum.

      3. Head of the capitate: This is a rounded surface on the capitate bone, which sits between the lunate and scaphoid bones.

      4. Styloid process of ulna: This is a pointed projection on the ulna bone, which serves as the attachment site for the ulnar collateral ligament of the wrist.

      5. Tubercle of scaphoid: This is a small bump on the front of the scaphoid bone.

      Understanding the anatomy of these wrist bones can help in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect the wrist joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A young patient is brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident...

    Incorrect

    • A young patient is brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident and presents with the following symptoms:
      respiratory rate 15 bpm
      pulse 70 bpm
      blood pressure 120/80
      Glasgow Coma Score 3/15
      nasal bleeding mixed with clear fluid
      orbital haematoma (‘raccoon eyes’)
      no other facial bruising.
      What is the probable cause of the patient's injuries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior fossa skull fracture

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skull Fractures Based on Clinical Signs and Symptoms

      When assessing a patient with significant head trauma, it is important to identify the type of skull fracture present. An anterior fossa skull fracture is indicated by orbital hematoma and nasal bleeding mixed with clear fluid, which is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea. On the other hand, a posterior fossa skull fracture does not cause CSF rhinorrhea or orbital hematoma. A middle fossa skull fracture may produce ear bleeding or CSF otorrhea, and Battle’s sign, or postauricular ecchymosis, is a localizing feature. A paranasal sinus fracture may cause nasal bleeding but is unlikely to cause a CSF leak. Finally, a depressed skull vault fracture may occur alongside an anterior fossa skull fracture but will not cause CSF rhinorrhea or orbital hematoma on its own. Therefore, identifying the clinical signs and symptoms can help differentiate between different types of skull fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A nursing student faints in the dissection room, falling straight backwards and hitting...

    Incorrect

    • A nursing student faints in the dissection room, falling straight backwards and hitting her head hard on the floor. She admits that she had no breakfast prior to attending dissection, and a well-meaning technician gives her a piece of chocolate. She complains that the chocolate tastes funny and vomits afterwards. Formal neurological assessment reveals anosmia, and computerised tomography (CT) of the head and neck reveals an anterior base of skull fracture affecting the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.
      What is the level of interruption to the olfactory pathway likely to be in a nursing student?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The first-order sensory neurones

      Explanation:

      The Olfactory Pathway: Neuronal Path and Potential Disruptions

      The olfactory pathway is responsible for our sense of smell and is composed of several neuronal structures. The first-order sensory neurones begin at the olfactory receptors in the nasal cavity and pass through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone to synapse with second-order neurones at the olfactory bulb. A fracture of the cribriform plate can disrupt these first-order neurones, leading to anosmia and a loss of taste sensation. However, the olfactory bulb is supported and protected by the ethmoid bone, making it less likely to be affected by the fracture. The second-order neurones arise in the olfactory bulb and form the olfactory tract, which divides into medial and lateral branches. The lateral branch terminates in the piriform cortex of the frontal lobe, which is further from the ethmoid bone and less likely to be disrupted. Understanding the neuronal path of the olfactory pathway can help identify potential disruptions and their effects on our sense of smell and taste.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old electrician is admitted to the Emergency Department following an electrical injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old electrician is admitted to the Emergency Department following an electrical injury at work. He experienced a current-induced dysrhythmia and has been under observation for the past 24 hours. His current echocardiogram monitoring shows no abnormalities, and he is comfortable at rest with a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute. The patient is normovolemic. What electrolyte abnormality is he most susceptible to developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Electrical Injuries and Electrolyte Imbalances

      Electrical injuries can cause various electrolyte imbalances, with hyperkalaemia being a primary concern due to rhabdomyolysis. This occurs when damaged muscles release potassium, leading to its accumulation in the body. Treatment for hyperkalaemia depends on the patient’s symptoms, ECG, and other blood changes. While hyponatraemia is common in critically ill patients, it may not be the primary concern in electrical injury cases unless the patient has sustained a severe brain injury. Hypokalaemia is unlikely as rhabdomyolysis leads to hyperkalaemia. Hypernatraemia is unlikely unless the patient has had fluid losses. Hypophosphataemia may occur in severe burns, but it is not the best answer for mild thermal injuries and a lack of severe malnutrition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old man is involved in a bicycle accident and is thrown from...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is involved in a bicycle accident and is thrown from his bike. He suffers an injury to his left shoulder that results in bruising. The left side of his neck and left shoulder are tender and painful. Upon examination of his left upper limb, there is a loss of external rotation and abduction at the shoulder, as well as a loss of flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm. Cutaneous sensation testing reveals numbness on the lateral aspect of the arm, forearm, and hand. What is the most likely neurological structure that has been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Upper trunk of the brachial plexus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Upper Trunk Brachial Plexus Injuries and Differential Diagnosis

      Upper trunk brachial plexus injuries, such as Erb’s palsy, result from damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots. This can cause a range of symptoms, including loss of motor function in muscles such as the deltoid, biceps brachii, and supinator, as well as sensory loss in areas such as the lateral aspect of the upper arm and forearm.

      It’s important to differentiate upper trunk brachial plexus injuries from other nerve injuries, such as those affecting the musculocutaneous nerve, axillary nerve, C7 nerve root, and T1 nerve root. Each of these injuries will produce a distinct pattern of symptoms, such as weakness in elbow flexion and supination for musculocutaneous nerve injuries, or loss of sensation over the middle finger for C7 nerve root injuries.

      By understanding the specific functions of each nerve root and the muscles and areas they innervate, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat upper trunk brachial plexus injuries and other nerve injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 8-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department after falling on his outstretched...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department after falling on his outstretched hand. He is experiencing severe pain and cannot move his arm. An X-ray shows a fracture of the distal radius, along with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint. The ulna appears to be intact. What is the most probable type of injury that this patient has suffered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Galeazzi fracture-dislocation

      Explanation:

      Common Fracture-Dislocations: Types and Characteristics

      Fracture-dislocations are common injuries that occur due to falls or direct blows. Here are some of the most common types and their characteristics:

      Galeazzi Fracture-Dislocation: This type of injury is most common in children and occurs when falling onto an outstretched hand with the elbow in flexion. It involves a radial shaft fracture with dorsal angulation, dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, and radial shortening. Surgical fixation is required due to its instability.

      Colles Fracture: This type of fracture occurs following a fall onto an outstretched hand and involves a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal angulation and impaction. There is no associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint.

      Bankart Fracture: This type of fracture occurs as a complication of an anterior shoulder dislocation where the labrum and glenohumeral capsule/ligament are injured due to compression of the humeral head against the labrum. It is often seen with a Hill-Sachs lesion.

      Monteggia Fracture-Dislocation: This type of injury involves a fracture of the ulnar shaft and dislocation of the radial head. It typically occurs following a fall onto an outstretched hand.

      Smith’s Fracture: This type of fracture occurs due to a fall onto a flexed wrist or a direct blow to the back of the wrist. It involves a fracture of the distal radius with volar, not dorsal, angulation of the distal fragments.

      In summary, fracture-dislocations are common injuries that require prompt medical attention and appropriate treatment to ensure proper healing and prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Trauma (2/15) 13%
Passmed